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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Consider the following:
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. | Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge. Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. |
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Radioactive waste is any pollution that emits radiation beyond what is naturally released by the environment. It’s generated by uranium mining, nuclear power plants, and the production and testing of military weapons, as well as by universities and hospitals that use radioactive materials for research and medicine. Hence, statement 1 is false. | Radioactive waste can persist in the environment for thousands of years, making disposal a major challenge. Accidentally released or improperly disposed of contaminants threaten groundwater, surface water, and marine resources. Hence, statement 2 is false. |
Consider the following with regard to ‘Butterfly Mines’, recently in the news:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. | These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. |
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect |
| The PFM-1 and PFM-1S are two kinds of anti-personnel landmines that are commonly referred to as ‘Butterfly mines’ or ‘Green Parrots’. In Donetsk and Kramatorsk, Russia has highly likely attempted employment of PFM-1 and PFM-1S scatterable anti-personnel mines. Commonly called the ‘butterfly mine’, the PFM-1 series are deeply controversial, indiscriminate weapons. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. | These mines can be deployed in the field of action through several means, which include being dropped from helicopters or through ballistic dispersion using artillery and mortar shells. These mines glide to the ground without exploding and later explode on coming in contact. Since these mines were green in color when they were first put to use them also earned the name ‘Green Parrots’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. |
Consider the following in the context of the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS):
Which of the above statements is/are true?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. |
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| In a first, an indigenously developed howitzer gun, ATAG, became part of the 21-gun salute during the Independence Day ceremony at the Red Fort. Developed by the DRDO, the Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS) was used alongside the traditional British-origin ’25 Pounders’ artillery guns. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | The ATAGS is an indigenous 155 mm x 52 calibre howitzer gun developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) with its Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) being the nodal agency. Howitzers is an umbrella term for a category of long-range artillery guns. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. |
Consider the following with regard to the Dornier 228 aircraft
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Roles: · Maritime Surveillance · Pollution Prevention · Troop Transport · Aerial Survey · Search and Rescue · Commuter Transport · Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids · Remote Sensing Applications · Causality Evacuation · Executive Transport · Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. |
The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. |
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance.
Roles: · Maritime Surveillance · Pollution Prevention · Troop Transport · Aerial Survey · Search and Rescue · Commuter Transport · Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids · Remote Sensing Applications · Causality Evacuation · Executive Transport · Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true. |
The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true. |
Consider the following statements about S-400 missile:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. | S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. | It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system |
Solution (d)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is developed in Russia. It is one of the world’s most Advanced air defence system. | S-400 missile system carries separate radar systems which can detect aerial targets to a range of 400 km. It can hit target up to altitude of 30 km. | It is a mobile long-range surface-to-air missile system |
Consider the following statements about Pralay missile:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. | Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. |
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Pralay missile is developed by DRDO. It has a range of 150-500 km. It is a Short Range Ballistic Missile. | Pralay missle is a surface-to-surface missile. Its payload capacity is 500-1000kg. |
Consider the following:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. |
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| ASTRA is a Beyond Visual Range (BVR) class of Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) system designed to be mounted on fighter aircraft. The missile is designed to engage and destroy highly maneuvering supersonic aircraft. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | The missile has all weather day and night capability. The missile is being developed in multiple variants to meet specific requirements. The ASTRA Mk-I Weapon System integrated with SU-30 Mk-I aircraft is being inducted into the Indian Air Force (IAF). Hence, statement 2 is not correct. |
With reference to cruise missiles, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false.
They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true.
They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false.
Solution (a)
Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false.
They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true.
They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false.
With reference to Drones, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
A ballistic missile is difficult to intercept.
Statement-II :
Prithvi-I is a long-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Solution (c)
A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true.
Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Solution (c)
A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true.
Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false.
Consider the following statements
Statement-I :
Supersonic combustion ramjet or Scramjet operate at supersonic speeds.
Statement-II :
Air from the atmosphere is rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed.
Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements?
Solution (d)
Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false.
In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Solution (d)
Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false.
In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true.
Consider the following statements regarding Harpoon Missiles:
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following pairs regarding India’s Missile System:
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
With reference to Indian defense system, consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Agni V:
The BrahMos missile:
Solution (b)
Agni V:
The BrahMos missile:
Consider the following pairs:
Satellite Navigation system Country
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Solution (c)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)
GALILEO
BeiDou
Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology
Solution (c)
Global Positioning System (GPS)
Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)
GALILEO
BeiDou
Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)
Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology
Which of the following functions can be performed by the unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs)?
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
Solution (d)
Solution (d)
Consider the following statements regarding Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3):
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.
Solution (c)
Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Functions:
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
Solution (a)
Functions:
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Vayulink’ Platform:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Uses:
Solution (a)
Uses:
With reference to India’s defence, the INS Marmagao is a?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Solution (a)
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements about Scrub Typhus
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about Cell-free DNAs (cfDNA)
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (d)
Solution (d)
Consider the following statements about Akira
Choose the correct code:
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Which of the following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag?
Choose the correct code:
Solution (d)
The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag:
Hence option d is correct.
Solution (d)
The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag:
Hence option d is correct.
Which of the following are the key features of Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM- USHA)?
Choose the correct code:
Solution (c)
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country.
The features/objectives of PM-USHA are:
Solution (c)
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country.
The features/objectives of PM-USHA are:
Recently in the news, HE 1005-1439 is a
Solution (c)
HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang.
HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct.
Solution (c)
HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang.
HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Malayali tribe
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
If the height of Ramesh is less by 20% than Suresh, the height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by how many percent?
Solution (a)
Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y.
Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x
y = x – (20/100)x
y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x
x = (5/4)y
Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh
= (5/4)y – y = y/4
∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100%
= y/(4*y)*100
= 100/4
= 25%
Solution (a)
Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y.
Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x
y = x – (20/100)x
y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x
x = (5/4)y
Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh
= (5/4)y – y = y/4
∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100%
= y/(4*y)*100
= 100/4
= 25%
Three wheels can complete 40, 45 and 50 revolutions per minute. There is a green spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time will all these spots simultaneously touch the ground again?
Solution (c)
The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution.
Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute)
So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s.
Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s.
Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s.
The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec.
So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously.
Solution (c)
The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution.
Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute)
So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s.
Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s.
Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds
So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s.
The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec.
So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously.
All the students of a class are sitting in a row. Raman is 7th from the left and Rohan is 14th from the right. The number of students sitting in between them is 1/4th of the total of students in the row. How many students are sitting in the row?
Solution (d)
Let the total number of students = n.
Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
So, 3n/4 = 21
Or n = 28.
Solution (d)
Let the total number of students = n.
Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.
Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.
Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.
Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n
So, 3n/4 = 21
Or n = 28.
Suppose there is a number ‘n’. When ‘n’ is divided by 5, the remainder will be 2. What will be the remainder when n2 is divided by 5?
Solution (b)
According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2
n/5 = remainder 2
On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2
So, n = 7, and n2 = 49
n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4
Solution (b)
According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2
n/5 = remainder 2
On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2
So, n = 7, and n2 = 49
n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4
All the page numbers in a book are added, beginning from page 1. However, a page number was added twice by mistake. If the sum obtained was 850, which page number must have been added twice?
Solution (b)
Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.
Then, x +
⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850
So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820
So, x = 30.
Solution (b)
Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.
Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.
Then, x +
⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850
So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850
⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700
The greatest possible value of n = 40.
Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820
So, x = 30.
All the Best
IASbaba
