UPSC Quiz – 2026 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 29th October 2026

Solution (c)
Explanation: Angioplasty is a minimally invasive procedure to open narrowed or blocked arteries; when performed on coronary arteries, it is called Percutaneous Coronary Intervention (PCI). A balloon catheter widens the artery, and a stent (small mesh tube) may be inserted to keep it open. Angioplasty is required in acute heart attack (STEMI) for emergency restoration of blood flow, may be required in unstable angina depending on clinical risk, and in stable coronary artery disease is usually considered when symptoms persist despite medication or specific high-risk blockages are present. Statement 2 is the key trap — it reverses the ISCHEMIA Trial (2020) findings: the trial found no significant reduction in major cardiovascular events or mortality from an initial invasive strategy compared with conservative medical treatment in patients with stable coronary disease. Statement 3 is correct: stents treat a specific blockage; they do not cure underlying atherosclerosis. The broader point is that angiographic narrowing does not always mean significantly reduced blood flow, and medicines and lifestyle changes can manage many cases of stable coronary artery disease. Concerns in India include possible overuse of stents, commercial pressures, information asymmetry and inadequate informed consent, necessitating clinical audits, transparent treatment protocols and second opinions in non-emergency cases.
Why this question? The ISCHEMIA Trial finding reversal is the primary trap; the “stent ≠ cure” distinction is a key conceptual point.
Why important for UPSC? Cardiovascular disease, medical technology and healthcare ethics are recurring health S&T prelims themes.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to questions on clinical trial findings and distinguishing symptomatic treatment from curative therapy.

Solution (a)
Explanation: Macrophages are specialised white blood cells belonging to the innate immune system that engulf pathogens, dead cells and cellular debris through phagocytosis, and regulate inflammation, tissue repair and antigen presentation. Alveolar macrophages are found in the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs and help clear inhaled particles and microbes. With ageing, some macrophages undergo cellular senescence — a state in which cells stop dividing but remain metabolically active — and release inflammatory molecules collectively called the Senescence-Associated Secretory Phenotype (SASP). Senescent alveolar macrophages can suppress cytotoxic T-cell activity, weakening immune surveillance, potentially creating a local environment favourable to early tumour development. Option (b) is incorrect: macrophages are innate immune cells, not antibody-producing adaptive cells (B cells produce antibodies). Option (c) is incorrect: senescent cells stop dividing, and they weaken, not enhance, anti-tumour immunity. Option (d) is incorrect: removal of senescent macrophages using senolytic approaches reduced early lung tumour development in mouse models. Research found p16INK4a- and CXCR1-expressing senescent alveolar macrophages accumulated in ageing and tumour-bearing mouse lungs, with similar characteristics observed in human lung adenocarcinoma in situ — but these findings do not establish an approved preventive treatment for human lung cancer.
Why this question? The SASP-T-cell suppression mechanism and the senolytic-removal reduction are the key discriminators, with adaptive/rapid-division traps.
Why important for UPSC? Cancer immunology, ageing and cellular senescence are emerging S&T-health prelims themes.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to one-liner questions on immune cell functions and distinguishing innate from adaptive immunity.

Solution (d)
Explanation: The International Convention against Doping in Sport was adopted on 19 October 2005 by UNESCO and entered into force on 1 February 2007, and is the only legally binding international treaty specifically dedicated to combating doping in sport. Its objective is to promote fair play, protect athletes’ health and harmonise anti-doping policies globally, with countries aligning domestic laws with the Convention and cooperating with the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA). Its institutional framework includes the Conference of Parties (COP) as the governing body bringing together States Parties to review implementation and take decisions; the COP Bureau providing oversight and facilitating the COP’s work; and the Fund for the Elimination of Doping in Sport, supporting anti-doping education, capacity-building, research and implementation, particularly in developing countries. WADA is the independent international agency coordinating the global fight against doping. Statement 3 is correct: India was re-elected as Vice-Chairperson of the Bureau representing Asia-Pacific (Group IV) for the 2025–2027 term, and hosted key Bureau and Fund Approval Committee meetings in New Delhi in October 2026. India’s related initiatives include the National Anti-Doping Act, 2022 (with its 2025 Amendment, in force from July 2026), NADA’s 7,000+ tests and 350+ awareness sessions during 2025–26 reaching around 27,000 participants, and the Know Your Medicine mobile application for checking medicines for prohibited substances. All three statements are accurate.
Why this question? Tests treaty chronology, institutional architecture and India’s leadership role—a multi-layered sports governance question.
Why important for UPSC? Sports governance, international conventions and India’s multilateral roles are recurring IR prelims themes.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to questions on UNESCO conventions, their institutional frameworks and India’s participation.

Solution (a)
Explanation: Exercise Garuda Shakti is a bilateral joint Special Forces exercise between India and Indonesia, first conducted in 2012 and held on a reciprocal basis. The 10th edition was conducted from 3–12 December 2025 at the Special Forces Training School, Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh, while the 11th edition commenced on 27 October 2026 at Banyuwangi, Indonesia. The Indian contingent is from the Parachute Regiment (Special Forces), and the Indonesian contingent is from Indonesian Special Forces. Its focus areas include special operations in jungle and semi-mountainous terrain, counter-terrorism tactics and combat shooting, sniping, unarmed combat and heliborne operations, drone and counter-drone operations, mountaineering, air assault and tactical coordination, and exchange of expertise on weapons, equipment and operational practices. Its significance lies in enhancing interoperability and coordination between Special Forces, strengthening counter-terrorism and specialised combat capabilities, promoting India–Indonesia defence cooperation and strategic partnership, and improving preparedness for complex operational environments. Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect: India’s exercises with those countries include Harimau Shakti (Malaysia), while Thailand and Vietnam have different bilateral engagement frameworks.
Why this question? The India-Indonesia pairing and the Special Forces domain are the primary discriminators, with Southeast Asian neighbours as distractors.
Why important for UPSC? India-ASEAN defence cooperation and Special Forces exercises are recurring IR prelims themes.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to one-liner questions mapping bilateral exercises with their partner countries and service domains.

Solution (a)
Explanation: ESTIC 2026 was inaugurated by the Prime Minister at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, on 27 October 2026, with the three-day conclave (27–29 October) focusing on 12 priority areas of science and technology. Its theme is “Creative Minds, Catalysing Science, Empowering Technologies”; it is organised by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) under the guidance of the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, with CSIR–NIIST as the organising partner, and participants including scientists, Nobel laureates, policymakers, industry leaders, researchers and deep-tech startups, with over 5,000 delegates on the inaugural day and around 150 deep-tech startup stalls. Statement 2 is correct — the twelve thematic areas are: Advanced Manufacturing; Energy Technologies; System and Synthetic Biology; Ocean Science and Maritime Technologies; Intelligent Networks and Quantum Communication; Semiconductors and Next-generation Chips; Agri-Tech, Food Systems and Nutrition; Generative and Autonomous AI; Autonomous Systems, Physical AI and Robotics; Preventive Medicine and Advanced Healthcare; Immersive Technologies: Generative XR and Spatial Computing; and Space Science and Technologies. Statement 3 is incorrect on two counts: ESTIC is not described as a biennial conclave, and it explicitly includes industry participation — the Global Connect Networking Event brings together 300+ participants to promote international research partnerships and industry–academia collaboration, and the deep-tech showcase provides startups a platform to demonstrate indigenous innovations. Its significance includes research-to-market linkages, strategic self-reliance and alignment with Viksit Bharat@2047.
Why this question? The “excludes industry participation” trap reverses ESTIC’s core design, with the thematic breadth adding precision.
Why important for UPSC? Science and technology conclaves, innovation ecosystems and research-to-market translation are emerging S&T prelims themes.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to questions on national science conclaves, their organising institutions and thematic priorities.