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UPSC Prelims 2022 – Detailed Analysis, Explanation, Cut-Off, Answer Key of General Studies Paper I

  • IASbaba
  • September 7, 2022
UPSC Prelims Answer Key, UPSC Prelims Question Paper
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Dear Students

In this video, Mohan sir (Founder, IASbaba) analyses the UPSC PRELIMS 2022 Question Paper from an Aspirant Point of View.

He discusses the new trends observed in the paper, Questions deduced from Previous Year Questions, Newspaper Reading & Expected Cut Off for this year.

Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

a)Asian Development Bank

b)International Monetary Fund

c)United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative

d)World Bank

Q.1) Solution (b)

The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries.

The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible.

Reference:


Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.

2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Solution (c)

Can be arrived at by elimination method – Statement 2 is wrong

Statement 1 is correct: NEER is a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies. An increase in NEER indicates an appreciation of the local currency against the weighted basket of currencies of its trading partners.

https://datahelp.imf.org/knowledgebase/articles/537469-what-is-nominal-effective-exchange-rate-neer

Statement 2 is incorrect: REER is the real effective exchange rate (a measure of the value of a currency against a weighted average of several foreign currencies) divided by a price deflator or index of costs. An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness.

https://datahelp.imf.org/knowledgebase/articles/537472-what-is-real-effective-exchange-rate-reer

Statement 3 is correct: The NEER can be adjusted to compensate for the inflation rate in the home country. That adjusted number is the REER. Therefore, greater the relative inflation of home country, greater will be the divergence between NEER & REER.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/r/reer.asp

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 30
          • 2021 RaRe Qn 20
          • 2021 RaRe Qn 52
          • 2021 RaRe Qn 63
          • PEP Economy Handout-5
          • ILP 2022 – Q. 99 Test 10 -Economics
          • ILP 2022 – VAN

Q.3) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.

2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.

3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.3) Solution (b)

Can be arrived at by elimination method – statement 1 is incorrect

Statement 1 is incorrect: If RBI feels inflation is too high, RBI will sell government securities, and suck money out of the system. This act will push up interest rates in the economy, and business will cut back on capital expenditure finaced by loans, reducing the demand for money.

On the other hand, if the central bank feels the economy is heading towards a recession, it will buy government securities from the banks, and inject money into the system.

https://www.financialexpress.com/money/your-money-central-banks-role-in-an-interconnected-world/2282240/

 Statement 2 is correct: Central banks also intervene periodically in foreign exchange markets. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI will sell dollars in the market. This will increase the supply of dollars and the demand for rupees, causing the rupee price of the dollar to come down. On the contrary, if the rupee is rapidly appreciating, RBI will buy dollars and inject rupees into the economy. This will increase the demand for dollars and the supply of rupees, thereby leading to an increase in the rupee price of the dollar.

https://www.financialexpress.com/money/your-money-central-banks-role-in-an-interconnected-world/2282240/

 Statement 3 is correct: The price of currency is its interest rate. Basics of economics says that when the price falls, you will be induced to purchase more. Therefore, if interest rates in the USA or European Union falls, it means that it becomes easier for purchasing their currencies.

 IASbaba’s Reference:


 Q.4) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Solution (b)

Both statement 1 and 2 are correct: The Common Framework for Debt Treatments is an agreement of the G20 and Paris Club countries to coordinate and cooperate on debt treatments for up to 73 low income countries that are eligible for the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI).

https://www.imf.org/en/About/FAQ/sovereign-debt


 Q.5) With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.

2. IIBS provides protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.

3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Solution (a)

Can be arrived at by elimination method – statement 3 is incorrect

Statement 1 is Correct: If the market overestimates future inflation, government will reduce borrowing costs by issuing indexed bonds rather than nominal bonds.

https://www.imf.org/external/pubs/ft/wp/wp9712.pdf

Statement 1 is Correct: Inflation indexed bonds (IIBs) provide insurance to investors from inflation elimination of uncertainty risk premium, and containing inflationary expectations.

Globally, inflation-indexed bonds are much in demand since they provide investors an inflation hedge providing real interest rate returns.

https://rbidocs.rbi.org.in/rdocs/PublicationReport/Pdfs/IIBT091210.pdf

https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/markets-await-revamped-iibs-from-reserve-bank/article5944368.ece

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs. There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.

(Q.9 under FAQs – https://m.rbi.org.in/Scripts/FAQView.aspx?Id=91)

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2020 RaRe Qn 1
          • ILP 2022 – Q.74 Test 5 -Economics

Q.6) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms. operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.

2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Solution (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: FDI policy in E-Commerce permits foreign direct investment in the market place model of e-commerce to the extent of 100%  under the automatic route, however, FDI (foreign owned e-commerce firms) is not permitted in inventory based model (owning products and selling them directly to buyers) of e-commerce.

 Statement 2 is Correct: The FDI policy further states that E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such an ownership or control over the inventory will render the business into inventory-based model. Inventory of a vendor will be deemed to be controlled by e-commerce marketplace entity if more than 25% of purchases of such vendor are from the marketplace entity or its group companies.

 Reference:

https://vakilsearch.com/advice/e-commerce-laws-and-regulations-in-india/

https://www.mondaq.com/india/inward-foreign-investment/1052570/the-draft-e-commerce-policy-an-fdi-perspective-

 IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 19
          • Babapedia

Q.7) Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops

2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics

3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company

4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

 Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.7) Solution (a)

The real economy concerns the production, purchase and flow of goods and services (like oil, bread and labour) within an economy. It is contrasted with the financial economy, which concerns the aspects of the economy that deal purely in transactions of money and other financial assets, which represent ownership or claims to ownership of real sector goods and services. The financial sector consists of corporations principally engaged in financial intermediation or in auxiliary financial activities that contribute to financial intermediation.

Therefore, Farmers harvesting the crops and Textile mills raw cotton into fabrics (manufacturing) consists of real sector of the economy.

Whereas, Commercial bank lending money and corporate body issuing bonds are considered as belonging to financial sector of the economy.


 Q.8) Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in aforeign enterprise and paying taxes tot he foreign country on the profit arising out of its investment

(b) A foreign company investing in Indiaand paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sell such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India

(d)A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

Q.8) Solution (d)

Context of Vodafone case

Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India.

https://www.nishithdesai.com/Content/document/pdf/Articles/171023_A_Indirect-Transfer-Taxation-in-India.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:

https://iasbaba.com/2021/08/end-of-retro-tax/


 Q.9) With reference to the expenditure made by an or a company organization which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.

2.Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Solution (a)

          • Statement 1 is correct: Acquiring new technology is considered as capital expenditure as it will generate profit in the future time and helps in creation of new assets.
          • Statement 2 is incorrect: Debt financing occurs when a firm raises money for working capital or capital expenditures by selling debt instruments to individuals and/or institutional investors. Equity financing is the process of raising capital through the sale of shares. Both Debt financing and Equity financing are considered under revenue expenditure.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/d/debtfinancing.asp

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 5
          • 2021 RaRe Qn 44
          • 2021 RaRe Qn 124
          • ILP 2022 – Q.100 Test 5 -Economics

Q.10)With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1.A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.

2.Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Solution (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect:  Household financial savings refer to currency, bank deposits, debt securities, mutual funds, pension funds, insurance, and investments in small savings schemes.  Though, eventually, it flow into government borrowing through banking operations, directly a share of it is not going towards government borrowings (The statement is ambiguous and can go either ways)

Statement 2 is correct:  Dated securities means regular government bonds, whereas T-bills are considered separately. Dated securities issued at market related rates comprise a large share of internal debt.

https://dea.gov.in/sites/default/files/govt_debt_status_paper_2016_0.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • ILP 2022 – Q.89 Test 5 -Economics

Q.11)Consider the following statements:

1.Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

2.The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

3.The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.

4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 3 only

Q.11) Solution (b)

Contempt of court is an act of disrespect or disobedience towards a judge or court’s officers or interference with its orderly process. The Contempt of Courts Act of 1971 categorises contempt of courts as

          • Civil contempt:  It is willful disobedience to any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ or other processes of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to the court.
          • Criminal contempt: Anything that “scandalises or tends to scandalise” the judiciary or “lowers the court’s authority”

Statement 1 is correct: Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed on the recommendation of H. N. Sanyal Committee.

Statement 2 is correct: Article 129: Grants Supreme Court the power to punish for contempt of itself. Article 142(2): Enables the Supreme Court to investigate and punish any person for its contempt. Article 215: Grants every High Court the power to punish for contempt of itself.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Constitution of India does not define any type of contempt of court, neither Civil contempt nor criminal contempt. It is defined by Contempt of Courts Act, 1971

Statement 4 is correct: In India it is the Parliament who has the power to legislate over Contempt of Court.

Reference:

https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-contempt-of-court-attorney-general-7049560/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 38
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 11
          • RaRe 2022 Notes Topic 502
          • PEP Polity Handout-3
          • Babapedia
          • ILP Polity Full Length Q.11

Q.12)With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1.Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

2.Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Solution (b)

          • Statement 1 is incorrect: An Advocate is a person authorized to appear in a Court litigation on behalf of a party and who possess a law degree, enrolled with the Bar Council in accordance to the prescriptions laid by the Advocates Act, 1961.
          • Government law officers, legal firms, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys all are recognised as advocates.
          • A patent attorney or patent lawyer is also an advocate. This means that an individual who has a law degree and has enrolled with a State Bar Council is an advocate who can deal with patent litigation and is hence a patent attorney (https://www.intepat.com/blog/patent/patent-attorney-india/ )
          • Statement 2 is correct: Bar councils have the powers to lay down rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges: http://www.barcouncilofindia.org/about/legal-education/

Q.13) Consider the following statements:

1.A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

2.When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

3.A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Solution (b)

Can be arrived at by elimination method- statement 1 is incorrect

          • Statement 1 is incorrect: No prior approval of the President is required for the Constitutional Amendment Act.
          • Statement 2 is correct: It is obligatory for the President to give his assent, when a Constitutional Amendment Bill is presented before him. The President cannot exercise any veto power regarding the Constitutional Amendment Bill.
          • Statement 3 is correct: Constitutional Amendment Bill needs to be passed by both the houses separately by a special majority, and no joint sitting is allowed regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill.

Reference: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/594125/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 41
          • RaRe Notes Topic 703
          • PEP Polity Handout 6
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.14)Consider the following statements:

1.The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

2.The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Solution (b)

          • Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution of India does not define any categorisation of ministers.
          • Statement 2 correct: 91st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2004 curbed PM’s discretion to appoint any number of ministers. This Amendment added clause (1A) to Article 72, which prescribed that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 per cent of the number of members of the House of the People.

Reference: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national//article60075036.ece

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 63
          • RaRe Notes Topic 312
          • PEP Polity Handout 6
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.15)Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1.To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2.To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3.To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q.15) Solution (b)

          • Statement 1 is incorrect: Under Article 352, If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, made a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory. Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1018568/
          • Statement 2 is correct: Article 75(3) of the Constitution clearly says that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. There is no mention of Rajya Sabha. Therefore, Lok Sabha has exclusive powers to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1324537/
          • Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 61(1) clearly says that when a President is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, the charge shall be preferred by either House of Parliament. Hence, both Houses of Parliament has a role to play. https://indiankanoon.org/doc/594857/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 14
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 5
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 21
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 65
          • PEP Polity Handout 3
          • ILP 2022, Polity VAN

Q.16) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1.The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2.The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) Solution (b)

          • Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
          • Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify a time-period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea.

Reference: https://prsindia.org/theprsblog/the-anti-defection-law-explained

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 80
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 11
          • PEP Polity Handout 14
          • Babapedia
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.17)Consider the following statements:

1.Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

2.According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) Solution (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament. However, Solicitor General do not participate in the meetings of Parliament.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 76 deals with Attorney General of India. As per Article 76(4), The Attorney General shall hold office during the pleasure of the President and it doesn’t mention about the resignation of Attorney General of India.

https://indiankanoon.org/doc/1985537/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 6
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 52
          • 2022 Rare topic 313
          • PEP Polity Handout 14
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.18) With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1.Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.

2.Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.

3.Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) Solution (c)

Mandamus

It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a public corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

The writ of mandamus cannot be issued (a) against a private individual or body; (b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force; (c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory; (d) to enforce a contractual obligation; (e) against the president of India or the state governors; and (f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity. Hence Statement 1 is correct

Quo-Warranto:

In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 32
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 26 & 38
          • 2022 RaRe video topic 8
          • PEP Polity Handout 2
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.19)With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1.Private and public hospitals must adopt it.

2.As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.

3.It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Solution (d)

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will connect the digital health solutions of hospitals across the country with each other. The Mission will not only make the processes of hospitals simplified but also will increase ease of living. The Digital Ecosystem will also enable a host of other facilities like Digital Consultation, Consent of patients in letting medical practitioners access their records, etc. With the implementation of this scheme, old medical records cannot get lost as every record will be stored digitally.

It is a National Digital Health Eco-system that supports Universal Health Coverage in an efficient, accessible, inclusive, affordable, timely, and safe manner, through provision of a wide-range of data, information and infrastructure services, duly leveraging open, interoperable, standards-based digitalsystems, and ensuring the security, confidentiality and privacy of health-related personal information.

https://www.india.gov.in/spotlight/ayushman-bharat-digital-mission-abdm

The flagship digital initiative involves the creation of not just a unique health ID for every citizen, but also a digital healthcare professionals and facilities registry. https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ayushman-bharat-digital-mission-national-health-id-narendra-modi-7540456/

Therefore, all options are correct.

IASbaba’s Reference:

Babapedia

https://iasbaba.com/2021/09/ayushman-bharat-digital-mission/

https://iasbaba.com/2022/02/cabinet-approves-implementation-of-ayushman-bharat-digital-mission/


Q.20)With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1.As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2.There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3.The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4.The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Q.20) Solution (a)

          • Statement 1 is correct: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. Whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.
          • Statement 2 is incorrect: Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus (not a mandatory provision) that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.
          • Statement 3 is correct: The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. S/he also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both the cases, s/he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. S/he also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting.
          • Statement 4 is incorrect: At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker

Reference: http://loksabhaph.nic.in/rules/rules.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 76
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 9
          • PEP Polity Handout 3
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.21)Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Q.21) Solution (b)

Rice paddies are considered one of the most important sources of CH4 and N2O emissions, which have attracted considerable attention due to their contribution to global warming

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0167880917304607

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.22)“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

1.Reduced seed requirement

2.Reduced methane production

3.Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Solution (d)

The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is a farming methodology aimed at increasing the yield of rice produced in farming. It is a low-water, labor-intensive method that uses younger seedlings singly spaced and typically hand weeded with special tools.

The benefits of SRI have been demonstrated in over 60 countries (see map.) They include: 20%-100% or more increased yields, up to a 90% reduction in required seed, and up to 50% water savings. SRI principles and practices have been adapted for rainfed rice as well as for other crops (such as wheat, sugarcane and tef, among others), with yield increases and associated economic benefits. Therefore, all options are correct.

http://sri.ciifad.cornell.edu/

To Summarise, benefits of SRI include

          • Higher yields – Both grain and straw
          • Reduced duration (by 10 days)
          • Lesser seed requirements
          • Lesser chemical inputs
          • Less water requirement
          • Less chaffy grain %
          • Grain weight increased without change in grain size
          • Higher head rice recovery
          • Withstand cyclonic gales
          • Cold tolerance
          • Soil health improves through biological activity

Disadvantages

          • Higher labour costs in the initial years
          • Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills
          • Not suitable when no irrigation source available

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • Babapedia
          • https://iasbaba.com/2022/05/system-of-rice-intensification/#:~:text=Involves%20cultivating%20rice%20with%20as,that%20actively%20aerates%20the%20soil.

Q.23) Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(c) Lake Oguta

(d) Lake Volta

Q.23) Solution (b)

Lake Faguibine is a lake in Mali on the southern edge of the Sahara Desert situated 75 km north of the Niger River to which it is connected by a system of smaller lakes and channels. The lake – once one of the largest in West Africa – used to be fed by annual flooding from the Niger River. But it started to disappear after catastrophic droughts in the 1970s. Starting in the late 1980s, a drop in precipitation steadily dried the lake. By the late 1990s, the traditional livelihoods of fishing, agriculture, and livestock herding became impractical.

Even though normal rainfall resumed after the year 2000, water has only rarely reached the lake and this has caused a partial collapse of the local ecosystem. Efforts to boost resilience by restoring Faguibine’s wetlands have been derailed by waves of conflict, most recently a years-long Islamist insurgency.

Reference: https://www.reuters.com/business/cop/malian-villagers-battle-advancing-sands-after-lake-dries-2021-11-04/


Q.24) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Q.24) Solution (c)

The gorge of Gandikota is situated on the Pennar River in Andhra Pradesh and is known as the Grand Canyon of India.

A gorge is any valley formed by a source of water flowing between tall slabs of steep rocks. Gorges are formed as a result of erosion of rocks over a long period of time. In fact rivers cut through the rocks to form gorges over many centuries.

Reference: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/magazines/travel/canyon-viewpoint-soak-in-some-natural-beauty-while-camping-along-pennar-river/articleshow/45885349.cms

IASbaba’s Reference:

Babapedia

https://iasbaba.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/10/IASbabas-Daily-Quiz-25th-October.pdf

ILP 2022 VAN


Q.25)Consider the following pairs:

Peak:                                             Mountains

1.Namcha Barwa –                  Garhwal Himalaya

2.Nanda Devi  –                       Kumaon Himalaya

3.Nokrek –                               Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q.25) Solution (b)

Namcha Barwa is in an isolated part of southeastern Tibet. It is around the Namcha Barwa that the mighty Brahmaputra River enters India. On other hand the Garhwal Himalayas are mountain ranges located in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Hence, Pair 1 is incorrect

Kumaun Himalayas, west-central section of the Himalayas in northern India, extending 200 miles (320 km) from the Sutlej River east to the Kali River. The range, comprising part of the Siwalik Range in the south and part of the Great Himalayas in the north, lies largely within the state of Uttarakhand, northwest of Nepal. It rises to 25,646 feet (7,817 metres) at Nanda Devi, the range’s highest peak. Hence, Pair 2 is correct

The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres). Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 26
          • Rare 2022 Day 7 topic 7
          • ILP 2022 VAN
          • Babapedia

Q.26) The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

(d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas

Q.26) Solution (a)

Levant, the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, roughly corresponding to modern-day Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Syria, and certain adjacent areas. https://www.britannica.com/place/Levant

IASbaba’s Reference:

Babapedia


Q.27) Consider the following countries:

1.Azerbaijan

2.Kyrgyzstan

3.Tajikistan

4.Uzbekistan

5.Turkmenistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.27) Solution ©

Afghanistan, landlocked country located in the heart of south-central Asia. Lying along important trade routes connecting southern and eastern Asia to Europe and the Middle East, Afghanistan has long been a prize sought by empire builders.

It is bounded to the

          • east and south by Pakistan
          • west by Iran
          • North by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan.
          • It also has a short border with India (Kashmir) and China (Xinjiang), at the end of the long, narrow Wakhan Corridor, in the extreme northeast.

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 2
          • 2021 Rare Day 101 topic 4
          • Babapedia

Q.28)With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1.Monazite is a source of rare earths.

2.Monazite contains thorium.

3.Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.

4.In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.28) Solution (b)

Can be arrived at by elimination method- statement 3 is extreme (entire Indian coastal sands) and therefore incorrect

Monazite in general, contains about 55 – 60% total Rare Earth Oxide. Monazite is a mineral mainly containing rare earths and thorium-a prescribed substance to be handled by the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). Accordingly, Indian Rare Earths Ltd. (IREL) wholly owned by the Govt. of India, under the administrative control of the Dept. of Atomic Energy (DAE) utilises monazite mainly for production of rare earth compounds, and thorium, as needed in the Department of Atomic Energy. Therefore, Statement 1,2 and 4 is correct.

Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constitute unit of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) has estimated the presence of 11.93 million tonnes of monazite resources in the beach sand mineral placer deposits along the coastal tracts of India.

Reference: https://pib.gov.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=112033

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.29)In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(c) First half of the month of July

(d) Second half of the month of July

Q.29) Solution (b)

The longest day for those living north of the Equator is generally on June 21. In technical terms, this day is referred to as the summer solstice, the longest day of the summer season. It occurs when the sun is directly over the Tropic of Cancer, or more specifically right over 23.5 degree north latitude

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • PEP Geography Handout 1
          • Babapedia
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.30)Consider the following pairs:

Wetland/Lake:                         Location

1.Hokera Wetland           –         Punjab

2.Renuka Wetland         –        Himachal Pradesh

3.Rudrasagar Lake           –       Tripura

4.Sasthamkotta                –       Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Q.30) Solution: (b)

Hokera wetland- Jammu and Kashmir

Renuka wetland- Himachal Pradesh

Rudrasagar lake- Tripura

Sasthamkotta lake- Kerala

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 17
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 9
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 22
          • 2022 RaRe Qn 36
          • 2022 Rare PPT day 12 topic 13
          • Babapedia
          • ILP 2022 VAN

Q.31) Consider the following:

1.Aarogya Setu

2.COWIN

3.DigiLocker

4.DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.31) Solution: (d)

Free and Open Source Software (FOSS): Unlike proprietary software, everyone has the freedom to edit, modify and reuse open-source code. This results in many benefits — reduced costs, no vendor lock-in, the ability to customise for local context, and greater innovation through wider collaboration.

In India, we have seen some great examples of public services being delivered through systems that use FOSS building blocks, including Aadhaar, GSTN, and the DigiLocker.

Reference: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/free-and-open-source-software-linux-user-groups-aadhaar-gstn-digilocker-7477122/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 Rare day 59 topic 14
          • Babapedia

Q.32)With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements

1.Web 3.0 technology enables people to control data

2.In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks

3.Web 3.0 is operated by user collectively rather than a corporation

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.32) Solution: (d)

To understand web3, we should start with Web 1.0 and Web 2.0.

Web 1.0 is the world wide web or the internet that was invented in 1989. It became popular from 1993. The internet in the Web 1.0 days was mostly static web pages where users would go to a website and then read and interact with the static information. Even though there were e-commerce websites in the initial days it was still a closed environment and the users themselves could not create any content or post reviews on the internet.

Web 1.0 lasted until 1999. Web 2.0 started in some form in the late 1990s itself though 2004 was when most of its features were fully available. It is still the age of Web 2.0 now.

The differentiating characteristic of Web 2.0 compared to Web1.0 is that users can create content. They can interact and contribute in the form of comments, registering likes, sharing and uploading their photos or videos and perform other such activities.

Web3.0 will deliver “decentralized and fair internet where users control their own data”.

Currently if a seller has to make a business to the buyer, both the buyer and seller need to be registered on a “shop” or “platform” like Amazon or any such e-commerce portal.

What this “platform” currently does is that it authenticates that the buyer and seller are genuine parties for the transaction. Web3 tries to remove the role of the “platform” and enables people to control data.

For the buyer to be authenticated, the usual proofs aided by block chain technology will be used. The same goes for the seller. With block chain, the time and place of transaction are recorded permanently.  Thus, Web3 enables peer to peer (seller to buyer) transaction by eliminating the role of the intermediary.

Consider a social media application where one wants to share pictures with their followers. It could be a broadcast operation from the person, aided by blockchain and there is no need of social media accounts for all the participants to be able to perform this.

The key concepts in Web3 seen so far are peer to peer transaction and block chain. The spirit of Web3 is Decentralized Autonomous Organization (DAO) which is that all the business rules and governing rules in any transaction are transparently available for anyone to see and software will be written conforming to these rules.

Reference: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/technology/internet/web3-a-vision-for-the-future/article38280966.ece

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • PEP S&T Handout 7
          • Babapedia

Q.33)With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)”, consider the following statements:

1.SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.

2.SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.

3.Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.33) Solution: (d)

Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to connect to and use cloud-based apps over the Internet. Common examples are email, calendaring and office tools (such as Microsoft Office 365). SaaS can be access their data through their mobile devices. Therefore, statement 2 and statement 3 is correct.

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-in/overview/what-is-saas/

Since software is a customisable according to consumer preferences, it provides flexibility for its users for modifying interface & data fields. Hence, statement 1 is correct

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RARE Day 29 topic 7
          • Babapedia

Q.34)Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?

(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.

(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.

(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its surface

Q.34) Solution: (c)

A Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS) is a warhead delivery system that uses a low earth orbit towards its target destination. Just before reaching the target, it deorbits through a retrograde engine burn.

The idea behind FOBS is, a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target.

If the target and the launch position is lined up and the warhead keeps going round, it will complete a circle.Obviously, with the earth moving during this, it is more of a spiral than a ring, but the horizontal movement is countered in such a way that the warhead still goes over the target.

https://www.financialexpress.com/defence/chinas-fractional-orbital-bombardment-system-impact-on-indias-nuclear-deterrence-posture/2356471/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.35) Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?

(a) Cloud Services

(b) Quantum Computing

(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies

(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Q.35) Solution: (b)

A qubit (or quantum bit) is the quantum mechanical analogue of a classical bit. In classical computing the information is encoded in bits, where each bit can have the value zero or one. In quantum computing the information is encoded in qubits.

A quantum bit is any bit made out of a quantum system, like an electron or photon. Just like classical bits, a quantum bit must have two distinct states: one representing “0” and one representing “1”. Unlike a classical bit, a quantum bit can also exist in superposition states, be subjected to incompatible measurements, and even be entangled with other quantum bits. Having the ability to harness the powers of superposition, interference and entanglement makes qubits fundamentally different and much more powerful than classical bits.

https://uwaterloo.ca/institute-for-quantum-computing/quantum-101/quantum-information-science-and-technology/what-qubit

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 5
          • 2022 RaRe Day 29 Topic 5
          • PEP S&T Handout 7
          • Babapedia

Q.36) Consider the following communication technologies:

1.Closed-circuit Television

2.Radio Frequency Identification

3.Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered of the Short-Range devices/technologies?

(a) 1 and 2 only.

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.36) Solution: (d)

Short-range radio device, is intended to cove r radio transmitters which provide either

unidirectional or bidirectional communication and which have low capability of

causing interference to other radio equipment.

The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

          • Access control (including door and gate openers)
          • Alarms and movement detectors
          • Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
          • Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
          • Industrial control
          • Local Area Networks
          • Medical implants
          • Metering devices
          • Remote control
          • Radio frequency identification (RFID)
          • Road Transport Telematics

Short range devices often benefit from a relaxed regulatory regime compared with other radio communications equipment.  As a general principle, a user is licence free to operate such equipment, some specific cases may require an individual licence.

https://www.etsi.org/technologies/short-range-devices

https://tec.gov.in/public/pdf/Studypaper/Short%20Range%20Devices%20%5BFinal%5D.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.37)Consider the following statements

1.Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues

2.Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces

3.Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.37) Solution: (d)

Biofilms are a collective of one or more types of microorganisms that can grow on many different surfaces. Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi and protists.

Biofilms have been found growing on minerals and metals. They have been found underwater, underground and above the ground. They can grow on plant tissues and animal tissues, and on implanted medical devices such as catheters and pacemakers. Biofilms thrive upon moist or wet surfaces. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Biofilms have established themselves in such environments for a very long time. Fossil evidence of biofilms dates to about 3.25 billion years ago. For example, biofilms have been found in the 3.2 billion-year-old deep-sea hydrothermal rocks of the Pilbara Craton in Australia. Similar biofilms are found in hydrothermal environments such as hot springs and deep-sea vents.

A combination of several pathogens can synergistically interact to form biofilms in the food industry. In food-processing environments, bacteria are able to exist as multispecies biofilms, from where both spoilage and pathogenic bacteria can contaminate food. For instance in the fishing industry, fresh fish products can suffer from biofilm formation by mixed pathogenic species, which can imply significant health and economic issues. Synergistic interactions have been observed in a fresh-cut produce processing plant, where E. coli interacted with Burkholderia caryophylli and Ralstonia insidiosa to form mixed biofilms. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

By forming a biofilm, bacteria protect themselves from host defense, disinfectants, and antibiotics. Bacterial biofilm is less accessible to antibiotics and the human immune system and thus poses a big threat to public health because of its involvement in a variety of infectious diseases. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Reference: https://www.livescience.com/57295-biofilms.html

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.38)Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics :

1.Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.

2.The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.

3.Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Q.38) Solution: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. For a microbe to be called a probiotic, it must have several characteristics. These include being able to:

          • Be isolated from a human.
          • Survive in your intestine after ingestion (being eaten).
          • Have a proven benefit to you.
          • Be safely consumed.

Statement 2 is correct: Probiotics are microorganisms naturally present in the digestive tract that aid in digestion and reduce inflammation. While a person can take probiotic supplements, there are also many probiotic foods available. Food manufacturers may also call probiotics “live culture” or “active cultures.” Many fermented products contain probiotics, which means the bacteria in them are still living.

https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/323314#probiotic-foods

Statement 3 is correct: They support healthy body systems from your mouth to your gut, and help control harmful microorganisms like germs. At the right levels, probiotics aid digestion and improve nutrient absorption. Probiotics are believed to help with digestive issues such as: colic & constipation.

https://my.clevelandclinic.org/health/articles/14598-probiotics

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • RaRe Day 41 topic 12
          • Babapedia

Q.39)In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1.The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.

2.Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.

3.COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.39) Solution: (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect: COVISHIELD vaccine is based on the platform which uses a recombinant, replication-deficient chimpanzee adenovirus vector encoding the SARS-CoV-2 Spike (S) glycoprotein.

Statement 2 is correct: Sputnik V is the world’s first registered vaccine based on a well-studied human adenovirus vector platform. It has been approved for use in 71 countries with a total population of 4 billion people. The vaccine is named after the first Soviet space satellite. The launch of Sputnik-1 in 1957 reinvigorated space research around the world, creating a so-called “Sputnik moment” for the global community.

Statement 3 is correct: COVAXIN is a whole inactivated virus-based COVID-19 vaccine developed by Bharat Biotech. They contain inactivated viruses, which cannot infect a person but still can teach the immune system to prepare a defence mechanism against the active virus.

References: https://iasbaba.com/2021/07/approaches-to-vaccine-making/

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 30, 60
          • 2022 RaRe Day 29 Topic 13, 14, 15
          • Babapedia

Q.40)If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

GPS and navigation systems could fail.

1.Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.

2.Power grids could be damaged.

3.Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.

4.Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.

5.Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.

6.Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

(b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only

(c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Q.40) Solution: (c)

Just as the sun keeps sending us light and heat, it also throws out a lot of other material in all directions, including towards Earth. In fact, there is a constant stream of charged particles — electrons and protons — that escape from the sun’s atmosphere (corona) and spread across space. This stream is called ‘solar wind’. We are protected from the solar wind by our magnetic field, which deflects the particles away.

Sometimes, a bubble of gas gets burped out of the sun. Imagine it like a bubble escaping from a bucket of soap water. This bubble, typically containing billions of tonnes of matter, ploughs through the solar wind and travels in a random direction at a speed of several million kilometers per hour. Such a bubble that has cut loose from the sun’s corona is called ‘coronal mass ejection’ (CME) or ‘solar storm’.

Usually, the earth’s magnetic field — magnetosphere — will ward off the dangerous incursions; the solar sotrms could pose danger only if the magnetic field is overwhelmed.

If a big solar storm occurs, some satellites could be lost. As for the earth-based systems, such as power grids and telecom networks, even if a big solar storm hits the earth, only countries in the upper and lower latitudes are in danger of getting affected.

Solar storms don’t have impact on water levels and forest fires. Hence, statement 2 and 5 are incorrect.

Reference: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/blexplainer/all-about-solar-storms-and-how-they-affects-us/article65245445.ece

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Qn 5
          • 2022 RaRe Day 5 topic 13
          • Babapedia

Q.41)“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Q.41) Solution: (a)

The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of “holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C.” A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.

CAT quantifies and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies and action. It also aggregates country action to the global level, determining likely temperature increases during the 21st century using the MAGICC climate model. CAT further develops sectoral analysis to illustrate required pathways for meeting the global temperature goals.

Reference: https://climateactiontracker.org/about/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.42)Consider the following statements

1.“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them

2.The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”

3.EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.

4.Some Indian companies are members of EP100

5.The International Energy Agency is the secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 1,3 and 4 only

(c) 2,3 and 5 only

(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5

Q.42) Solution: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is a non-profit organisation founded in 2004 that works with businesses and government leaders around the world to address climate change. The group has programmes focusing on renewable energy and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.  https://www.theclimategroup.org/about-us

Statement 2 is incorrect: EP100 is led by the Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy.

https://www.theclimategroup.org/about-ep100

Statement 3 is correct: EP100 brings together over a hundred companies with operations around the world, committed to improving energy efficiency & energy productivity.

          • Energy efficiency is essential as it can deliver over 40% of the reduction in energy related emissions needed to achieve global climate goals. Taking energy efficiency from the boiler room to the boardroom, members are reducing emissions whilst improving competitiveness and inspiring others to follow their lead.
          • Energy productivity is the ratio of economic output to energy consumption. By implementing efficiency measures, EP100 members improve their energy productivity and get more bang for their money – while reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Statement 4 is correct: Indian companies like Mahindra & Mahindra and Godrej are a part of this initiative.

Statement 5 is correct: Climate Group is the Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition (The largest global network of state and regional governments committed to reducing emissions in line with the Paris Agreement)

IASbaba Reference:

Babapedia


Q.43) “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Q.43) Solution: (d)

The kidneys act as very efficient filters for ridding the body of waste and toxic substances, and returning vitamins, amino acids, glucose, hormones and other vital substances into the bloodstream.

Natural wetlands have often been referred to as “earth’s kidneys” because of their high and long-term capacity to filter pollutants from the water that flows through them. The Aquatic plants in the wetlands absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients thus acting as filters of aquatic system (https://cfpub.epa.gov/si/si_public_record_report.cfm?Lab=NRMRL&dirEntryId=264191)

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.44) In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following

1.The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.

2.In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.

3.PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.

4.Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2 only

Q.44) Solution: (b)

Statement 1 is correct: The updated guidelines state that annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3

https://www.who.int/news-room/feature-stories/detail/what-are-the-who-air-quality-guidelines

Statement 2 is incorrect: the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather.

Statement 3 is incorrect: PM2.5 (particles with a diameter of 2.5 micrometres or less): these particles are so small they can get deep into the lungs and into the bloodstream.

On the other hand, PM10 (particles with a diameter of 10 micrometres or less): these particles are small enough to pass through the throat and nose and enter the lungs.

https://www.epa.gov/pm-pollution/particulate-matter-pm-basics

Statement 4 is correct: Long-term exposure to ozone is linked to aggravation of asthma, and is likely to be one of many causes of asthma development (https://www.epa.gov/ground-level-ozone-pollution/health-effects-ozone-pollution )

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.45)With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1.It is a fungus.

2.It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.

3.It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Q.45) Solution: (c)

Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota.

Grows in himalayan foothills. Hence, Statement 1 is correct

Apart from its flavour, guchhi also owes its high price to the challenges in cultivation. The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir. Hence, statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect.

Reference: https://indianexpress.com/article/lifestyle/food-wine/gucchi-mushrooms-cost-health-benefits-6484874/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.46)With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1.Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.

2.Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.

3.Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.

4.Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Q.46) Solution: (a)

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET or PETE), a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. They are often used in durable-press blends with other fibres such as rayon, wool, and cotton, reinforcing the inherent properties of those fibre. Hence, statement 1 is correct

PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water. Statement 2 is incorrect as it contains “any alcoholic beverage”

PET is completely recyclable, and is the most recycled plastic worldwide. Hence statement 3 is correct.

PET can be commercially recycled by thorough washing and re-melting, or by chemically breaking it down to its component materials to make new PET resin. The burning of plastics releases toxic gases like dioxins, furans, mercury and polychlorinated biphenyls (better known as BCPs) into the atmosphere, and poses a threat to vegetation, and human and animal health. Therefore, statement 4 is incorrect

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.47) Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(c) Spoonbill

(d) White Ibis

Q.47) Solution: (a)

Golden Mahseer is a fish, while others are birds

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2022 RaRe Day 36 Topic 9

Q.48)Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1.Alfalfa

2.Amaranth

3.Chickpea

4.Clover

5.Purslane (Kulfa)

6.Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Q.48) Solution: (a)

Alongside potassium and phosphorus, nitrogen is among the top 3 vital nutrients for crop development, being responsible for the process of photosynthesis and chlorophyll contents. Nitrogen fixation in soil is important for agriculture because even though dry atmospheric air is 78% nitrogen, it is not the nitrogen that plants can consume right away. Its supply in a digestible form is a necessary condition for crop health.

Nitrogen fixation is a process that implies the transformation of the relatively non-reactive atmospheric N2 into its more reactive compounds (nitrates, nitrites, or ammonia).

About 90% of natural N fixation on our planet is biotic and occurs thanks to soil microorganisms. Abiotic natural inducers are lightning and UV rays. Alternatively, N can be fixed with electrical equipment or industrially.

Alfalfa, Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used by farmers worldwide.

Reference: https://eos.com/blog/nitrogen-fixation/

Amaranth, spinach, purslane are not nitrogen fixing plants and we have to provide nitrogen through fertilizers for their proper growth and development.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.49)“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Q.49) Solution: (a)

BIOROCK OR Mineral Accretion Technology is a coral reef restoration technology that utilizes low voltage electricity to improve the health and growth rates of corals and other marine organisms.

Biorock is the name given to the substance formed by electro accumulation of minerals dissolved in seawater on steel structures that are lowered onto the sea bed and are connected to a power source, in this case solar panels that float on the surface.

The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water. When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the sea floor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.

Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy in building their own calcium carbonate skeletons.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/india-begins-coral-restoration-in-gulf-of-kachchh/article30645770.ece

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.50) The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(b) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using

(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Q.50) Solution: (c)

Miyawaki is a technique pioneered by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, that helps build dense, native forests. The approach is supposed to ensure that plant growth is 10 times faster and the resulting plantation is 30 times denser than usual. It involves planting dozens of native species in the same area, and becomes maintenance-free after the first three years.

https://bengaluru.citizenmatters.in/how-to-make-mini-forest-miyawaki-method-34867

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • 2021 RaRe Topic 191

Q.51) In the government of India act 1919, the functions of provincial government were divided into reserved and transferred subjects. Which of the following were treated as “reserved” subjects?

1.Administration of Justice

2.Local self government

3.Land revenue

4.Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1,2,3

(b) 2,3,4

(c) 1,3,4

(d) 1,2,4

Q.51) Solution -(c)

Option 2 is incorrect as it was under transferred list .

The subjects were divided into two lists – reserved and transferred.

The governor was in charge of the reserved list along with his executive councillors. The subjects under this list were law and order, irrigation, finance, land revenue, etc.

The ministers were in charge of subjects under the transferred list. The subjects included were education, local government, health, excise, industry, public works, religious endowments, etc.

The ministers were responsible to the people who elected them through the legislature.

References: https://www.constitutionofindia.net/historical_constitutions/government_of_india_act__1919_1st%20January%201919

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.52)In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to

(a) clothing

(b) coins

(c) ornaments

(d) weapons

Q.52) Solution- (b)

The Travancore Fanam was a type of money that was issued by the State of Travancore, now mainly a part of Kerala in South India. The Fanams (also spelt Fanoms) and Chuckrams (or Chakrams) were known to be some of the smallest coins in the world. The word Fanam appears to be an Anglo-Germanic sound shift from the word Panam, which means money in Dravidian languages. Historically, the Fanam and Chuckram coins were the regular unit of currency in medieval Travancore and appear to have been extensively used for trading in the region of South India. The words Fanam and Panam literally mean money and are still used as a synonym for wealth in Kerala in the native language of Malayalam.

References: http://www.columbia.edu/itc/mealac/pritchett/00glossarydata/terms/fanam/fanam.html

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.53) Consider the following freedom fighters

1.Barindra kumar ghosh

2.jogesh Chandra chatterjee

3.Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

(a) 1 &2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 &3

(d) 3 only

Q.53) Solution- (d)

Statements 1 and 2 are wrong . Barindra kumar was active part of Anushilan samiti and not Gadhar party. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee was an Indian freedom fighter, revolutionary and member of Rajya Sabha.Jogesh Chandra became a member of the Anushilan Samiti. He was one of the founder members of Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) (in 1924) that later became Hindustan Socialist Republican Association

Statement 3 is correct – During World War I he became extensively involved as one of the leading figures of the Gadar Revolution that attempted to trigger a mutiny in India in February 1915. Trusted and tried Ghadrites were sent to several cantonments to infiltrate into the army. The idea of the Gadar leaders was that with the war raging in Europe most of the soldiers had gone out of India and the rest could be easily won over.

References : https://pluralism.org/the-ghadar-party-freedom-for-india

IASbaba’s Reference:

          • PEP Modern History Handout 6

Q.54)With reference to the proposals of cripps Mission, consider the following statements

1.The constituent assembly would have members nominated by the provincial assemblies as well as the princely states.

2.Any province, which is not prepared to accept the new constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with britain regarding its future status

Which of the following statements given is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 &2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.54) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is wrong . As it was proposed under mission that A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members ELECTED by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.

Statement 2 is right – Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.

Reference – https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/lehs305.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:

                  • 2022 RaRe Day 16 topic 10

Q.55)  With reference to the Indian History , consider the following text :

1.Nettipakarana

2.Parishishtaparvan

3.Avadanashataka

4.Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jains texts ?

(a) 1,2,3

(b) 2&4 only

(c) 1,3,4

(d) 2,3,4

Q.55) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 and  4 are  wrong . As Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka both were buddhist texts.

The Nettipakaraṇa (Pali, also called Nettippakarana, abbreviated Netti) is a mythological Buddhist scripture, sometimes included in the Khuddaka Nikaya of Theravada Buddhism’s Pali Canon.

The Avadānaśataka or “Century of Noble Deeds” is an anthology in Sanskrit of one hundred Buddhist legends, approximately dating to the same time as the Ashokavadana.

Statements 2 and 4 are right . The Parishishtaparvan also known as the Sthaviravalicharitra is a 12th-century Sanskrit mahakavya by Hemachandra which details the histories of the earliest Jain teachers

Mahapurana (महापुराण) or Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a major Jain text[1] composed largely by Acharya Jinasena during the rule of Rashtrakuta ruler Amoghavarsha and completed by his pupil Gunabhadra in the 9th century CE.

References :

Book titled –

The Religions of India: A Concise Guide to Nine Major Faiths

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.56)  With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs

Historical person             known as

1.Aryadeva             ———- jaina scholar

2.Dignaga ———- Buddhist scholar

3.Nathamuni ———– Vaishnava Scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched

(a) None of the pairs

(b) Only one pair

(c) Only two pairs

(d) All three pairs

Q.56) Solution- (c)

Āryadeva, was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, a disciple of Nagarjuna and a Madhyamaka philosopher. Hence pair 1 is incorrectly matched .

Dignāga was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic. Dignāga’s work laid the groundwork for the development of deductive logic in India and created the first system of Buddhist logic and epistemology

Hence pair 2 is correctly matched.

Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. Considered the first of Sri Vaishnava āchāryās, Nathamuni is also the author of Yogarahasya, and Nyāyatattva.

Hence pair 3 is corrctly matched.

References: https://www.thehindu.com/society/faith/attributes-of-nathamuni/article31863441.ece

https://www.britannica.com/biography/Dignaga

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.57) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1.The first mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji

2.During the reign of Ala-ud-din-Khalji, one mongol assault marched up to delhi and besieged the city

3.Muhammad -bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north west of his kingdom to mongols

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1&2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1&3

(d) 3 only

Q.57) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. In the winter of 1297, Kadar, a noyan of the Mongol Chagatai Khanate invaded the Delhi Sultanate ruled by Alauddin Khalji.

Statement 2 is right.

Statement 3 is incorrect. As it was not during mohammad bin tughlaqs reign mangol invasion happened.

References : https://ncert.nic.in/ncerts/l/gess104.pdf

https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/73298/3/Theme-2.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.58)  With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “kulah-Daran”?

(a) Arab merchants

(b) Qalandars

(c) Persian calligraphists

(d) sayyids

Q.58) Solution- (d)

Source – Medival Indian History book by V.D.Mahajan

References : https://books.google.co.in/books?id=nMWSQuf4oSIC&pg=RA1-PA364&lpg=RA1-PA364&dq=kulah+daran&source=bl&ots=iOi8BNfXTQ&sig=ACfU3U2OmJ4Pl6nqqRZ_PZ8Tybj6DVPf2A&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwitsdOqv5v4AhWkklYBHbTgD0g4ChDoAXoECAMQAg

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.59) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements

1.The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers

2.Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.

3.The english east india company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the vijayanagara empire

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 2&3 only

(c) 1&3 only

(d) 1,2,3

Q.59) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is wrong. Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established their presence in the Indian subcontinent when they established a reading post in Dutch Coromandel, notably Pulicat. They were mainly trading in textiles and spaces. They also established presence in Surat and Bengal in 1616 and 1627 respectively.

To note, the first factory founded by Dutch in India was at Masulipatnam in 1605.

The Dutch East Indies even conquered Sri Lanka from the Portuguese in 1656. Following this they constructed a series of forts on the Malabar coast to protect against invasion.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.The english east india company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the vijayanagara empire

References : https://www.britannica.com/topic/Dutch-East-India-Company

https://www.livehistoryindia.com/story/religious-places-/india-its-dutch-connection

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.60)According to Kautilya’s Arthahshastra, which of the following are correct?

1.A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment

2.If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free

3.If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled tp the legal status of the master’s son

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 2&3 only

(c) 1&3 only

(d) 1,2 &3

Q.60) Solution- (d)

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

The text discusses marriage and consent laws in Books 3 and 4. It asserts, in chapter 4.2, that a girl may marry any man she wishes,[note 3][note 4] three years after her first menstruation, provided that she does not take her parents’ property or ornaments received by her before the marriage. However, if she marries a man her father arranges or approves of, she has the right to take the ornaments with her.

In chapter 3.4, the text gives the right to a woman that she may remarry anyone if she wants to, if she has been abandoned by the man she was betrothed to, if she does not hear back from him for three menstrual periods, or if she does hear back and has waited for seven menses.

Refrences :https://www.worldhistory.org/Arthashastra/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.61) Consider the following statements:

1.Tight monetary policy of US federal reserve could lead to capital flight.

2.Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing external commercial Borrowings (ECBs)

3.Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECB’s

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 2&3 only

(c) 1&3 only

(d) 1,2,3

Q.61) Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is right. Tight, or contractionary monetary policy is a course of action undertaken by a central bank such as the Federal Reserve to slow down overheated economic growth, to constrict spending in an economy that is seen to be accelerating too quickly, or to curb inflation when it is rising too fast.

Statement 2 is right.Hiking the federal funds rate–the rate at which banks lend to each other–increases borrowing rates and slows lending.

Statement 3 is wrong. Devaluation of domestic currency increases the currency risk associated with ECB’s

References : https://www.investopedia.com/terms/t/tightmonetarypolicy.asp

IASbaba’s Reference:

                  • RaRe 2022 Day 21 topic 4

Q.62)Consider the following states:

1.Andhra Pradesh

2.Kerala

3.Himachal Pradesh

4.Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea producing states?

(a) Only one state

(b) Only two states

(c) Only three states

(d) All four states

Q.62) Solution- (c)

Some of the most important tea-producing states which make India the world’s second-largest producer of tea. These are –

1.West Bengal.

2.Assam.

3.Kerala.

4.Tamil Nadu.

5.Himachal Pradesh.

6.Karnataka.

7.Arunachal Pradesh.

No tea production in Andhra pradesh due to climatic conditions.

References : https://teaswan.com/blogs/news/top-tea-producing-states-in-india

http://teaboard.gov.in/pdf/Press_realease_India_records_highest_ever_tea_production_during.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.63)Consider the following statements

1.In India credit rating agencies are regulated by RBI

2.The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is public limited company

3.Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 2&3 only

(c) 1&3 only

(d) 1,2,3

Q.63) Solution- (b)

Credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI. So statement 1 is wrong.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct.ICRA and its subsidiaries together form the ICRA Group of Companies (Group ICRA). ICRA is a Public Limited Company, with its shares listed on the Bombay Stock Exchange and the National Stock Exchange.

Brickwork Ratings, a SEBI registered Credit Rating Agency, has also been accredited by RBI and empanelled by NSIC, with presence in Bengaluru

References:https://www.icra.in/Home/Profile

https://www.sebi.gov.in/sebi_data/faqfiles/oct-2021/1634902664371.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.64)With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) which of the following statements are correct?

1.The Governor of RBI is the chairman of BBB

2.BBB recommends for the selection of heads for public sector Banks

3.BBB helps the public sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1&2 only

(b) 2&3 only

(c) 1&3 only

(d) 1,2,3

Q.64) Solution- (b)

ORGANISATION

Banks Board Bureau is an Autonomous Body of Government of India. We are committed to improving the Governance and Boards of public sector financial institutions. The Secretariat of the Bureau currently comprises Secretary and four officers.

Statement 1 is wrong.The Banks’ Board Bureau (BBB) has shortlisted State Bank of India deputy managing director (DMD) Alok Kumar Choudhary as the replacement for Ashwani Bhatia as managing director at India’s largest lender.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

BBB recommends for the selection of heads for public sector Banks

BBB helps the public sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans

References :https://banksboardbureau.org.in/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.65) With reference to convertible Bonds , consider the following statements:

1.As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, convertible bonds pay a lower rate of interest.

2.The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2only

(c) Both 1 & 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.65) Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is correct . convertible bonds tend to offer a lower coupon rate or rate of return in exchange for the value of the option to convert the bond into common stock. Companies benefit since they can issue debt at lower interest rates than with traditional bond offerings. However, not all companies offer convertible bonds.

Statement 2 is wrong.

References https://www.economist.com/finance-and-economics/2021/07/10/why-convertible-bonds-are-the-asset-class-for-the-times

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • PEP Economy Handout 3

Q.66)Consider the following:

1.Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2.Missile Technology Control Regime

3.Shanghai Coorporation Organization

India is a member of which of the above?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.66) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is correct. On 24 October 2014, twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China: Bangladesh, Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Uzbekistan and Vietnam.

Statement 2 is correct. MTCR has 35 members including India.

Statement 3 is correct. The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan), four Observer States interested in acceding to full membership (Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia) and six “Dialogue Partners” (Armenia, Azerbaijan, Cambodia, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Turkey).

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.67)Consider the following statements :

1.Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economics in the world in the recent years.

2.Vietnam is led by a multi party political system.

3.Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.

4.For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.

5.Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 2 and 4

(b) 3 and 5

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2

Q.67) Solution- (c)

Statement 2 is incorrect. The politics of Vietnam are defined by socialist republic framework which is ultimately controlled by a single-party.

Statement 5 is incorrrct. Thailand, Philippines, Indonesia, Malaysia and India spend the most time online on their phones in the world.

Statements 1,3 and 4 are correct.

References

https://www.csis.org/analysis/indo-pacific-economic-framework-and-digital-trade-southeast-asia

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.68)In India, which of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

(a) Department of Consumer Affairs

(b) Expenditure Management Commission

(c) Financial Stability and Development Council

(d) Reserve Bank of India

Q.68) Solution- (d)

A key role of central banks is to conduct monetary policy to achieve price stability (low and stable inflation) and to help manage economic fluctuations. In india central bank is RBI.

References : https://www.imf.org/en/About/Factsheets/Sheets/2016/08/01/16/20/Monetary-Policy-and-Central-Banking#:~:text=A%20key%20role%20of%20central,to%20help%20manage%20economic%20fluctuations.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.69)With reference to Non- Fungible Tokens (NFT’s), consider the following statements :

1.They enable the digital representation of physical assets.

2.They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.

3.They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the following statements given above are correct

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.69) Solution- (d)

Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and, therefore, can serve as a medium for commercial transactions.NFTs are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain and cannot be replicated.

NFTs can represent real-world items like artwork and real estate.

“Tokenizing” these real-world tangible assets makes buying, selling, and trading them more efficient while reducing the probability of fraud.

NFTs can also function to represent individuals’ identities, property rights, and more.

References : https://www.investopedia.com/non-fungible-tokens-nft-5115211#:~:text=NFTs%20are%20unique%20cryptographic%20tokens,reducing%20the%20probability%20of%20fraud.

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • Day 46 topic 2
                          • PEP S&T Handout 7

Q.70) Consider the following pairs :

    Reservoirs        States

1.Gantaprabha    __    Telangana

2.Gandhi Sagar    __    Madhya Pradesh

3.Indira Sagar    __    Andhra Pradesh

4.Maithon     __    Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given below are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Q.70) Solution- (c)

Pair 1 is incorrect. Ghatprabha reservoir in Karnataka.

Pair 2 is correct. Gandhisagar Dam is situated at a distance of 168 Km. from the District headquarter. The Dam is constructed on the Chambal River. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of the four major dams built on India’s Chambal River. The dam is located in the Mandsaur, districts of the state of Madhya

Pair 3 incorrect . The Indira Sagar Dam is the largest dam in India, in terms of volume of water stored in the reservoir. It is located on the Narmada River at the town of Narmada Nagar, Punasa in the Khandwa district of Madhya Pradesh in India

Pair 4 is incorrect. Maithon, derived its name from “Mai Ka Sthan”, meaning the place for the Hindu Goddess Maa Kalyaneshwari. It is located on the banks of river Barakar in Jharkhand.

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • Day 7 topic 2 and 4

Q.71)In India , which one of the following complies information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay – offs in factories employing workers?

(a) Central Statistics Office

(b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade

(c) Labour Bureau

(d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Q.71) Solution- (c)

Labour buraeu complies information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay – offs in factories employing workers in India.

References http://labourbureau.gov.in/activities.htm

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.72)In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization(CCO) ?

1.CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.

2.It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.

3.It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal- bearing areas.

4.It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 4 

Q.72) Solution- (d)

Statement 4 is wrong. As coal ministry ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Statement 1 , 2 and 3 are right.

Functions of Coal Controller’s Organisation are listed as below-

Under Colliery Control Rules, 2004 –

To lay down procedure and standard for sampling of coal.

Inspection of collieries so as to ensure the correctness of the class, grade or size of coal.

To issue directives for the purpose of declaration and maintenance of grades of coal of a seam mined in a colliery.

To act as the appellate authority in case of dispute between consumers and owner arising out of declaration of grade and size of coal.

To regulate disposal of stock of coal or the expected output of coal in the colliery.

Quality surveillance with respect to maintenance of grade, loading of coal in wagons/ trucks according to laid down procedures regarding grades and sizes.

To grant opening / re-opening permission of coal mine

References http://www.coalcontroller.gov.in/pages/display/5-functions-responsibilities

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.73)  If a particular area is brought under the fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, Which on of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it ?

(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non- tribal people.

(b) This would create a local self- governing body in that area.

(c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.

(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Q.73) Solution- (a)

Special Provisions for Fifth Schedule Areas

The Governor may, by public notification, direct that any particular Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of the State shall or shall not apply to a SA or any part thereof in the State, subject to such exceptions and modifications, as specified. The Governor may make regulations for the peace and good government of any area in the State which is for the time being a SA. Such regulations may

prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by or among members of the Scheduled tribes in such area;

References : https://vikaspedia.in/social-welfare/scheduled-tribes-welfare/fifth-schedule-areas#:~:text=The%20Fifth%20Schedule%20of%20the%20Constitution%20deals%20with%20the%20administration,%2C%20Meghalaya%2C%20Tripura%20and%20Mizoram.

Laxmikant M book- Indian Polity

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.74) Consider the following statements

1.The India sanitation coalition is a platform to promote sustainable platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization

2.The National Institute of urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 &2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.74) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. ABOUT INDIA SANITATION COALITION

ISC is a multi-stakeholder platform that brings together the private sector, government, financial institutions, civil society groups, media, donors/bi-lateral/multilateral, experts etc. to work in the sanitation space to drive sustainable sanitation through a partnership model.

Statement 2 is correct.

https://www.indiasanitationcoalition.org/#:~:text=ABOUT%20INDIA%20SANITATION%20COALITION&text=ISC%20is%20a%20multi%2Dstakeholder,sanitation%20through%20a%20partnership%20model.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.75) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection ) Act, 1986 ?

(a)Central Water Commission

(b)Central Ground Water Board

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

(d) National Water Development Agency

Q.75) Solution- (c)

Statements A, B and D are incorrect. As Central Water Commission is a premier Technical Organization of India in the field of Water Resources and is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India. It is not statutory organization.

Central Ground water board also not statutory body.

Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.

References http://cgwb.gov.in/aboutcgwa.html

 IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • PEP Environment Handout 6

Q.76) With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements :

1.It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.

2.It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year .

3.It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 3 only

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Q.76) Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is incorrect. A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

Statement 2 incorrect. As it meets every year.

Statement 3 is correct. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

References https://www.un.org/en/ga/credentials/credentials.shtml

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.77) Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’ ?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Q.77) Solution- (a)

The International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters or Polar Code is an international regime adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) in 2014.[1] The Code sets out regulations for shipping in the polar regions, principally relating to ice navigation and ship design. The international framework aims to protect the two polar regions — the Arctic (north pole region) and Antarctic (south pole region), from maritime risks.[2] The Code entered into force on 1 January 2017

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.78)With reference to the United Nations General Assembly , consider the following statements :

1.The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.

2.Inter-governmental organizations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.

3.Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the following statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 

Q.78) Solution- (d)

All statements are correct.

The UN General Assembly (UNGA) is the main policy-making organ of the Organization. Comprising all Member States, it provides a unique forum for multilateral discussion of the full spectrum of international issues covered by the Charter of the United Nations. Each of the 193 Member States of the United Nations has an equal vote.

The UNGA also makes key decisions for the UN, including:

appointing the Secretary-General on the recommendation of the Security Council

electing the non-permanent members of the Security Council

approving the UN budget

The Assembly meets in regular sessions from September to December each year, and thereafter as required. It discusses specific issues through dedicated agenda items or sub-items, which lead to the adoption of resolutions.

References

https://www.un.org/en/ga/

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.79)With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements :

1.The Tea Board is a statutory body.

2.It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

3.The Tea Board Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.

4.The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Q.79) Solution- (d)

Statement 2 is incorrect. Organisation of the Board: The present Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Board’s Head Office is situated in Kolkata and there are two Zonal offices-one each in North Eastern Region at Jorhat in Assam and in Southern Region at Coonoor in Tamil Nadu.

Statement 1 is correct . Tea Board was set up as a statutory body on 1st April, 1954 as per Section (4) of the Tea Act, 1953.

Statement 4 is correct.The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

References https://www.teaboard.gov.in/TEABOARDCSM/NA==

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.80)Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing” ?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Q.80) Solution- (a)

Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company’s products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company’s products are environmentally friendly.

https://www.investopedia.com/terms/g/greenwashing.asp#:~:text=Greenwashing%20is%20the%20process%20of,company’s%20products%20are%20environmentally%20friendly.

https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/calling-out-the-greenwashing-trend/article30411299.ece 

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.81) Consider the following statements :

1.High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

2.Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.81) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is wrong. As high cloud though reflects solar radiation but doesnt help directly in cooling earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth

https://climatekids.nasa.gov/cloud-climate/#:~:text=Clouds%20within%20a%20mile%20or,Earth%20more%20than%20they%20cool.

https://earthobservatory.nasa.gov/features/Clouds

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.82)Consider the following statements :

1.Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western kenya.

2.Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.

3.Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in kenya.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q.82) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect.Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is a refugee camp in northwestern Uganda. With over 270,000 South Sudanese refugees fleeing the ongoing civil war, as of early 2017 it was the largest refugee settlement in the world. As of 2018, that distinction was claimed by Kutapalong refugee camp for displaced Rohingya in Bangladesh

Statement 2 and 3 are correct.

https://www.nationalgeographic.com/magazine/article/how-bidibidi-uganda-refugee-camp-became-city

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.83)Consider the following countries

1.Armenia

2.Azerbaijan

3.Croatia

4.Romania

5.Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organizations of Turkic States ?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3, 4 and 5

Q.83) Solution- (c)

The Organization of Turkic States, formerly called the Turkic Council or the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States, is an international organization comprising prominent independent Turkic countries: Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Turkey and Uzbekistan. 

References https://www.turkkon.org/en/turk-konseyi-hakkinda

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.84)Consider the following statements :

1.Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.

2.Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.

3.Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic in India.

Which of the following given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d)3 only

Q.84) Solution- (b)

Statement 1 is incorrect. Largest solar park in india- Bhadla Solar Park is the world’s largest solar park located in India which is spread over a total area of 14,000 acres in Bhadla, Phalodi tehsil, Jodhpur district, Rajasthan, India.

Statement 2 is correct. Kerala’s Cochin International Airport Ltd (CIAL) is the first airport in the world that would be running fully on solar power

https://www.livemint.com/news/india/anand-mahindra-posts-pictures-of-kochi-airport-first-in-the-world-to-be-fully-solar-powered-11638760041722.html

Statement 3 is incorrect :India’s largest floating solar power plant commissioned in Andhra Pradesh

https://www.livemint.com/industry/energy/indias-largest-floating-solar-power-plant-commissioned-in-andhra-pradesh-11631774123853.html

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2022 RaRe Day 33 topic 5

Q.85) With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements :

1.A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

2.Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked , enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

3.The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the following statements given above are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.85) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is correct. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.

Statement 2 is correct. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked , enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.

Statement 3 is correct. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Reference https://www.imo.org/en/OurWork/Legal/Pages/UnitedNationsConventionOnTheLawOfTheSea.aspx

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2022 RaRe day 8 topic 5

Q.86) Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news ?

(a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.

(b) China and Japan engage in maritime dispute over these islands in East China Sea.

(c) A-permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.

(d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them. 

Q.86) Solution- (b)

The Senkaku Islands dispute, or Diaoyu Islands dispute, is a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands known as the Senkaku Islands in Japan, the Diaoyu Islands in the People’s Republic of China (PRC),and Tiaoyutai Islands in the Republic of China (ROC or Taiwan).Aside from a 1945 to 1972 period of administration by the United States as pakyu Islands, the archipelago has been controlled by Japan since 1895

Reference

https://www.mofa.go.jp/region/asia-paci/senkaku/qa_1010.html

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.87)Consider the following pairs :

Country                          Important reasons for being in the news recently

1.Chad –            Setting up of permanent military base by china

2.Guinea –       Suspension of Constitution and Government by military

3.Lebanon –    Severe and Prolonged economic depression

4.Tunisia –        Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only Two pair

(c) Only three pair

(d) All four pairs

Q.87) Solution- (c)

Pair 1 incorrectly matched. China intends to establish its first permanent military presence on the Atlantic Ocean in the tiny Central African country of Equatorial Guinea.

https://ecfr.eu/article/chinas-new-military-base-in-africa-what-it-means-for-europe-and-america/

Pair 2 is correctly matched .

https://constitutionnet.org/news/guinea-military-leaders-detain-president-declaring-dissolution-government-and-suspension

Pair 3 is correctly matched.

https://www.europarl.europa.eu/thinktank/en/document/EPRS_BRI(2022)729369

Pair 4 is correctly matched. https://www.france24.com/en/live-news/20211213-tunisia-president-extends-parliament-suspension-sets-election-in-1-year

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.88)Consider the following pairs :

Region often mentioned in the news     Country

1.Anatolia – Turkey

2.Amhara – Ethiopia

3.Cabo Delgado – Spain

4.Catalonia – Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Q.88) Solution- (b)

Pair 1 is correctly matched.Anatolia, also known as Asia Minor, is a large peninsula in Western Asia and the westernmost protrusion of the Asian continent. It constitutes the major part of modern-day Turkey.

Pair 2 is correctly matched.The Amhara Region, officially the Amhara National Regional State, is a regional state in northern Ethiopia and the homeland of the Amhara people

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched. It is in spain.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.89) With reference to indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements :

1.Wild animals are the sole property of the government.

2.When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected area or outside.

3.Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Q.89) Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is correct. Every–

(a) wild animal, other than vermin, which is hunted under section 11 or sub-section (1) of section 29 or sub-section (6) of section 35 or kept or 1[bred in captivity or hunted] in contravention of any provision of this Act or any rule or order made thereunder or found dead, or killed 2*** or by mistake; shall be the property of the State Government

https://www.indiacode.nic.in/show-data?actid=AC_CEN_16_18_00007_197253_1517807324579&sectionId=33262&sectionno=39&orderno=86

Statement 2 is correct. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected area or outside under WPA act 1972.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

This schedule(schedule 5 under WPA, 1972) contains animals that are considered as vermin (small wild animals that carry disease and destroy plants and food). These animals can be hunted.

It includes only four species of wild animals: Common Crows. Fruit Bats. Rats. Mice.

https://legislative.gov.in/sites/default/files/A1972-53_0.pdf

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2022 RaRe Day 24 topic 3

Q.90)Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi ?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab

(d) Spider

Q.90. Solution- (a)

Leafcutter ants use leaves as their fertilizer to grow their crop: fungus.

They cultivate their fungal gardens by providing them with freshly cut leaves, protecting them from pests and molds, and clearing them of decayed material and garbage. In return, the fungus acts as a food source for the ants’ larvae.

References

https://www.mcgill.ca/oss/article/did-you-know/did-you-know-leafcutter-ants-are-farmers-who-grow-fungi#:~:text=Leafcutter%20ants%20use%20leaves%20as,source%20for%20the%20ants’%20larvae.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.91) Consider the following pairs :

Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts         Location in the state of

Dhauli                 –                                               Odisha

Erragudi            –                                        Andhra Pradesh

Jaugad             –                                         Madhya Pradesh

Kalsi                 –                                           Karnataka

How many pairs are given above are correctly matched ?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pair

(c) Only three pair

(d) All four pairs

Q.91). Solution- (b)

Pair 1 is correctly matched.

Dhauli or Dhauligiri is a hill located on the banks of the river Daya, 8 km south of Bhubaneswar in Odisha.From these edicts it would appear clear that Ashoka was an extremely tolerant and benevolent monarch. Near Dhauli, south of Bhubaneshwar, there is a rock inscribed with the edicts of the emperor Ashoka. The front of the rock is sculpted as the head, trunk and front legs of an elephant.

Pair 2 is correctly matched.Erragudi village is located in Kolimigundla mandal of Kurnool district in Andhra Pradesh, India

Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.Jaugada (“Jaugarh”, ancient Samapa]) is a ruined fortress in the Ganjam district in Odisha, India. Jaugada lies 35 km north-west of Berhampur and 160 km south-west of Bhubaneshwar. Once a provincial Mauryan fortified capital of the newly conquered province of Kalinga, Jaugada is famous for its version of the monumental stone-cut edicts in Prakrit of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.The Rock edicts of Khalsi, also spelled Kalsi, are a group of an Indian rock inscriptions written by the Indian Emperor Ashoka around 250 BCE. They contains some of the most important of the Edicts of Ashoka. The inscription in Khalsi contains all the Major Rock Edicts, from 1 to 14.

https://www.worldhistory.org/Edicts_of_Ashoka/

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2022 RaRe Day 27 Topic 7

Q.92)Consider the following pairs :

      King                        Dynasty

1.Nannuka                    –        Chandela

2.Jayashakti                  –        Paramara

3.Nagabhata II              –    Gurjara-Pratihara

4.Bhoja                            –        Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Q.92) Solution- (b)

Pair 1 correctly matched.Nannuka (r. c. 831-845 CE) was the founder of the Chandela dynasty of India.[1] He ruled in the Jejakabhukti region (Bundelkhand in present-day Madhya Pradesh).The poetic ballads about the Chandelas do not mention Nannuka at all, and instead name “Chandravarman” as the founder of the Chandela dynasty.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Jayashakti (IAST: Jayaśakti) was a 9th-century ruler from the Chandela dynasty of Central India. In the Chandela records, he is generally mentioned with his younger brother and successor, Vijayashakti. The two are believed to have ruled the Chandela kingdom between c. 865 and 885 CE. They consolidated the Chandela power.

Pair 3 is correctly matched.Nagabhata II (reign 795–833) was an Indian Emperor from Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty. He ascended the throne of Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty after his father Vatsraja.His mother was queen Sundari-Devi. He was designated with imperial titles – Paramabhattaraka, Maharajadhiraja, and Paramesvara after conquest of Kannauj.

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched.

Bhoja popularly known as Raja Bhoj Parmar (reigned c. 1010–1055 CE) was an Indian King from the Paramara dynasty. His kingdom was centered around the Malwa region in central India, where his capital Dhara-nagara (modern Dhar) was located

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.93)  Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

(a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

(b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

(c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.

(d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Q.93) Solution- (b)

The period roughly between the 3rd century B.C. and 3rd century A.D. in South India (the area lying to the south of river Krishna and Tungabhadra) is known as Sangam Period

The two epics Silappathikaram is written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar. They also provide valuable details about the Sangam society and polity.

Reference : https://www.ancient-origins.net/artifacts-ancient-writings/sangam-literature-tantalizing-tales-ancient-tamil-life-021936

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2021 RaRe

Q.94)“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

(a) Akbar

(b) Humayun

(c) Shahjahan

(d) Aurangzeb

Q.94) Solution- (a)

YogaVasistha was translated into Persian multiple times throughout the Mughal Dynasty, as commanded by Akbar, Jahangir, and Darah Shikuh. Nizam al-Din Panipati completed one of these translations, known as the Jug-Basisht, in the late sixteenth century AD.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.95)  The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

(a) The best means of salvation was devotion

(b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative

(c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.

(d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Q.95) Solution- (a)

He was born in Tamil Nadu in the eleventh century. He was deeply influenced by the Alvars.

The new strand of bhakti that developed in north India subsequently was greatly inspired by Ramanujam’s doctrine.

He firmly believed that intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation. He propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita.

Vishishtadvaita is formed by the two words: vishisht meaning qualified and advaita meaning oneness of the individual soul and the Supreme God. In other words it means qualified oneness wherein the soul, even when united with the Supreme God, remained distinct.

References

https://www.thehindu.com/news/cities/Tiruchirapalli/%E2%80%9CTeachings-of-Ramanujar-highly-relevant-today/article16072774.ece

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • 2021 RaRe

Q.96) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1.Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.

2.A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.

3.Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.96) Solution- (a)

Statement 1 is correct.It is one of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Hindus and is believed to be first among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva.The temple was reconstructed several times in the past after repeated destruction by multiple Muslim invaders and rulers, notably starting from an attack by Mahmud Ghazni in the 11th century.It is unclear when the first version of the Somnath temple was built with estimates varying between the early centuries of the 1st-millennium to about the 9th-century CE.

Statement 2 is correct.A description of the temple by Al-Biruni, an Arab traveller, was so glowing that it prompted a visit in 1024 by a most unwelcome tourist – the legendary looter Mahmud of Ghazni from Afghanistan.

https://www.gujarattourism.com/saurashtra/gir-somnath/somnath-temple.html#:~:text=The%20large%2C%20black%20Shiva%20lingam,Mahmud%20of%20Ghazni%20from%20Afghanistan

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President Dr.Rajendra Prasad.

IASbaba’s Reference:


Q.97) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

(a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.

(b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.

(c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

(d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Q.97) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: To measure the age of plant and animal remains from the more recent past, scientists use a radioactive isotope of carbon, called carbon-14, as their clock. As carbon-14 decays, with a half-life of about 5,730 years, it becomes nitrogen-14. Using this clock, they have dated bones, campfires and other objects as old as 60,000 years, and in some cases even older.

Statement 2 and 3 is correct: DNA barcoding uses specific regions of DNA in order to identify species. Initiatives are taking place around the world to generate DNA barcodes for all groups of living organisms and to make these data publically available in order to help understand, conserve, and utilize the world’s biodiversity. For land plants the core DNA barcode markers are two sections of coding regions within the chloroplast, part of the genes, rbcL and matK. In order to create high quality databases, each plant that is DNA barcoded needs to have a herbarium voucher that accompanies the rbcL and matK DNA sequences. The quality of the DNA sequences, the primers used, and trace files should also be accessible to users of the data. Multiple individuals should be DNA barcoded for each species in order to check for errors and allow for intraspecific variation. The world’s herbaria provide a rich resource of already preserved and identified material and these can be used for DNA barcoding as well as by collecting fresh samples from the wild. These protocols describe the whole DNA barcoding process, from the collection of plant material from the wild or from the herbarium, how to extract and amplify the DNA, and how to check the quality of the data after sequencing.

References

https://www.mdanderson.org/cancerwise/t-cells–b-cells-and-the-immune-system.h00-159465579.html#:~:text=T%20cells%20can%20wipe%20out,of%20protein%20called%20an%20antibody.

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • PEP 2022 PPT

Q.98) Consider the following statements:

1.Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.

2.Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.

3.Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Q.98) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrrect.

Nano-sized particles are important components of the Earth biogeochemical system. However, in the Anthropocene, the human activities disturbed their natural cycle and increased their abundance . That means naturally also it exists.

https://www.frontiersin.org/articles/10.3389/fenvs.2020.00071/full

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Among the metal oxide NPs present in cosmetic products, amorphous silica (SiO2), zinc oxide (ZnO) and particularly titanium dioxide (TiO2) are the most frequent. The thing that makes nanoparticles so interesting for applications is that materials in nanosize have properties (optical, chemical, magnetic, biological, electrical, and mechanical) that are completely different from the properties of the same material in bulk. These new properties may cause a problem if nanoparticles are unintentionally released – very few of these particles exist in nature and we as humans have not been exposed to them throughout evolution. Therefore, we cannot be sure that our body have developed defense mechanisms to deal with them.

An important consideration in the deposition of particles in the respiratory system is the lung-lining fluid (a complex mixture of lipids and surfactant proteins) since any depositing material quickly becomes coated in these surfactant proteins and lipids. Such a coating gives the deposited particle its ‘biological identity’ This so-called protein corona, which is likely to play a role in the way particles interact with lung cells such as alveolar macrophages.

Several studies on workers exposed to carbon nanotubes have shown a significant increase of biomarkers of fibrosis. The organization for cancer research (IARC) of the World Health Organization (WHO) have classified one type of carbon nanotubes (Mitzui 7) as potentially carcinogenic in humans [IARC 111].

 References:

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/296485097_Natural_nanoparticles_an_overview#:~:text=Natural%20nanoparticles%20are%20formed%20from,nanoparticles%20in%20a%20living%20system.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0166526X21000209#:~:text=Among%20the%20metal%20oxide%20NPs,2)%20are%20the%20most%20frequent.

https://www.nano.lu.se/research/nanosafety/frequently-asked-questions-about-nanosafety/faq-nano-dangerous

IASbaba’s Reference:

                          • Day 23 topic 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.99) Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to :

1.Assess the age of plant or animal.

2.Distinguish among species that look alike.

3.Identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Q.99) Solution- (d)

Statement 1 is incorrect: To measure the age of plant and animal remains from the more recent past, scientists use a radioactive isotope of carbon, called carbon-14, as their clock. As carbon-14 decays, with a half-life of about 5,730 years, it becomes nitrogen-14. Using this clock, they have dated bones, campfires and other objects as old as 60,000 years, and in some cases even older.

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/science-technology/how-to-curb-illicit-trade-in-endangered-plants-dna-barcoding-could-help-59216

Statement 2 and 3 is correct: DNA barcoding uses specific regions of DNA in order to identify species. Initiatives are taking place around the world to generate DNA barcodes for all groups of living organisms and to make these data publically available in order to help understand, conserve, and utilize the world’s biodiversity. For land plants the core DNA barcode markers are two sections of coding regions within the chloroplast, part of the genes, rbcL and matK. In order to create high quality databases, each plant that is DNA barcoded needs to have a herbarium voucher that accompanies the rbcL and matK DNA sequences. The quality of the DNA sequences, the primers used, and trace files should also be accessible to users of the data. Multiple individuals should be DNA barcoded for each species in order to check for errors and allow for intraspecific variation. The world’s herbaria provide a rich resource of already preserved and identified material and these can be used for DNA barcoding as well as by collecting fresh samples from the wild. These protocols describe the whole DNA barcoding process, from the collection of plant material from the wild or from the herbarium, how to extract and amplify the DNA, and how to check the quality of the data after sequencing.

https://www.researchgate.net/publication/267932973_DNA_barcoding_for_plants

Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

IASaba’s Reference:

                          • 2022 RaRe Day 17 all topics

Q.100) Consider the following

1.carbon monoxide

2.Nitrogen Oxide

3.Ozone

4.Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause/s of acid rain?

(a) 1,2,&3

(b) 2&4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1,3,4

Q.100) Solution- (b)

Acid rain results when sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOX) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents. The SO2 and NOX react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids.  These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.

References

https://www.epa.gov/acidrain/what-acid-rain#:~:text=Acid%20rain%20results%20when%20sulfur,before%20falling%20to%20the%20ground.

IASbaba’s Reference:

IASbaba’s VAN


 

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