IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
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Consider the following statements:
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The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution to address the problem of defections among legislators.
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Under the Tenth Schedule, the decision of the Speaker regarding disqualification is final and not subject to judicial review.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
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Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The 52nd Amendment added the Tenth Schedule to curb political defections. Hence the statement is correct
Statement 2: In the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), the Supreme Court held that the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fide or violation of constitutional principles. Hence the statement is incorrect
Incorrect
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Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The 52nd Amendment added the Tenth Schedule to curb political defections. Hence the statement is correct
Statement 2: In the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992), the Supreme Court held that the Speaker’s decision is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fide or violation of constitutional principles. Hence the statement is incorrect
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
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Consider the following statements regarding the reorganization of Indian states:
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The States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) rejected language as the sole criterion for state reorganization and emphasized administrative viability and national integration.
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The Part B states under the Constitution of 1950 were former princely states that were governed by elected legislatures.
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The demand for a separate Andhra state led to the formation of the SRC in 1953, but the actual reorganization based on its recommendations took place before the first general elections of independent India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
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Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The SRC (Fazl Ali Commission), while acknowledging the importance of language, did not accept it as the sole basis for reorganization. It emphasized national unity, administrative efficiency, and economic considerations. Hence the statement is incorrect
- Statement 2: Part B states were former princely states, but they were governed by a Rajpramukh and not by elected legislatures. Elected legislatures existed in Part A states (former Governor’s provinces). Hence the statement is incorrect
Statement 3: Although the demand for Andhra Pradesh and the death of Potti Sriramulu led to the creation of Andhra in 1953 and the SRC in 1953, the actual reorganization based on SRC’s report happened in 1956, after the first general elections (1951–52). Hence the statement is incorrect
Incorrect
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Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: The SRC (Fazl Ali Commission), while acknowledging the importance of language, did not accept it as the sole basis for reorganization. It emphasized national unity, administrative efficiency, and economic considerations. Hence the statement is incorrect
- Statement 2: Part B states were former princely states, but they were governed by a Rajpramukh and not by elected legislatures. Elected legislatures existed in Part A states (former Governor’s provinces). Hence the statement is incorrect
Statement 3: Although the demand for Andhra Pradesh and the death of Potti Sriramulu led to the creation of Andhra in 1953 and the SRC in 1953, the actual reorganization based on SRC’s report happened in 1956, after the first general elections (1951–52). Hence the statement is incorrect
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
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Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Grant in aid to NCDC’ scheme:
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The scheme enables NCDC to raise up to ₹20,000 crore from the open market over four years.
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It provides an annual grant of ₹2,000 crore from 2025–26 to 2028–29.
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NCDC currently maintains a loan recovery rate of over 99% with zero non-performing assets (NPAs).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
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Statement 1: NCDC will raise ₹20,000 crore from the market using the ₹2,000 crore grant over four years. Hence the statement is correct
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Statement 2: The total grant is ₹2,000 crore over four years, i.e., ₹500 crore per year — not ₹2,000 crore annually. Hence the statement is incorrect
Statement 3: NCDC has a 99.8% recovery rate with zero NPAs. Hence the statement is correct
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Incorrect
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
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Statement 1: NCDC will raise ₹20,000 crore from the market using the ₹2,000 crore grant over four years. Hence the statement is correct
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Statement 2: The total grant is ₹2,000 crore over four years, i.e., ₹500 crore per year — not ₹2,000 crore annually. Hence the statement is incorrect
Statement 3: NCDC has a 99.8% recovery rate with zero NPAs. Hence the statement is correct
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
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Match the following Indian defence projects with their key characteristics:
A. Project 75I 1. Advanced stealth frigates with modular construction and 75% indigenous content B. Project 17A 2. Fifth-generation twin-engine stealth fighter with supercruise capability C. Project 18 3. Next-generation destroyers with stealth and hypersonic weapon integration D. AMCA 4. Submarine project with air-independent propulsion (AIP) under Strategic Partnership model Select the correct code:
Correct
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- A. Project 75I → 4: Submarine project under SP model with AIP
- B. Project 17A → 1: Stealth frigates with modular design and high indigenous content
- C. Project 18 → 3: Future destroyer program with stealth and hypersonic systems (under design)
D. AMCA → 2: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft – 5th gen fighter with stealth and supercruise
Incorrect
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- A. Project 75I → 4: Submarine project under SP model with AIP
- B. Project 17A → 1: Stealth frigates with modular design and high indigenous content
- C. Project 18 → 3: Future destroyer program with stealth and hypersonic systems (under design)
D. AMCA → 2: Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft – 5th gen fighter with stealth and supercruise
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
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With reference to the Banking Laws (Amendment) Act, 2025, which of the following statements is/are correct?
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Public Sector Banks (PSBs) can now independently fix the remuneration of their statutory auditors.
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The statutory reporting frequency of banks to the RBI has been increased from every Friday to a daily basis.
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Cooperative banks are now permitted to have directors (excluding chairpersons and full-time directors) serve a maximum tenure of 10 years.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: PSBs are now empowered to fix statutory auditors’ remuneration themselves, improving audit independence. Hence the statement is Correct
- Statement 2: Reporting frequency has been relaxed, not increased — from weekly (every Friday) to fortnightly/monthly/quarterly. Hence the statement is Incorrect
Statement 3 – The maximum tenure for cooperative bank directors (excluding chairpersons and full-time directors) has been increased from 8 to 10 years. Hence the statement is Correct
Incorrect
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Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1: PSBs are now empowered to fix statutory auditors’ remuneration themselves, improving audit independence. Hence the statement is Correct
- Statement 2: Reporting frequency has been relaxed, not increased — from weekly (every Friday) to fortnightly/monthly/quarterly. Hence the statement is Incorrect
Statement 3 – The maximum tenure for cooperative bank directors (excluding chairpersons and full-time directors) has been increased from 8 to 10 years. Hence the statement is Correct
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