fbpx

IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 7]

  • IASbaba
  • March 29, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
Print Friendly, PDF & Email

For Previous (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


GEOGRAPHY [DAY 7]


Q.1) Consider the following statements:

  1. The point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts is called hypocenter.
  2. Love waves are transverse in nature.
  3. Rayleigh wave is the slowest of all the seismic waves.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

  1. Acid rocks have high content of silica.
  2. Basic rocks are poor in silica, hence the parent material of such rocks cools slowly and thus, flows and spreads far away.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.3) With reference to Geomagnetism, consider the following statements:

  1. The Earth has more than two magnetic poles.
  2. Agonic line is an imaginary line connecting the points of same angle of declination.
  3. Geomagnetic dipole does not coincide with the Earth’s axis of rotation rather it is parallel to it.
  4. Presently, South Magnetic pole is located in Northern Canada.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 3 and 4 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.4) With reference to Karst landforms, which of the following are depositional features:

  1. Travertine
  2. Tufa
  3. Polje
  4. Stalagmite
  5. Stalactite
  6. Uvala

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
  2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
  4. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Q.5) The gently sloping accumulation of coarse alluvium deposits by a braided stream is known as:

  1. Alluvial fan
  2. Sand bar
  3. Bajada
  4. Pediment

Q.6) Consider the following discontinuities:

  1. Repetti discontinuity
  2. Conrad discontinuity
  3. Lehmann discontinuity
  4. Gutenberg discontinuity
  5. Mohorovicic’s discontinuity

What is the correct order from top to bottom?

  1. 1-2-3-4-5
  2. 5-2-1-3-4
  3. 1-4-2-3-5
  4. 2-5-1-4-3

Q.7) Which of the following characteristics cannot be associated with metamorphic rocks?

  1. Recrystallization due to melting and solidifying again
  2. Foliation
  3. Fossiliferous
  4. Banding

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the geomorphic process:

  1. The source of energy for the exogenetic process is atmosphere whereas, that for the endogenic process is the Earth herself.
  2. Exogenetic forces cause aggradation whereas, the endogenic forces, degradation.
  3. Diastrophic forces are classified under exogenetic forces.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.9) Consider the following statements about Paleomagnetism or fossil magnetism:

  1. Statement 1: It acts as a decisive evidence for continental drift and global plate
  2. Statement 2: It does not provide an understanding to the problems of thermal history of our planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Statement 1 is correct only
  2. Statement 2 is correct only
  3. Both the statements are correct
  4. Both the statements are incorrect

Q.10) With reference to meanders, consider the following statements:

  1. Riffles play an important role in the formation of meanders, but pools don’t.
  2. Meanders are formed only in the mature stage of a river.
  3. Slip-off slope is formed on the concave side of a bend, whereas river cliff is formed in the convex side of a bend.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) The term ‘isostasy’ is related to:

  1. geodetic survey
  2. gravity anomalies
  3. energy equilibrium
  4. weathering and erosion

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding “Circum-Pacific belt”:

  1. It is characterized by convergent plate boundary only.
  2. Fold Mountains are found along both the margins of Pacific Ocean.
  3. It is prone to Tsunami.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) “Continental Drift Theory” of Alfred Wegner was criticized and subsequently rejected. Which of the following were its criticism?

  1. His theory starts from the carboniferous period and does not describe the conditions before this period.
  2. His belief that both the tidal and pole fleeing forces are inadequate in moving continents.
  3. His theory of Continents and Oceans of the same age.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Absence of surface drainage is a predominant characteristic of which of the following landform?

  1. Fluvial Landforms
  2. Glaciation landforms
  3. Limestone and chalk landforms
  4. Volcanic landforms

Q.15) With reference to “fault”, consider the following statements:

  1. A fault is a fracture in the earth’s crust due to tension force.
  2. In case of normal fault, new surface is generated in the form of scarp.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.16) What are the characteristics associated with fjord?

  1. A fjord is a long, deep, narrow body of water.
  2. Fjords commonly are deeper in their middle and upper reaches than at the seaward end.
  3. Fjords are commonly V-shaped valleys.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.17) Consider the following statements about weathering:

  1. Physical weathering happens especially in places where there is little soil and few plants grow, such as in mountain regions and hot deserts.
  2. Exfoliation occurs as cracks develop parallel to the land surface, a consequence of the reduction in pressure during uplift and erosion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Statement 1 is correct only
  2. Statement 2 is correct only
  3. Both the statements are correct
  4. Both the statements are incorrect

Q.18) Consider the following statements about Aeolian processes:

  1. Deflation is the intermittent, leaping movement of particles of sand or gravel, as from the force of wind.
  2. Saltation is the lifting and removal of fine, dry particles of silt, soil, and sand by the blowing wind.
  3. Abrasion is the mechanical scraping of a rock surface, by friction between rocks and moving particles, during their transport by wind.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of these

Q.19) Which among the below given pairs is/are correct?

  1. Dykes : : horizontal intrusion of magma
  2. Sills : : vertical intrusion of magma
  3. Phacolith : : lens shaped mass of igneous rocks

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None

Q.20) Which of the following condition(s) will favour the phenomena of river capture?

  1. Steep channel gradient of the captor river.
  2. Higher sediment load in the captor river.
  3. Low volume of water discharge in the captor river.
  4. Soft rocks towards the head-ward direction.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.21) The Mission Karmayogi is the national programme for which of the following?

  1. Doubling Farmer Income
  2. Universal Vaccination against COVID19
  3. Civil Services Capacity Building
  4. Labour Welfare Reforms

Q.22) Which of the following categories is/are eligible for finance under Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?

  1. Loans to farmers both for installation of solar power plants
  2. Loans for setting up compressed biogas plants
  3. Bank finance to start-ups up to Rs. 500 crore

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding Nairobi Convention:

  1. It is part of UNEP’s Regional Seas Programme.
  2. India is a party to the Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under which of the following Acts?

  1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  2. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  4. None of the above as CGWA is not a statutory body

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

Index Released by
1.     Human Capital Index World Bank
2.     Global Innovation Index World Intellectual Property Organization
3.     Economic Freedom Index Economist Intelligence Unit

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) SAATHI (System for Assessment, Awareness and Training for Hospitality Industry) initiative is launched by which of the following?

  1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  2. Ministry of Culture
  3. Ministry of Tourism
  4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q.27) Which of the following statements regarding the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) is/are correct?

  1. It is a statutory body constituted under National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
  2. It frames policies for the regulation of medical professionals and institutions for Indian System of Medicine.
  3. It ensures the coordination among the Board of Homoeopathy, Medical Assessment and Rating Board and Ethics and Medical Registration Board.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Which of the following State government is developing ‘Sanskrit Grams’ to teach people to use Sanskrit regularly?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.29) Which of the following is/are types of Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)?

  1. Intrauterine Insemination
  2. Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer
  3. In Vitro Fertilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) The Factories Act, 1948, Mines Act, 1952 and Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 are consolidated under which of the following Labour codes?

  1. Code on Wages
  2. Industrial Relations Code
  3. Social Security Code
  4. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code

Q.31) There is a huge escalator in Bengaluru International Airport with 500 steps moving with a speed of 20steps/min. Arun walks at a speed of 25steps/min. How long it will approximately take him to go up the escalator if he is also walking?

  1. 11mins
  2. 15mins
  3. 19mins
  4. 25mins

Q.32) In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 20 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C by

  1. 20 m
  2. 30 m
  3. 40 m
  4. 60 m

Q.33) In a 200 metres race A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. What is the A’s time over the course?

  1. 40 second
  2. 45 second
  3. 33 second
  4. 30 second

Q.34) A bag contains 50 paisa, 25 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 5:9:4, amounting to Rs 206. Find the number of coins of 50 paisa.

  1. 200
  2. 160
  3. 150
  4. 300

Q.35) Shankar covers a distance of 30 km by autorikshaw in 35 min. After deboarding the rickshaw, he took rest for 20 min and covers another 10 km by a taxi in 20 min. Find his average speed for the whole journey

  1. 24 km/hr
  2. 32 km/hr
  3. 18 km/hr
  4. 22 km/hr

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Micro Analysis Matrix

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N)
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S 3 2 6 8 19

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

  • Information meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.
  • Analysis meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.
  • Anxiety meter < 3
    • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.
  • Risk meter < 8
    • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.
  • Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 25 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 58.68
2 Reema Chatterjee 55.6
3 Aditi 54.68
4 Manasa Shankar Bhat 54
5 VISHNU VARDHAN R 52
6 Santosh Kumar 50
6 Ravi Chandra 50
7 ayasha shaikh 49.34
8 ester fatum 46.7
9 Smaranika 45.36
10 Deepika gupta 44.77
11 Mansi 44
11 Ravi kumar Singh 44
11 Nikhil K 44
12 Sankar S 43.69
13 Apeksha Agrawal 42.68
13 YB 42.67
14 Afrin Mujawar 42
15 Sankar S 41.38
16 Blue moon 40.7
17 Varsha kiran 40
17 Sagar Jain 40
17 JAY KUMAR YADAV 40
18 Tarunkumar M N 38.67
19 S RAHEEM BASHA 37.3333
20 Nitish kumar 36
21 Ayaan pathan 35.58
22 Deeksha 34.7
22 Kriti raj 34.7
23 KANIKA GARG 33.4
23 keeFaRah 33.4
24 Manasi 32.72
25 Akshat Pathak 32
25 Zamzam 32

 

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

For a dedicated peer group, Motivation & Quick updates, Join our official telegram channel – https://t.me/IASbabaOfficialAccount

Search now.....