UPSC Quiz – 2023 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 23rd November 2023

IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz

For Previous Daily Quiz (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.

Gear up and Make the Best Use of this initiative.

Do remember that, “the difference between Ordinary and EXTRA-Ordinary is PRACTICE!!”

Important Note:

Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
After completing the 5 questions, click on ‘View Questions’ to check your score, time taken, and solutions.

Time limit: 0

Test-summary

0 of 5 questions completed

Questions:

Information

To view Solutions, follow these instructions:

Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
Solve Questions
Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.

You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.

Test is loading...

You must sign in or sign up to start the test.

You have to finish following test, to start this test:

Results

0 of 5 questions answered correctly

Your time:

Time has elapsed

You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)

Average score
Your score

Categories

Not categorized 0%

Your result has been entered into leaderboard

Name: E-Mail:

Captcha:

maximum of 10 points
Pos.	Name	Entered on	Points	Result
Table is loading
No data available

Answered
Review

Question 1 of 5

1. Question

Consider the following statements about Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES)

CITES is legally binding on the Parties, it takes the place of national laws.
The CITES Secretariat is administered by Global Environment Facility.
The Conference of the Parties to CITES, is the supreme decision-making body meet every year to review progress and adjust the lists of protected species.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All Three
d) None

Correct

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

· It is an international agreement between governments that aims to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

· CITES was adopted in 1973 and entered into force in 1975.

· There are 184 member parties, and trade is regulated in more than 38,000 species.

· Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words, they have to implement the Convention–it does not take the place of national laws.

· The CITES Secretariat is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

· CITES also brings together law enforcement officers from wildlife authorities, national parks, customs, and police agencies to collaborate on efforts to combat wildlife crime targeted at animals such as elephants and rhinos.

· Representatives of CITES nations meet every two to three years at a Conference of the Parties (or COP) to review progress and adjust the lists of protected species, which are grouped into three categories with different levels of protection:

Appendix I:

· It includes species threatened with extinction and provides the greatest level of protection, including a prohibition on commercial trade.

Appendix II:

· It includes species that are not currently threatened with extinction but may become so without trade controls.

· Regulated trade is allowed if the exporting country issues a permit based on findings that the specimens were legally acquired and the trade will not be detrimental to the survival of the species or its role in the ecosystem.

Appendix III:

· It includes species for which a country has asked other CITES parties to help control international trade.

· Trade in Appendix III species is regulated using CITES export permits (issued by the country that listed the species in Appendix III) and certificates of origin (issued by all other countries).

· Countries may list species for which they have domestic regulations in Appendix III at any time.

Context: Trade in precious timber and sharks and conservation of elephants and big cats were among the many critical matters reviewed during the 77th Meeting of the Standing Committee (SC77) of the CITES in Geneva recently.

Incorrect

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

· It is an international agreement between governments that aims to ensure that international trade in wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

· CITES was adopted in 1973 and entered into force in 1975.

· There are 184 member parties, and trade is regulated in more than 38,000 species.

· Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words, they have to implement the Convention–it does not take the place of national laws.

· The CITES Secretariat is administered by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and is located in Geneva, Switzerland.

Appendix I:

· It includes species threatened with extinction and provides the greatest level of protection, including a prohibition on commercial trade.

Appendix II:

· It includes species that are not currently threatened with extinction but may become so without trade controls.

Appendix III:

· It includes species for which a country has asked other CITES parties to help control international trade.

· Trade in Appendix III species is regulated using CITES export permits (issued by the country that listed the species in Appendix III) and certificates of origin (issued by all other countries).

· Countries may list species for which they have domestic regulations in Appendix III at any time.

Question 2 of 5

2. Question

Consider the following statements about NASM-SR missile

It is the first indigenous air-launched anti-ship cruise missile developed for the Indian Navy.
With a strike range of around 60 km, the air-launched anti-ship missile can travel at a speed of Mach 3.

Choose the incorrect statements:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

· It is the first indigenous air-launched anti-ship cruise missile developed for the Indian Navy.

· It was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

· It can be launched from attack helicopters.

· This missile will replace the Sea Eagle missiles, which are currently in use with the Navy.

· With the Sea King helicopters also being phased out, it is expected that the NASM-SR will be used with the new MH-60R multi-role helicopters, which are being inducted into the Navy.

· The missile’s new guidance system includes a state-of-the-art navigation system and integrated avionics.

· It employs several new technologies, including an indigenously developed launcher for the helicopter.

· With a strike range of around 60 km, the air-launched anti-ship missile can travel at a speed of Mach 0.8 (slower than the speed of sound).

· It would have an imaging infrared seeker, which would home in on the heat emissions of its targets.

· It can have a warhead of 100kg and is capable of sinking patrol boats and damaging larger warships.

· The NASM-SR, on approach to its target, can cruise at just 5metres above sea level, making it difficult for enemy radars to detect, track, and shoot down with surface-to-air missiles or guns. This low-level capability of anti-ship missiles is known as sea skimming.

Context: The Indian Navy, in association with DRDO, successfully undertook Guided Flight Trials of the first indigenously developed Naval Anti-Ship Missile Short Range (NASM-SR) from a Sea King 42B helicopter recently.

Incorrect

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

· It is the first indigenous air-launched anti-ship cruise missile developed for the Indian Navy.

· It was developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

· It can be launched from attack helicopters.

· This missile will replace the Sea Eagle missiles, which are currently in use with the Navy.

· With the Sea King helicopters also being phased out, it is expected that the NASM-SR will be used with the new MH-60R multi-role helicopters, which are being inducted into the Navy.

· The missile’s new guidance system includes a state-of-the-art navigation system and integrated avionics.

· It employs several new technologies, including an indigenously developed launcher for the helicopter.

· With a strike range of around 60 km, the air-launched anti-ship missile can travel at a speed of Mach 0.8 (slower than the speed of sound).

· It would have an imaging infrared seeker, which would home in on the heat emissions of its targets.

· It can have a warhead of 100kg and is capable of sinking patrol boats and damaging larger warships.

Question 3 of 5

3. Question

Consider the following statements about SATHEE portal

It is a initiative of NITI Aayog to provide a free learning and assessment platform for students..
It makes use of an indigenously developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.
It will help students gain access to training and coaching for competitive examinations for free.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All Three
d) None

Correct

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

Correct

· It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free learning and assessment platform for students.

· It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free lea

SATHEE Features:

· Preparation material for entrance exams including JEE and NEET

· Video solutions in regional languages for entrance exams

· JEE and NEET entrance exam preparation ideas webinars

· Students’ stories of struggles and achievement

· Solve with me sessions

· Motivational sessionsrning and assessment platform for students.

· The platform will have videos made by the faculty members of IITs and IISC to help students prepare for the competitive examinations. The videos would also help students learn concepts and revise topics they are weak at.

· It makes use of an indigenously developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.

Context: Ministry of Education (MoE) recently said they would write to all States to encourage aspirants to utilise the newly launched portal for exam preparation — SATHEE (Self Assessment Test and Help for Entrance Exams).

Incorrect

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

Correct

· It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free learning and assessment platform for students.

· It is a new initiative by the Ministry of Education to provide a free lea

SATHEE Features:

· Preparation material for entrance exams including JEE and NEET

· Video solutions in regional languages for entrance exams

· JEE and NEET entrance exam preparation ideas webinars

· Students’ stories of struggles and achievement

· Solve with me sessions

· Motivational sessionsrning and assessment platform for students.

· It makes use of an indigenously developed AI programme called Prutor, which was developed by IIT-Kanpur.

Question 4 of 5

4. Question

Consider the following statements

Malaria is a disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
The plasmodium parasite is spread by female aedes aegypti mosquitoes which are known as “night-biting” mosquitoes.
Gambusia fish, native to India is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All Three
d) None

Correct

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Correct

Incorrect

· It is a disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite.

· The parasite can be spread to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.

Transmission

· The plasmodium parasite is spread by female Anopheles mosquitoes, which are known as “night-biting” mosquitoes because they most commonly bite between dusk and dawn.

Gambusia fish

· It is known as mosquito fish, and is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.

· It is native to the waters of the south-eastern United States.

· It has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India.

· A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day.

· Also, it has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban Malaria Scheme.

· The International Union for Conservation of Nature declared Gambusia one of the 100 worst invasive alien species in the world.

Context: Recently, various government and non-governmental organisations in Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Punjab have released Gambusia fish into local water bodies to address a mosquito menace.

Incorrect

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Correct

Incorrect

· It is a disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite.

· The parasite can be spread to humans through the bites of infected mosquitoes.

Transmission

· The plasmodium parasite is spread by female Anopheles mosquitoes, which are known as “night-biting” mosquitoes because they most commonly bite between dusk and dawn.

Gambusia fish

· It is known as mosquito fish, and is widely used as a biological agent for controlling mosquito larvae.

· It is native to the waters of the south-eastern United States.

· It has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India.

· A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day.

· Also, it has been part of various malaria control strategies in India since 1928, including the Urban Malaria Scheme.

· The International Union for Conservation of Nature declared Gambusia one of the 100 worst invasive alien species in the world.

Context: Recently, various government and non-governmental organisations in Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and Punjab have released Gambusia fish into local water bodies to address a mosquito menace.

Question 5 of 5

5. Question

Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR,a Joint Special Forces exercise recently seen in news is held between India and which of the following country?

a) France
b) Russia
c) United States of America
d) Nepal

Correct

Solution (c)

Option c

Correct

· It is a joint exercise conducted between Indian Army and US Army Special Forces.

· It aims at sharing best practices and experiences in areas such as joint mission planning and operational tactics.

· It is the 14th Edition of the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise “VAJRA PRAHAR 2023” commenced at the Joint Training Node, Umroi

· The US contingent is represented by personnel from the 1st Special Forces Group (SFG) of US Special Forces. The Indian Army contingent is led by Special Forces personnel from the Eastern Command.

· The first edition was conducted in the year 2010 in India and the 13th edition of the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise was conducted at the Special Forces Training School (SFTS), Bakloh (HP).

· The current edition is being conducted in Umroi Cantonment, Meghalaya from 21st November to 11th December 2023.

· Exercise VAJRA PRAHAR has evolved as a mechanism to exchange ideas and share best practices between the Special Forces of both the nations.

· It is also a platform to enhance inter-operability and strengthen defence cooperation between the armies of India and the United States of America.

Context: Recently, the Indo-US Joint Special Forces exercise “VAJRA PRAHAR 2023” commenced at the Joint Training Node, Umroi , Meghalaya.