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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 43]

  • IASbaba
  • May 10, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


GEOGRAPHY [DAY 43] 


Q.1) Consider the following statements:

  1. Growth in agriculture sector in the last decade has been consistent.
  2. Volume of food grain production has surpassed horticulture production recently.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.2) With reference to “Dryland Agriculture”, consider the following statements:

  1. The cultivation of crops is done entirely under natural rainfall without irrigation.
  2. Dryland areas have almost no contribution to wheat and rice production.
  3. Major dry farming crops are millets.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 3  only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3 only 

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

  1. Kerela is the largest producer of large cardamom.
  2. Spices Board of India is a statutory body under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.4) “It is a plant of tropical and subtropical climates. It can withstand a wide range of temperature varying from 16°C to 35°C. It normally requires 100 cm of rainfall but it can also be successfully grown in areas of 50cm rainfall provided the rainfall is fairly distributed. Frost is injurious to its growth. Well drained friable sandy loams are best suited for it. Soil rather than climate is the determining factor for its geographical distribution.” Which one of the following is that crop?

  1. Sugarcane
  2. Jute
  3. Tobacco
  4. Cotton

Q.5) Arrange the following states into the decreasing order of graphite reserves in India:

  1. Odisha
  2. Jharkhand
  3. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Jammu and Kashmir

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 4-3-2-1
  2. 4-1-2-3
  3. 3-4-1-2
  4. 3-4-2-1

Q.6) With reference to iron ore of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Majority of the haematite iron ores are concentrated in eastern parts of India.
  2. Limonite is also known as black ore due to blackish colour.
  3. Magnetite ores are concentrated in the southern sector.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.7) Consider the following descriptions of a mineral found in India:

  1. It does not occur free in nature and is found in association with copper, uranium and other metals.
  2. It is used as an important alloying material.
  3. Polymetallic sea nodules are another source of it.
  4. Odisha has the largest reserve of this mineral.

Which of the following minerals is described in the above statements?

  1. Zinc
  2. Nickel
  3. Lead
  4. Tungten

Q.8) The trees of tropical rainforest have buttress roots because:

  1. They help to provide aeration to soils
  2. The organisms found in the buttress have a symbiotic relationship
  3. The trees belong to gramineae family
  4. The buttresses have to bear the mechanical load of hardwoods

Q.9) Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production.

  1. Muga
  2. Eri
  3. Mulberry
  4. Tasar

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

  1. 3-2-4-1
  2. 3-4-2-1
  3. 2-4-1-3
  4. 2-1-4-3

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

  1. Phreatophytes are plants that are adapted to grow in active volcanic lava region.
  2. India is the second largest producer of iodised salt in the world next only to China.
  3. In the areas of extensive agriculture, per worker productivity is high whereas in the areas of intensive agriculture, per hectare productivity is high.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only 

Q.11) Consider the following statements about zero budget natural farming:

  1. It is a method of chemical-free agriculture.
  2. This method results in a huge surge of agricultural yields.
  3. Jeevamrutha is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.12) Consider the following statements about farming in India:

  1. Dry farming: it is production of crops without irrigation in areas where annual rainfall is less than 750 mm.
  2. Dryland farming: it is cultivation of crops in areas receiving rainfall above 750 mm.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q.13) Select the incorrect statement from the options given below:

  1. Most dominant crop of India is wheat.
  2. Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India.
  3. Wheat requires long days for ripening
  4. West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.

Q.14) Consider the following statements about drip irrigation

  1. Drip irrigation is suitable for all types of crops.
  2. Drip irrigation helps in increasing fertilizer use efficiency.
  3. Drip irrigation is unsuitable for undulating and hilly terrains.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.15) Select the incorrect statement from the below given options:

  1. Three crops of paddy are grown in a year are Aus, Aman and Boro.
  2. Zaid crops are sown after kharif crops.
  3. Jowar and bajra are important kharif crops.
  4. None of the above statements is incorrect.

Q.16) Consider the following statements:

  1. Coal reserves of North-east India are older than the reserves of peninsular India.
  2. India has 3rd largest coal reserves in the world.
  3. Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state in India.

Which if the following statement is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Consider the following statements about tourism sector in India:

  1. Nepal is the largest source country for foreign tourists’ arrivals in India.
  2. Maharashtra hosts the largest number of foreign tourists in India.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q.18) Consider the following statements about nuclear sector in India:

  1. Carnotite and brannerite are uranium minerals.
  2. Canada is world’s largest uranium producer.
  3. Thorium is more abundant in nature than uranium.
  4. Narora nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above.

Q.19) Consider the following sources of renewable energy:

  1. Small hydropower
  2. Bioenergy
  3. Solar power
  4. Wind power

Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their consumption in the world.

  1. 1-2-3-4
  2. 4-3-2-1
  3. 3-4-2-1
  4. 4-3-1-2

Q.20) Select the incorrect statement from the given options:

  1. China has the largest network of pipeline in the world.
  2. India is the largest importer of crude oil in the world.
  3. Maharashtra is the largest producer of crude oil in India.
  4. All the above statements are incorrect.

Q.21) Consider the following statement about ‘State Election Commissioner (SEC)’:

  1. SEC is appointed by Governor of state, but can only be removed by President only.
  2. SEC has superintendence, direction and control over all the election happening in state.
  3. Constitution has defined the condition of tenure and service of office of the SECs. 

Which of the given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only 
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.22) Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Food Security Act, 2013’:

  1. Under it, nearly 66% of the population is covered, based on SECC, 2011. 
  2. Most vulnerable family, under Antyodaya Anna Yojana are provided food free of cost. 
  3. Central issued price, under which food is provided, will not be more than Minimum Support Price to farmer.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding ‘fuel pricing in India’:

  1. Price of Petrol is fluctuating in India as Prices has been determined based on Crude Oil prices.
  2. The formula to determine fuel prices assumes that 80% of oil is imported to India.

 

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding Land Ports:

  1. A land port houses the customs and border protection, and other inspection agencies responsible for the enforcement of country’s laws pertaining to such activities.
  2. Land Port Authority of India (LPAI) is an executive body working under Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
  3. LPAI manages Integrated Check Posts.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 

  1. 1 and 2only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the Above

Q.25) Arctic monitoring satellite Arktika M has been launched by: 

  1. United States
  2. China
  3. India
  4. Russia

Q.26) Consider the following statements about ‘Least developed country’:

  1. For evaluation of Sustainable Development Goals, country can self-certify themselves as Least Developed Countries.
  2. Highest number of LDCs is in African Continent. 

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27) Consider the following rivers:

  1. Vaigai
  2. Vellar
  3. Gundar
  4. Cauvery

Which of the following state come under basin of all rivers?

  1. Karnataka
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Kerala
  4. Tamilnadu

Q.28) Consider the following agency related to ‘IN-SPACe’:

  1. IN SPACe is a commercial arm of ISRO which will facilitate private agency in space sector.
  2. IN-SPACe is incorporated under Companies Act, 2013. 

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1  only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Consider the following statements about ‘Himalayan Serow’: 

  1. This Serow is found all over the Himalayas and even in Trans-Himalayas.
  2. They are carnivores animal, especially dependent on dead animal’s bodies.
  3. Their status according to IUCN’s Red list is critically endangered.

Which of the above given statement is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3  only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) CPI for Urban Non-Manual Employees (UNME) is released by:

  1. Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour
  2. National Sample Survey Office
  3. Central Statistical Organisation
  4. NITI Aayog

Directions for the following 2 (two) questions:

Q.31) In each of the following questions there are two or three statements, which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Consider the following 

Statements:

  1. Some dogs are cats.
  2. Some cats are rats.
  3. No rat is a cow.

Conclusions:

  1. No cow is a dog.
  2. No rat is a dog.
  3. Some cats are dogs.

Choose the correct code from options given below

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Q.32) In each of the following questions there are two or three statements, which are followed by three or four conclusions. Choose the conclusions which logically follow from the given statements.

Consider the following

Statements:

  1. All reds are blue.
  2. No blue is white.
  3. All pink are white.

Conclusions:

  1. No red is white.
  2. No pink is blue.
  3. No red is pink.

Choose the correct code from options given below

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.33) In a class of 35 students, Ziva is placed 7th from the bottom whereas Sindhu is placed 9th from the top. Sharan is placed in between the two. What is Ziva’s position from Sharan?

  1. 10th 
  2. 15th 
  3. 19th 
  4. 21st

Q.34) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:

Which village is to the North-East of village ‘A’?

  1. Village ‘B’ is to the North of village A, villages C and D are to the East and West of village B, respectively.
  2. Village ‘P’ is to the South of village ‘A’ and village ‘E’ is to the East of village ‘P’, village ‘K’ is to the North of village ‘P’.

Choose the correct code

  1. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question
  2. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question
  3. The data given in statements, I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
  4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

Read the following passage and answer the question that follows each passage. Your answer to this question should be based on passage only.

Our voyage was very prosperous, but I shall not trouble the reader with a journal of it. The captain called in at one or two ports and sent in his long-boat for provisions and fresh water, but I never went out of the ship still we came into the Downs, which was on the 3rd day of June, 1706, about nine months after my escape. I offered to leave my goods in security for payment of my freight, but the captain protested he would not receive one farthing. We took kind leave of each other, and I made him promise that he would come to see me at my house in Red riff. I hired a house and a guide for five shillings which I borrowed from the captain.


Q.35) On the voyage, the author

  1. left the ship at intervals
  2. was not able to leave the ship because it did not stop
  3. never left the ship at all
  4. never left the ship till they came into the Downs

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 57.34
2 Shubam Singhla 52
3 Sankar S 50.67
4 Ravi Kumar singh 50.34
5 Sambhav 50
6 Mansi 48
7 Naveen 47.33
8 CSK 46.67
9 Vinay 46
10 Sherlock 44.67
11 Tarunkumar M N 40.67
12 shilpa 38
13 Rakshitha 36
13 Shruthika 36
14 TINKU MITTAL 34.67
15 Ayaan pathan 33
16 Jayashankar 32
17 shubham varma 30.06
18 Manigandan 28
19 anukriti 26.78
20 Amisha 25.4

All the Best! 

IASbaba

 

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