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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.

It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes

Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.

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Question 1 of 35

1. Question

In the context of blockchain, consider the following statements

Proof of Work is a competition between miners to solve the cryptographic algorithms or equations and validate the transactions to earn blockchain rewards.
Proof of Stake implements randomly chosen validators to make sure the transaction is reliable, compensating them in return with crypto.

Choose the correct code:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (c)

Proof of work(PoW) and proof of stake(PoS) are the two main ways cryptocurrency transactions are verified.

Statement 1	Statement 2
Correct	Correct
In PoW crypto transactions are verified through mining. In this, an individual does cryptographic transactions to verify a particular connection, which is basically mining, that one sees in crypto. The mining process in Proof of Work consensus is energy extensive as it requires a lot of electricity and other resources to verify transactions, create new tokens, and add new blocks to the network.	The Proof of Stake mechanism achieves the same with fewer resources and less complexity. Unlike PoW, participants stake a certain amount of crypto and are selected randomly to validate the transactions in the PoS system. In proof of stake, validators are chosen based on a set of rules depending on the stake they have in the blockchain. In proof of stake, there are certain people, who are known validators and they validate the transactions happening in the ecosystem

Incorrect

Solution (c)

Proof of work(PoW) and proof of stake(PoS) are the two main ways cryptocurrency transactions are verified.

Statement 1	Statement 2
Correct	Correct
In PoW crypto transactions are verified through mining. In this, an individual does cryptographic transactions to verify a particular connection, which is basically mining, that one sees in crypto. The mining process in Proof of Work consensus is energy extensive as it requires a lot of electricity and other resources to verify transactions, create new tokens, and add new blocks to the network.	The Proof of Stake mechanism achieves the same with fewer resources and less complexity. Unlike PoW, participants stake a certain amount of crypto and are selected randomly to validate the transactions in the PoS system. In proof of stake, validators are chosen based on a set of rules depending on the stake they have in the blockchain. In proof of stake, there are certain people, who are known validators and they validate the transactions happening in the ecosystem

Question 2 of 35

2. Question

Consider the following statements about the edge computing

It is a distributed IT architecture which moves computing resources from clouds and data centers as close as possible to the originating source.
In this the applications run in data centers and processed via the cloud.

Choose the correct code:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

The edge computing is a distributed IT architecture which moves computing resources from clouds and data centres as close as possible to the originating source. The main goal of edge computing is to reduce latency requirements while processing data and saving network costs. The edge can be the router, ISP, routing switches, integrated access devices, multiplexers, etc.

In this the applications run close to the users; either on the user’s device or on the network edge.

In cloud computing the applications run in data centres and processed via the cloud.

Incorrect

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

In this the applications run close to the users; either on the user’s device or on the network edge.

In cloud computing the applications run in data centres and processed via the cloud.

Question 3 of 35

3. Question

Consider the following statements

The quantum cryptosystems rely on the complexity of mathematical algorithms whereas the security offered by conventional cryptosystems rely on the laws of Physics for data-encryption.
There is no need of interaction between the users in Quantum Key Distribution technology.
The Quantum Key Distribution technology aims to develop secure communication by a way of distributing and sharing secret keys which are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

How many of the above statements are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Correct

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

Correct

The conventional cryptosystems rely on the complexity of mathematical algorithms whereas the security offered by quantum cryptosystems rely on the laws of Physics for data-encryption.

It requires interactions between the legitimate users. These interactions need to be authenticated. This can be achieved through various cryptographic means.

QKD allows two distant users, who do not share a long secret key initially, to produce a common, random string of secret bits, called a secret key. The end-result is that QKD can utilize an authenticated communication channel and transform it into a secure communication channel. It is designed in a way that if an illegitimate entity tries to read the transmission, it will disturb the qubits – which are encoded on photons.

This will generate transmission errors, leading to legitimate end-users being immediately informed.

The Quantum Key Distribution technology aims to develop secure communication by a way of distributing and sharing secret keys which are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

It provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

Cryptography is the study of secure communications techniques that allow only the sender and intended recipient of a message to view its contents.

Cryptographic algorithms and protocols are necessary to keep a system secure, particularly when communicating through an untrusted network such as the Internet.

Incorrect

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Statement 3

Incorrect

Correct

The conventional cryptosystems rely on the complexity of mathematical algorithms whereas the security offered by quantum cryptosystems rely on the laws of Physics for data-encryption.

It requires interactions between the legitimate users. These interactions need to be authenticated. This can be achieved through various cryptographic means.

This will generate transmission errors, leading to legitimate end-users being immediately informed.

The Quantum Key Distribution technology aims to develop secure communication by a way of distributing and sharing secret keys which are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

It provides a way of distributing and sharing secret keys that are necessary for cryptographic protocols.

Cryptography is the study of secure communications techniques that allow only the sender and intended recipient of a message to view its contents.

Cryptographic algorithms and protocols are necessary to keep a system secure, particularly when communicating through an untrusted network such as the Internet.

Question 4 of 35

4. Question

Consider the following statements about the 5G network

It works only in 2 bands namely low and high frequency spectrum.
It can be used in Virtual reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR) with faster, more uniform data rates, lower latency, and lower cost-per-bit.

Choose the correct code:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (b)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Correct

The 5G network works in 3 bands namely low, mid and high frequency spectrum.

1. Low Band Spectrum: In terms of coverage and speed of Internet and data exchange, the maximum speed is limited to 100 Mbps (Megabits per second). This means that telecom companies can use and install it for commercial cell phone users who may not have specific demands for very high speed Internet. However, the low band spectrum may not be optimal for specialised needs of the industry.

2. Mid Band Spectrum: It offers higher speeds compared to the low band but has limitations in terms of coverage area and penetration of signals. This band may be used by industries and specialised factory units for building captive networks that can be moulded into the needs of that particular industry.

3. High Band Spectrum: It offers the highest speed of all the three bands, but has extremely limited coverage and signal penetration strength. This band greatly enhances futuristic 5G technology applications like Internet of Things (IoT) and smart technology but will require considerable infrastructure.

It can be used in Virtual reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR) with faster, more uniform data rates, lower latency, and lower cost-per-bit.

It can seamlessly connect a massive number of embedded sensors in virtually everything through the ability to scale down in data rates, power, and mobility—providing extremely lean and low-cost connectivity solutions.

The 5G network combined with IoT, cloud, big data,

Artificial Intelligence, and edge computing plays an important role for the fourth industrial revolution.

Incorrect

Solution (b)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Correct

The 5G network works in 3 bands namely low, mid and high frequency spectrum.

It can be used in Virtual reality (VR) and Augmented Reality (AR) with faster, more uniform data rates, lower latency, and lower cost-per-bit.

The 5G network combined with IoT, cloud, big data,

Artificial Intelligence, and edge computing plays an important role for the fourth industrial revolution.

Question 5 of 35

5. Question

Consider the following statements about the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021

It imposes a legal obligation on intermediaries to take reasonable efforts to prevent users from uploading harmful/unlawful content.
It establishes the Grievance Appellate Committee(s) to allow users to appeal against the inaction of or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.

Choose the correct code:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (c)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 imposes a legal obligation on intermediaries to take reasonable efforts to prevent users from uploading harmful/unlawful content. It requires intermediaries to respect the rights guaranteed to users under the Articles 14, 19 and 21 of the Indian Constitution.

It establishes the Grievance Appellate Committee(s) to allow users to appeal against the inaction of or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.

However, users will always have the right to approach courts for any remedy.

Incorrect

Solution (c)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

It establishes the Grievance Appellate Committee(s) to allow users to appeal against the inaction of or decisions taken by intermediaries on user complaints.

However, users will always have the right to approach courts for any remedy.

Question 6 of 35

6. Question

Consider the following statements

The dark web contains internet content that you can’t find through search engines while the deep web is a hidden network that requires a special browser to access.
The example of deep web is your bank account page and the silk road is an example of dark web.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (b)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Correct

The deep web contains internet content that you can’t find through search engines while the dark web is a hidden network that requires a special browser to access.

The deep web is the part of the internet you can’t access through search engines like Google and Bing.

The dark web or the darknet is a small subset of the deep web. It’s a hidden collective of sites that you could only access through a special browser. Since all activity on the dark web is anonymous by default.

The example of deep web is your bank account page and the silk road is an example of dark web.

Incorrect

Solution (b)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Correct

The deep web contains internet content that you can’t find through search engines while the dark web is a hidden network that requires a special browser to access.

The deep web is the part of the internet you can’t access through search engines like Google and Bing.

The example of deep web is your bank account page and the silk road is an example of dark web.

Question 7 of 35

7. Question

Consider the following statements about cryptojacking

It is a cyber-attack an attacker tricks an unsuspecting target into handing over valuable information like password but can’t mine cryptocurrency.
It is easy to detect and the victims can know as soon as their system is attacked.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (d)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Cryptojacking is a cyber-attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency.

In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website — and unknowingly provides access to their Internet-connected device.

Cryptojacking is hard to detect and the victims of these attacks mostly remain unaware that their systems have been compromised. Some tell-tale signs are the device slowing down, heating up, or the battery getting drained faster than usual.

Incorrect

Solution (d)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Incorrect

Cryptojacking is a cyber-attack wherein a computing device is hijacked and controlled by the attacker, and its resources are used to illicitly mine cryptocurrency.

In most cases, the malicious programme is installed when the user clicks on an unsafe link, or visits an infected website — and unknowingly provides access to their Internet-connected device.

Question 8 of 35

8. Question

Consider the following statements about Web 5.0

It is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to own their identity on the internet and control their data.
Only Web 5.0 envision an Internet without threat of censorship from governments and big techs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

Web 5.0 is Web 2.0 plus Web 3.0 that will allow users to own their identity on the internet and control their data. It is aimed at building an extra decentralized web that puts one in control of one’s data and identity.

Both Web 3.0 and Web 5.0 envision an Internet without threat of censorship from governments and big techs.

The Web 2.0, the next stage in the evolution of the web was the read and write internet. Users could now communicate with servers and other users leading to the creation of the social web.

The Web 3.0 is an evolving term that is used to refer to the next generation of the Internet – a read-write-execute web – with

decentralization as its bedrock.

Incorrect

Solution (a)

Statement 1

Statement 2

Correct

Incorrect

Both Web 3.0 and Web 5.0 envision an Internet without threat of censorship from governments and big techs.

The Web 2.0, the next stage in the evolution of the web was the read and write internet. Users could now communicate with servers and other users leading to the creation of the social web.

The Web 3.0 is an evolving term that is used to refer to the next generation of the Internet – a read-write-execute web – with

decentralization as its bedrock.

Question 9 of 35

9. Question
Which of the following statements about ‘Quantum Mechanics’ is incorrect:
- a) Quantum entanglement allows particles to be correlated in such a way that the state of one particle can influence the state of another when distance between them is finite.
- b) Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle states that it is impossible to simultaneously know the exact position and momentum of a particle with absolute precision.
- c) Quantum superposition implies that particles can exist in multiple states at the same time until observed or measured.
- d) Quantum tunneling is a phenomenon where particles can pass through barriers that classical physics would predict as impenetrable.
Correct

Solution (a)
- Quantum entanglement allows particles to be correlated in such a way that the state of one particle can influence the state of another, regardless of the distance between them. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics, stating that the more precisely you know the position of a particle, the less precisely you can know its momentum (and vice versa). This is not a limitation due to measurement devices but is inherent in the nature of quantum systems.
- Quantum superposition is a concept where a particle can exist in multiple states simultaneously until a measurement is made, at which point it ‘collapses’ into one of the possible states. This is a fundamental aspect of quantum mechanics.
- Quantum tunneling is a real phenomenon in quantum mechanics where particles can pass through energy barriers that classical physics would consider impenetrable. This occurs due to the probabilistic nature of quantum states, allowing particles to ‘tunnel’ through barriers they wouldn’t be able to overcome classically.
Important Points/Value Additions:
- Quantum mechanics is a fundamental theory in physics that describes the behavior of matter and energy at the smallest scales, typically on the order of atoms and subatomic particles.
- It is a branch of theoretical physics that has proven to be incredibly successful in explaining the behavior of particles at the quantum level.
Incorrect

Solution (a)
- Quantum entanglement allows particles to be correlated in such a way that the state of one particle can influence the state of another, regardless of the distance between them. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics, stating that the more precisely you know the position of a particle, the less precisely you can know its momentum (and vice versa). This is not a limitation due to measurement devices but is inherent in the nature of quantum systems.
- Quantum superposition is a concept where a particle can exist in multiple states simultaneously until a measurement is made, at which point it ‘collapses’ into one of the possible states. This is a fundamental aspect of quantum mechanics.
- Quantum tunneling is a real phenomenon in quantum mechanics where particles can pass through energy barriers that classical physics would consider impenetrable. This occurs due to the probabilistic nature of quantum states, allowing particles to ‘tunnel’ through barriers they wouldn’t be able to overcome classically.
Important Points/Value Additions:
- Quantum mechanics is a fundamental theory in physics that describes the behavior of matter and energy at the smallest scales, typically on the order of atoms and subatomic particles.
- It is a branch of theoretical physics that has proven to be incredibly successful in explaining the behavior of particles at the quantum level.
Question 10 of 35

10. Question
With reference to e-SIM (Embedded Subscriber Identification Module), consider the following statements:
1. Change in mobile phone device will lead to change in phone number.
2. It can easily violate privacy of users, as service provider can track user activity.
3. It is not possible to re-programme e-SIMS.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)
- Switching devices becomes more challenging, as a change in the mobile phone device results in a corresponding alteration of the phone number. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Mobile services providers gain the ability to monitor user’s activities with heightened precision, raising concerns when robust privacy protection laws are lacking. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- While users have the option to re-programme eSIMs, individuals with lower digital literacy may encounter difficulties in doing so. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Important Points/Value Additions:
- An eSIM, short for embedded SIM, is a digital or electronic counterpart of a traditional SIM card. Unlike a physical, removable card, it is integrated into devices like smartphones, tablets, or smartwatches.
- Its primary function aligns with that of a conventional SIM card, serving to identify a user to a mobile network and facilitate connectivity.
- eSIMs provide enhanced security, with a reduced likelihood of being lost or removed, simplifying the onboarding process for new users without the need to wait for SIM card activation.
- The growing acceptance of eSIMs is anticipated to diminish or eliminate the necessity for telecom service providers to dispatch SIM cards to remote locations.
- Recognized for its environmental friendliness, the re-programmable nature of eSIMs eliminates the requirement for additional plastic and metal in the production of new SIMs.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- Switching devices becomes more challenging, as a change in the mobile phone device results in a corresponding alteration of the phone number. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Mobile services providers gain the ability to monitor user’s activities with heightened precision, raising concerns when robust privacy protection laws are lacking. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- While users have the option to re-programme eSIMs, individuals with lower digital literacy may encounter difficulties in doing so. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Important Points/Value Additions:
- An eSIM, short for embedded SIM, is a digital or electronic counterpart of a traditional SIM card. Unlike a physical, removable card, it is integrated into devices like smartphones, tablets, or smartwatches.
- Its primary function aligns with that of a conventional SIM card, serving to identify a user to a mobile network and facilitate connectivity.
- eSIMs provide enhanced security, with a reduced likelihood of being lost or removed, simplifying the onboarding process for new users without the need to wait for SIM card activation.
- The growing acceptance of eSIMs is anticipated to diminish or eliminate the necessity for telecom service providers to dispatch SIM cards to remote locations.
- Recognized for its environmental friendliness, the re-programmable nature of eSIMs eliminates the requirement for additional plastic and metal in the production of new SIMs.
Question 11 of 35

11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Digital Communication Commission:
1. It was set up by the Government of India via a resolution in 1989.
2. It works under the Ministry of Science and Technology
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Solution (a)
- Recently, the Government of India decided to disband the telecom body Digital Communication Commission and hand over its crucial and large-budget decisions to the Department of Expenditure.
- It was set up by the Government of India via a resolution in 1989 with administrative and financial powers of the Government of India to deal with various aspects of Telecommunications. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Government re-designated the ‘Telecom Commission’ as the ‘Digital Communications Commission’ in 2018.
- Nodal Ministry: It is under the Ministry of Communication. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Members: Consists of a Chairman, four full-time members, who are ex-officio Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications and four part-time members who are Secretaries to the Government of India in the concerned Departments.
- The Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications is the ex-officio Chairman of the Digital Communications Commission.
Functions:
- Formulating the policy of the Department of Telecommunications for approval of the Government.
- Preparing the budget for the Department of Telecommunications for each financial year and getting it approved by the Government.
- Implementation of Government policy in all matters concerning telecommunication.
Incorrect

Solution (a)
- Recently, the Government of India decided to disband the telecom body Digital Communication Commission and hand over its crucial and large-budget decisions to the Department of Expenditure.
- It was set up by the Government of India via a resolution in 1989 with administrative and financial powers of the Government of India to deal with various aspects of Telecommunications. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Government re-designated the ‘Telecom Commission’ as the ‘Digital Communications Commission’ in 2018.
- Nodal Ministry: It is under the Ministry of Communication. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Members: Consists of a Chairman, four full-time members, who are ex-officio Secretaries to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications and four part-time members who are Secretaries to the Government of India in the concerned Departments.
- The Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Telecommunications is the ex-officio Chairman of the Digital Communications Commission.
Functions:
- Formulating the policy of the Department of Telecommunications for approval of the Government.
- Preparing the budget for the Department of Telecommunications for each financial year and getting it approved by the Government.
- Implementation of Government policy in all matters concerning telecommunication.
Question 12 of 35

12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding OTT (Over-The-Top) platforms in India:
1. In India OTT platforms are regulated by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
2. There is no autonomous body to govern digital content in India.
3. OTT, or over-the-top platforms, are audio and video hosting and streaming services which started out as content hosting platforms.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)

OTT platforms:
- OTT, or over-the-top platforms, are audio and video hosting and streaming services which started out as content hosting platforms, but soon branched out into the production and release of short movies, feature films, documentaries and web-series themselves. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- These platforms offer a range of content and use artificial intelligence to suggest to users the content they are likely to view based on their past viewership on the platform.
- Most OTT platforms generally offer some content for free and charge a monthly subscription fee for premium content which is generally unavailable elsewhere.
- Premium content is usually produced and marketed by the OTT platform themselves, in association with established production houses which historically have made feature films.
- Examples: Netflix, Disney+, Hulu, Amazon Prime Video, Hulu, Peacock, Curiosity Stream, Pluto TV, and so many more.
OTT Regulation in India:
- In February 2022, the government had notified the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 to regulate OTT platforms.
- There is law or autonomous body to govern digital content in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
- The rules establish a soft-touch self-regulatory architecture with a Code of Ethics and three-tier grievance redressal mechanism for OTT platforms.
- Every publisher should appoint a Grievance Officer based in India for receiving and redressing grievances in 15 days.
- Also, every publisher needs to become a member of a self-regulating body. Such a body will have to register with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and address grievances that have not been resolved by the publisher within 15 days.
- The Ministry of Information Broadcasting and the Inter-Departmental Committee constituted by the Ministry constitute the third-tier Oversight Mechanism. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- They provide for self-classification of the content without any involvement of Central Board of Film Certification.
Incorrect

Solution (b)

OTT platforms:
- OTT, or over-the-top platforms, are audio and video hosting and streaming services which started out as content hosting platforms, but soon branched out into the production and release of short movies, feature films, documentaries and web-series themselves. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- These platforms offer a range of content and use artificial intelligence to suggest to users the content they are likely to view based on their past viewership on the platform.
- Most OTT platforms generally offer some content for free and charge a monthly subscription fee for premium content which is generally unavailable elsewhere.
- Premium content is usually produced and marketed by the OTT platform themselves, in association with established production houses which historically have made feature films.
- Examples: Netflix, Disney+, Hulu, Amazon Prime Video, Hulu, Peacock, Curiosity Stream, Pluto TV, and so many more.
OTT Regulation in India:
- In February 2022, the government had notified the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 to regulate OTT platforms.
- There is law or autonomous body to govern digital content in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
- The rules establish a soft-touch self-regulatory architecture with a Code of Ethics and three-tier grievance redressal mechanism for OTT platforms.
- Every publisher should appoint a Grievance Officer based in India for receiving and redressing grievances in 15 days.
- Also, every publisher needs to become a member of a self-regulating body. Such a body will have to register with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting and address grievances that have not been resolved by the publisher within 15 days.
- The Ministry of Information Broadcasting and the Inter-Departmental Committee constituted by the Ministry constitute the third-tier Oversight Mechanism. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- They provide for self-classification of the content without any involvement of Central Board of Film Certification.
Question 13 of 35

13. Question
With reference to end-to-end encryption, consider the following statements:
1. It is a communication process that prevents third party from accessing data.
2. It uses an algorithm that transforms standard text into an unreadable format.
3. The decryption keys are stored with a third party like concerned internet service providers.
4. It is also used to secure passwords, protect stored data and safeguard data on cloud storage.
5. Some of the popular instant-messaging apps that use it are Signal, WhatsApp, iMessage, and Google messages.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- a) 1, 2 and 4 only
- b) 2, 3 and 5 only
- c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
- d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct

Solution (c)
- Recently, Apple has announced it will be increasing the number of data points protected by End-to-End Encryption (E2EE) on iCloud from 14 to 23 categories.
End-to-end encryption
- End-to-end encryption is a communication process that encrypts data being shared between two devices.
- It prevents third parties like cloud service providers, internet service providers (ISPs) and cybercriminals from accessing data while it is being transferred.
- The cryptographic keys used to encrypt and decrypt the messages are stored on the endpoints.
- The process of end-to-end encryption uses an algorithm that transforms standard text into an unreadable format.
- This format can only be unscrambled and read by those with the decryption keys, which are only stored on endpoints and not with any third parties including companies providing the service. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Usage:
- End-to-end encryption today is majorly used to secure communications.
  - Some of the popular instant-messaging apps that use it are Signal, WhatsApp, iMessage, and Google messages.
- E2EE has long been used when transferring business documents, financial details, legal proceedings, and personal conversations.
- It can also be used to control users’ authorization when accessing stored data.
- End-to-end encryption is used to secure communications.
- It is also used to secure passwords, protect stored data and safeguard data on cloud storage.
Legal Framework for Encryption in India

Minimum Encryption Standards:
- India does not have a specific encryption law. Although, a number of industry rules, such as those governing the banking, finance, and telecommunications industries, include requirements for minimum encryption standards to be utilized in protecting transactions.
Prohibition on Encryption Technologies:
- Users are not authorized to employ encryption standards larger than 40 bits using symmetric key algorithms or similar methods without prior clearance and deposition of decryption keys, according to the likening agreement between the ISP and the DoT.
- There are a variety of additional rules and recommendations that use a greater encryption level than 40 bits for particular sectors.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021:
- It superseded the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011.
- The new set of rules have the potential to impact the end-to-end encryption techniques of social messaging applications like WhatsApp, Telegram, Signal, etc.
Information Technology Act of 2000:
- It regulates electronic and wireless modes of communication, is devoid of any substantive provision or policy on encryption.
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- Recently, Apple has announced it will be increasing the number of data points protected by End-to-End Encryption (E2EE) on iCloud from 14 to 23 categories.
End-to-end encryption
- End-to-end encryption is a communication process that encrypts data being shared between two devices.
- It prevents third parties like cloud service providers, internet service providers (ISPs) and cybercriminals from accessing data while it is being transferred.
- The cryptographic keys used to encrypt and decrypt the messages are stored on the endpoints.
- The process of end-to-end encryption uses an algorithm that transforms standard text into an unreadable format.
- This format can only be unscrambled and read by those with the decryption keys, which are only stored on endpoints and not with any third parties including companies providing the service. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Usage:
- End-to-end encryption today is majorly used to secure communications.
  - Some of the popular instant-messaging apps that use it are Signal, WhatsApp, iMessage, and Google messages.
- E2EE has long been used when transferring business documents, financial details, legal proceedings, and personal conversations.
- It can also be used to control users’ authorization when accessing stored data.
- End-to-end encryption is used to secure communications.
- It is also used to secure passwords, protect stored data and safeguard data on cloud storage.
Legal Framework for Encryption in India

Minimum Encryption Standards:
- India does not have a specific encryption law. Although, a number of industry rules, such as those governing the banking, finance, and telecommunications industries, include requirements for minimum encryption standards to be utilized in protecting transactions.
Prohibition on Encryption Technologies:
- Users are not authorized to employ encryption standards larger than 40 bits using symmetric key algorithms or similar methods without prior clearance and deposition of decryption keys, according to the likening agreement between the ISP and the DoT.
- There are a variety of additional rules and recommendations that use a greater encryption level than 40 bits for particular sectors.
The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021:
- It superseded the earlier Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011.
- The new set of rules have the potential to impact the end-to-end encryption techniques of social messaging applications like WhatsApp, Telegram, Signal, etc.
Information Technology Act of 2000:
- It regulates electronic and wireless modes of communication, is devoid of any substantive provision or policy on encryption.
Question 14 of 35

14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Near Field Communication (NFC) technology:
1. NFC is a long-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly.
2. It can be used to pay bills, exchange business cards, download coupons, or share a document.
3. It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-less tickets for public transport.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)
- Google Pay has recently launched a new feature in India, ‘Tap to pay for UPI’, in collaboration with Pine Labs.
  - The feature makes use of Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.
- The functionality will allow users with NFC-enabled Android smartphones and UPI (Unified Payments Interface) accounts linked to Google Pay to carry out transactions just by tapping their phones on any Pine Labs Android point-of-sale (POS) terminal across the country.
- The process is much faster compared to scanning a QR code or entering the UPI-linked mobile number which has been the conventional way till now.
Near Field Communication (NFC) technology
- NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch – whether to pay bills, exchange business cards, download coupons, or share a document. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct)
- NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two devices.
  - Both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance.
- NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimeters from each other for data transfer to occur.
- In 2004, consumer electronics companies, Nokia, Philips and Sony together formed the NFC Forum, which outlined the architecture for NFC technology to create powerful new consumer-driven products.
- Nokia released the first NFC-enabled phone in 2007.
- It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-less tickets for public transport. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Contactless cards and readers use NFC in several applications from securing networks and buildings to monitoring inventory and sales, preventing auto theft, and running unmanned toll booths.
- It is present in speakers, household appliances, and other electronic devices that are controlled through smartphones.
- It also has an application in healthcare, to monitor patient stats through NFC-enabled wristbands. NFC is used in wireless charging too.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- Google Pay has recently launched a new feature in India, ‘Tap to pay for UPI’, in collaboration with Pine Labs.
  - The feature makes use of Near Field Communication (NFC) technology.
- The functionality will allow users with NFC-enabled Android smartphones and UPI (Unified Payments Interface) accounts linked to Google Pay to carry out transactions just by tapping their phones on any Pine Labs Android point-of-sale (POS) terminal across the country.
- The process is much faster compared to scanning a QR code or entering the UPI-linked mobile number which has been the conventional way till now.
Near Field Communication (NFC) technology
- NFC is a short-range wireless connectivity technology that allows NFC-enabled devices to communicate with each other and transfer information quickly and easily with a single touch – whether to pay bills, exchange business cards, download coupons, or share a document. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct)
- NFC transmits data through electromagnetic radio fields, to enable communication between two devices.
  - Both devices must contain NFC chips, as transactions take place within a very short distance.
- NFC-enabled devices must be either physically touching or within a few centimeters from each other for data transfer to occur.
- In 2004, consumer electronics companies, Nokia, Philips and Sony together formed the NFC Forum, which outlined the architecture for NFC technology to create powerful new consumer-driven products.
- Nokia released the first NFC-enabled phone in 2007.
- It is used in contactless banking cards to perform money transactions or to generate contact-less tickets for public transport. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Contactless cards and readers use NFC in several applications from securing networks and buildings to monitoring inventory and sales, preventing auto theft, and running unmanned toll booths.
- It is present in speakers, household appliances, and other electronic devices that are controlled through smartphones.
- It also has an application in healthcare, to monitor patient stats through NFC-enabled wristbands. NFC is used in wireless charging too.
Question 15 of 35

15. Question
Consider the following statement regarding Distributed Ledger Technology (DLT):
1. Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system that records the transaction of assets in which the details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
2. The transactions are verified and recorded using cryptographic techniques.
3. Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
4. Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) Only three
- d) All four
Correct

Solution (d)
- Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the transactions and their details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
- Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
- Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT that came to prominence after Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that used it, became popular.
- The transactions are verified and recorded using cryptographic techniques.
Hence all the statements are correct.

Blockchain technology:
- Blockchain technology is a technology that leads to a chain of blocks, containing digital information stored in a public database. It is a distributed database existing on multiple computers at the same time, which constantly grows as new sets of recordings or blocks are added to it.
- Blockchain consists of three important concepts: blocks, nodes and miners.
Blocks:
- Every chain consists of multiple blocks and each block has three basic elements:
- The data in the block. A 32-bit whole number called a nonce.
- The nonce is randomly generated when a block is created, which then generates a block header hash.
- The hash is a 256-bit number wedded to the nonce. It must start with a huge number of zeroes (i.e., be extremely small).
- When the first block of a chain is created, a nonce generates the cryptographic hash. The data in the block is considered signed and forever tied to the nonce and hash unless it is mined.
Miners:
- Miners create new blocks on the chain through a process called mining.
- In a blockchain every block has its own unique nonce and hash, but also references the hash of the previous block in the chain, so mining a block is not easy, especially on large chains.
- Miners use special software to solve the incredibly complex math problem of finding a nonce that generates an accepted hash.
- Because the nonce is only 32 bits and the hash is 256, there are roughly four billion possible nonce-hash combinations that must be mined before the right one is found.
  - When that happens, miners are said to have found the “golden nonce” and their block is added to the chain.
- Making a change to any block earlier in the chain requires re-mining not just the block with the change, but all of the blocks that come after. This is why it’s extremely difficult to manipulate blockchain technology.
  - Think of it as “safety in math” since finding golden nonces requires an enormous amount of time and computing power.
- When a block is successfully mined, the change is accepted by all of the nodes on the network and the miner is rewarded financially.
Nodes:
- One of the most important concepts in blockchain technology is decentralization. No one computer or organization can own the chain.
- Instead, it is a distributed ledger via the nodes connected to the chain.
- Nodes can be any kind of electronic device that maintains copies of the blockchain and keeps the network functioning.
- Every node has its own copy of the blockchain and the network must algorithmically approve any newly mined block for the chain to be updated, trusted and verified.
- Since blockchains are transparent, every action in the ledger can be easily checked and viewed.
- Each participant is given a unique alphanumeric identification number that shows their transactions.
Benefits of using Blockchain Technology:
- Immutability: In Blockchain, there is no possibility of changing the data or altering the data; the data present inside the Blockchain is permanent; one cannot delete or undo it.
- Transparency: By utilizing blockchain technology, organizations and enterprises can go for a complete decentralized network where there is no need for any centralized authority, thus improving the transparency of the entire system.
- High Availability: Unlike centralized systems, Blockchain is a decentralized system of P2P network which is highly available due to its decentralized nature.
  - Since in the Blockchain network, everyone is on a P2P network, and everyone has a computer running, therefore, even if one peer goes down, the other peers still work.
- High Security: This is another major benefit that Blockchain offers. Technology is assumed to offer high security as all the transactions of Blockchain are cryptographically secure and provide integrity. Thus instead of relying on third-party, you need to put your trust in cryptographic algorithms.
Incorrect

Solution (d)
- Distributed ledger technology (DLT) is a digital system for recording the transaction of assets in which the transactions and their details are recorded in multiple places at the same time.
- Unlike traditional databases, distributed ledgers have no central data store or administration functionality.
- Blockchain technology is a specific kind of DLT that came to prominence after Bitcoin, a cryptocurrency that used it, became popular.
- The transactions are verified and recorded using cryptographic techniques.
Hence all the statements are correct.

Blockchain technology:
- Blockchain technology is a technology that leads to a chain of blocks, containing digital information stored in a public database. It is a distributed database existing on multiple computers at the same time, which constantly grows as new sets of recordings or blocks are added to it.
- Blockchain consists of three important concepts: blocks, nodes and miners.
Blocks:
- Every chain consists of multiple blocks and each block has three basic elements:
- The data in the block. A 32-bit whole number called a nonce.
- The nonce is randomly generated when a block is created, which then generates a block header hash.
- The hash is a 256-bit number wedded to the nonce. It must start with a huge number of zeroes (i.e., be extremely small).
- When the first block of a chain is created, a nonce generates the cryptographic hash. The data in the block is considered signed and forever tied to the nonce and hash unless it is mined.
Miners:
- Miners create new blocks on the chain through a process called mining.
- In a blockchain every block has its own unique nonce and hash, but also references the hash of the previous block in the chain, so mining a block is not easy, especially on large chains.
- Miners use special software to solve the incredibly complex math problem of finding a nonce that generates an accepted hash.
- Because the nonce is only 32 bits and the hash is 256, there are roughly four billion possible nonce-hash combinations that must be mined before the right one is found.
  - When that happens, miners are said to have found the “golden nonce” and their block is added to the chain.
- Making a change to any block earlier in the chain requires re-mining not just the block with the change, but all of the blocks that come after. This is why it’s extremely difficult to manipulate blockchain technology.
  - Think of it as “safety in math” since finding golden nonces requires an enormous amount of time and computing power.
- When a block is successfully mined, the change is accepted by all of the nodes on the network and the miner is rewarded financially.
Nodes:
- One of the most important concepts in blockchain technology is decentralization. No one computer or organization can own the chain.
- Instead, it is a distributed ledger via the nodes connected to the chain.
- Nodes can be any kind of electronic device that maintains copies of the blockchain and keeps the network functioning.
- Every node has its own copy of the blockchain and the network must algorithmically approve any newly mined block for the chain to be updated, trusted and verified.
- Since blockchains are transparent, every action in the ledger can be easily checked and viewed.
- Each participant is given a unique alphanumeric identification number that shows their transactions.
Benefits of using Blockchain Technology:
- Immutability: In Blockchain, there is no possibility of changing the data or altering the data; the data present inside the Blockchain is permanent; one cannot delete or undo it.
- Transparency: By utilizing blockchain technology, organizations and enterprises can go for a complete decentralized network where there is no need for any centralized authority, thus improving the transparency of the entire system.
- High Availability: Unlike centralized systems, Blockchain is a decentralized system of P2P network which is highly available due to its decentralized nature.
  - Since in the Blockchain network, everyone is on a P2P network, and everyone has a computer running, therefore, even if one peer goes down, the other peers still work.
- High Security: This is another major benefit that Blockchain offers. Technology is assumed to offer high security as all the transactions of Blockchain are cryptographically secure and provide integrity. Thus instead of relying on third-party, you need to put your trust in cryptographic algorithms.
Question 16 of 35

16. Question
Consider the following:
1. Thermostatic expansion valves
2. Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
3. Wireless microphones
4. Near-field communication (NFC)
5. Ultra-wideband (UWB)
Which of the above are examples of the short-range communicable devices?
- a) 1 2 3 and 5 only
- b) 1 2 and 3 only
- c) 1 2 3 and 4 only
- d) 1 2 3 4 and 5
Correct

Solution (d)
- Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low.
- The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:
  - Access control (including door and gate openers)
  - Alarms and movement detectors
  - Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
  - Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
  - Industrial control
  - Local Area Networks
  - Medical implants
  - Metering devices
  - Remote control
  - Radio frequency identification (RFID)
  - Road Transport Telematics
  - Thermostatic expansion valves
  - Near-field communication (NFC)
  - Ultra-wideband (UWB)
Incorrect

Solution (d)
- Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range, is low.
- The definition ‘Short Range Device’ may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:
  - Access control (including door and gate openers)
  - Alarms and movement detectors
  - Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
  - Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
  - Industrial control
  - Local Area Networks
  - Medical implants
  - Metering devices
  - Remote control
  - Radio frequency identification (RFID)
  - Road Transport Telematics
  - Thermostatic expansion valves
  - Near-field communication (NFC)
  - Ultra-wideband (UWB)
Question 17 of 35

17. Question
The term ‘Juice Jacking’ is related to which of the following?
- a) Quantum computing
- b) Missile interception
- c) Cyber attack
- d) Territorial warfare
Correct

Solution (c)
- Juice Jacking is an attack carried out by hackers through a USB charging cable.
- When a user plugs in the charging cable in his mobile’s charging port, and connects it to any of the rigged charging stations installed at public spaces such as airports, train stations, hotels, cafes etc – it gives a backdoor entry to hackers into the compromised device. The charging port which is also used for data transfer over the USB, is pointed as the main cause of concern over here.
- SBI has publicly issued a warning of ‘Juice Jacking’ through its twitter handle. The bank has advised its customers and general public to “think twice before plugging-in their phone at (pubic) charging stations, as hackers can maliciously infect their smart phone with a malware.”
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- Juice Jacking is an attack carried out by hackers through a USB charging cable.
- When a user plugs in the charging cable in his mobile’s charging port, and connects it to any of the rigged charging stations installed at public spaces such as airports, train stations, hotels, cafes etc – it gives a backdoor entry to hackers into the compromised device. The charging port which is also used for data transfer over the USB, is pointed as the main cause of concern over here.
- SBI has publicly issued a warning of ‘Juice Jacking’ through its twitter handle. The bank has advised its customers and general public to “think twice before plugging-in their phone at (pubic) charging stations, as hackers can maliciously infect their smart phone with a malware.”
Question 18 of 35

18. Question
Consider the following pairs:

Mission and associated agency
1. BepiColombo – National Aeronautics and Space Administration
2. Chandrayan 3 – Indian Space Research Organisation
3. Voyager 2 – European Space Agency
4. Parker Solar Probe – Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- a) One pair only
- b) Two pairs only
- c) Three pairs only
- d) All four pairs
Correct

Solution (a)
- The BepiColombo mission, collaboration between the European Space Agency (ESA) and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) captured this beautiful image of Mercury’s crater-marked surface as the spacecraft flew close to the planet for a gravity assist maneuver. (Hence 1^st pair is incorrect)
Chandrayaan-3 mission
- Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully conducted the flight acceptance hot test of the CE-20 cryogenic engine that will power the cryogenic upper stage of the launch vehicle for the Chandrayaan-3 mission.
- Chandrayaan-3 is India’s third moon mission and is a follow-up of Chandrayaan-2 of July 2019, which aimed to land a rover on the lunar South Pole.
- The mission is scheduled to be launched later in 2023 by Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota.
- The subsequent failure of the Vikram lander led to the pursuit of another mission to demonstrate the landing capabilities needed for the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission proposed in partnership with Japan for 2024.
- The Mission will have three major modules- the Propulsion module, Lander module and Rover.
- The propulsion module will carry the lander and rover configuration till 100 km lunar orbit.
- The Lander will have the capability to soft land at a specified lunar site and deploy the Rover which will carry out in-situ chemical analysis of the lunar surface during the course of its mobility. (Hence 2^nd pair is correct)
Voyager mission:
- Launched in the 1970’s, and the probes sent by NASA were only meant to explore the outer planets – but they just kept on going.
- Voyager 1 departed Earth on 5 September 1977, a few days after Voyager 2 and left our solar system in 2013.
- The mission objective of the Voyager Interstellar Mission (VIM) is to extend the NASA exploration of the solar system beyond the neighborhood of the outer planets to the outer limits of the Sun’s sphere of influence, and possibly beyond.
- The Voyager spacecraft are the third and fourth human spacecraft to fly beyond all the planets in our solar system. Pioneers 10 and 11 preceded Voyager in outstripping the gravitational attraction of the Sun but on February 17, 1998, Voyager 1 passed Pioneer 10 to become the most distant human-made object in space.
- Voyager 2 is the only probe ever to study Neptune and Uranus during planetary flybys.
- It is the second man-made object to leave our planet.
- Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to have visited all four gas giant planets — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — and discovered 16 moons, as well as phenomena like Neptune’s mysteriously transient Great Dark Spot, the cracks in Europa’s ice shell, and ring features at every planet. (Hence 3^rd pair is incorrect)
Parker Solar Probe
- Recently, one of the instruments on NASA’s Parker Solar Probe powered down unexpectedly and the mission team expects it to come back online soon.
- It was launched in 2018 and will travel through the sun’s atmosphere, closer to the surface than any spacecraft before it.
- In order to unlock the mysteries of the sun’s atmosphere this will use Venus’ gravity during seven flybys over nearly seven years to gradually bring its orbit closer to the sun. (Hence 4rth pair is incorrect)
Parker Solar Probe has three detailed science objectives:
- Trace the flow of energy that heats and accelerates the solar corona and solar wind.
- Determine the structure and dynamics of the plasma and magnetic fields at the sources of the solar wind.
- Explore mechanisms that accelerate and transport energetic particles.
Incorrect

Solution (a)
- The BepiColombo mission, collaboration between the European Space Agency (ESA) and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) captured this beautiful image of Mercury’s crater-marked surface as the spacecraft flew close to the planet for a gravity assist maneuver. (Hence 1^st pair is incorrect)
Chandrayaan-3 mission
- Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has successfully conducted the flight acceptance hot test of the CE-20 cryogenic engine that will power the cryogenic upper stage of the launch vehicle for the Chandrayaan-3 mission.
- Chandrayaan-3 is India’s third moon mission and is a follow-up of Chandrayaan-2 of July 2019, which aimed to land a rover on the lunar South Pole.
- The mission is scheduled to be launched later in 2023 by Launch Vehicle Mark 3 (LVM3) from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota.
- The subsequent failure of the Vikram lander led to the pursuit of another mission to demonstrate the landing capabilities needed for the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission proposed in partnership with Japan for 2024.
- The Mission will have three major modules- the Propulsion module, Lander module and Rover.
- The propulsion module will carry the lander and rover configuration till 100 km lunar orbit.
- The Lander will have the capability to soft land at a specified lunar site and deploy the Rover which will carry out in-situ chemical analysis of the lunar surface during the course of its mobility. (Hence 2^nd pair is correct)
Voyager mission:
- Launched in the 1970’s, and the probes sent by NASA were only meant to explore the outer planets – but they just kept on going.
- Voyager 1 departed Earth on 5 September 1977, a few days after Voyager 2 and left our solar system in 2013.
- The mission objective of the Voyager Interstellar Mission (VIM) is to extend the NASA exploration of the solar system beyond the neighborhood of the outer planets to the outer limits of the Sun’s sphere of influence, and possibly beyond.
- The Voyager spacecraft are the third and fourth human spacecraft to fly beyond all the planets in our solar system. Pioneers 10 and 11 preceded Voyager in outstripping the gravitational attraction of the Sun but on February 17, 1998, Voyager 1 passed Pioneer 10 to become the most distant human-made object in space.
- Voyager 2 is the only probe ever to study Neptune and Uranus during planetary flybys.
- It is the second man-made object to leave our planet.
- Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to have visited all four gas giant planets — Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune — and discovered 16 moons, as well as phenomena like Neptune’s mysteriously transient Great Dark Spot, the cracks in Europa’s ice shell, and ring features at every planet. (Hence 3^rd pair is incorrect)
Parker Solar Probe
- Recently, one of the instruments on NASA’s Parker Solar Probe powered down unexpectedly and the mission team expects it to come back online soon.
- It was launched in 2018 and will travel through the sun’s atmosphere, closer to the surface than any spacecraft before it.
- In order to unlock the mysteries of the sun’s atmosphere this will use Venus’ gravity during seven flybys over nearly seven years to gradually bring its orbit closer to the sun. (Hence 4rth pair is incorrect)
Parker Solar Probe has three detailed science objectives:
- Trace the flow of energy that heats and accelerates the solar corona and solar wind.
- Determine the structure and dynamics of the plasma and magnetic fields at the sources of the solar wind.
- Explore mechanisms that accelerate and transport energetic particles.
Question 19 of 35

19. Question
The Project 75(I) is often mentioned in news is related to?
- a) Aircraft carrier
- b) Highways
- c) Submarines
- d) Railways
Correct

Solution (c)
- Recently, Russia has withdrawn from Project 75(I) stating the terms and conditions in the Request for Proposal (RFP) for the construction of six advanced submarines as unrealistic.
- Indian Navy P-75 1 submarine project is listed in Phase I of the Indian Navy’s 30 Year indigenous submarine construction plan approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) on 13 Jul 1999.
- The plan envisages the construction of 24 submarines indigenously along with public and private industries, of appropriate designs in two phases.
- In Phase I (2000 – 2015), the plan had two parts.
- The first part is the construction of P 75 was started in Oct 2005
- The first of the Project – 75 submarines was commissioned into the Navy in December 2017 .
- The second part, Project 75(I), six submarines from the Eastern design like the 877EKM or a derivative like Amur 1650, was to be constructed simultaneously.
- Project-75(I) envisages indigenous construction of six modern conventional submarines (including associated shore support, Engineering Support Package, training and spares package) with contemporary equipment, weapons & sensors including Fuel-Cell based AIP (Air Independent Propulsion Plant), advanced torpedoes, modern missiles and state of the art countermeasure systems.
- Significance:
  - The project would not only aid in boosting the core submarine/ship building industry but would also greatly enhance the manufacturing/industrial sector, especially the MSME by development of an industrial eco-system for manufacture of associated spares/systems/equipment related to submarines.
  - The overall aim would be to progressively build indigenous capabilities in the public/private sector to design, develop and manufacture complex weapon systems for the future needs of the Armed Forces.
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- Recently, Russia has withdrawn from Project 75(I) stating the terms and conditions in the Request for Proposal (RFP) for the construction of six advanced submarines as unrealistic.
- Indian Navy P-75 1 submarine project is listed in Phase I of the Indian Navy’s 30 Year indigenous submarine construction plan approved by the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) on 13 Jul 1999.
- The plan envisages the construction of 24 submarines indigenously along with public and private industries, of appropriate designs in two phases.
- In Phase I (2000 – 2015), the plan had two parts.
- The first part is the construction of P 75 was started in Oct 2005
- The first of the Project – 75 submarines was commissioned into the Navy in December 2017 .
- The second part, Project 75(I), six submarines from the Eastern design like the 877EKM or a derivative like Amur 1650, was to be constructed simultaneously.
- Project-75(I) envisages indigenous construction of six modern conventional submarines (including associated shore support, Engineering Support Package, training and spares package) with contemporary equipment, weapons & sensors including Fuel-Cell based AIP (Air Independent Propulsion Plant), advanced torpedoes, modern missiles and state of the art countermeasure systems.
- Significance:
  - The project would not only aid in boosting the core submarine/ship building industry but would also greatly enhance the manufacturing/industrial sector, especially the MSME by development of an industrial eco-system for manufacture of associated spares/systems/equipment related to submarines.
  - The overall aim would be to progressively build indigenous capabilities in the public/private sector to design, develop and manufacture complex weapon systems for the future needs of the Armed Forces.
Question 20 of 35

20. Question
Which one of the following is the best description of ‘NASAMS’, that was in the news recently?
- a) It is a ground-based air defense system
- b) It is an anti-tank missile
- c) It is a satellite communication technology
- d) It is a stealth destroyer
Correct

Solution (a)
- The United States recently announced the approval of a $285 million sale of a NASAMS air defense system and related equipment to Ukraine.
About NASAMS (National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile System):
- It is a medium-range ground-based air defense system.
- It is designed to engage air targets at low and medium altitudes in all weather conditions.
- It was designed and developed jointly by Raytheon (United States) and Kongsberg Defence and Aerospace (Norway).
- It is used by Norway, the United States, Canada, Chile, Finland, Indonesia, Netherlands, Oman, Qatar, Spain, the United Kingdom, and Ukraine.
- It is best suited to defend important stationary assets, such as key military assets, infrastructure, or cities.
- It has been integrated into the S. National Capital Region’s air defense system since 2005.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Features:
- It is the world’s first networked short- and medium-range air defense system that could integrate with other equipment and air defense systems.
- It features an X-Band, 360-degree phased array air defense radar with a 75-kilometer (approximately 47-mile) range to identify targets.
- The NASAMS is armed with three launchers, each carrying up to six missiles.
- The system can engage 72 targets simultaneously in active and passive modes.
- It uses AIM-120 AMRAAM air-to-air missiles, which have been modified for ground launch and have an engagement range of about 30 kilometers.
Incorrect

Solution (a)
- The United States recently announced the approval of a $285 million sale of a NASAMS air defense system and related equipment to Ukraine.
About NASAMS (National Advanced Surface-to-Air Missile System):
- It is a medium-range ground-based air defense system.
- It is designed to engage air targets at low and medium altitudes in all weather conditions.
- It was designed and developed jointly by Raytheon (United States) and Kongsberg Defence and Aerospace (Norway).
- It is used by Norway, the United States, Canada, Chile, Finland, Indonesia, Netherlands, Oman, Qatar, Spain, the United Kingdom, and Ukraine.
- It is best suited to defend important stationary assets, such as key military assets, infrastructure, or cities.
- It has been integrated into the S. National Capital Region’s air defense system since 2005.
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Features:
- It is the world’s first networked short- and medium-range air defense system that could integrate with other equipment and air defense systems.
- It features an X-Band, 360-degree phased array air defense radar with a 75-kilometer (approximately 47-mile) range to identify targets.
- The NASAMS is armed with three launchers, each carrying up to six missiles.
- The system can engage 72 targets simultaneously in active and passive modes.
- It uses AIM-120 AMRAAM air-to-air missiles, which have been modified for ground launch and have an engagement range of about 30 kilometers.
Question 21 of 35

21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD):
1. It is an apex-level international annual conference of the Indian Navy.
2. It is organised by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea.
3. Its theme of 2023 was “Geopolitical Impacts upon Indo-Pacific Maritime Trade and Connectivity”.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)
- The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) is an apex-level international annual conference of the Indian Navy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It reviews the current geopolitics in the Indo-Pacific region and identifies opportunities, dangers, and problems that are arising.
- It is organised by the National Maritime Foundation (NMF) – the Indian Navy’s knowledge partner and chief organiser of each edition of the IPRD. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- NMF aims to review various maritime trends within the Indo-Pacific region and foster the exchange of solution-oriented dialogue amongst key stakeholders.
- Its theme of 2023 was “Geopolitical Impacts upon Indo-Pacific Maritime Trade and Connectivity”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It was held in 2018, 2019, and 2023 was held in New Delhi. In 2020, it was cancelled due to the Covid-19 outbreak. In 2021, it was held online.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) is an apex-level international annual conference of the Indian Navy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It reviews the current geopolitics in the Indo-Pacific region and identifies opportunities, dangers, and problems that are arising.
- It is organised by the National Maritime Foundation (NMF) – the Indian Navy’s knowledge partner and chief organiser of each edition of the IPRD. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- NMF aims to review various maritime trends within the Indo-Pacific region and foster the exchange of solution-oriented dialogue amongst key stakeholders.
- Its theme of 2023 was “Geopolitical Impacts upon Indo-Pacific Maritime Trade and Connectivity”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It was held in 2018, 2019, and 2023 was held in New Delhi. In 2020, it was cancelled due to the Covid-19 outbreak. In 2021, it was held online.
Question 22 of 35

22. Question
Consider the following statements about Lake Titicaca:
1. It is located on the border of Bolivia and Peru in South America.
2. It is the highest navigable lake globally.
3. It is the largest freshwater lake in South America.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (c)
- Lake Titicaca is located on the border of Bolivia and Peru in South America. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The lake is divided into two nearly distinct subbasins, and these are connected by the Strait of Tiquina.
- It is the highest navigable lake globally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The lake was once seen as a deity by the pre-Columbian people who lived on its shores.
- It is the largest freshwater lake in South America. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- Lake Titicaca is located on the border of Bolivia and Peru in South America. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The lake is divided into two nearly distinct subbasins, and these are connected by the Strait of Tiquina.
- It is the highest navigable lake globally. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The lake was once seen as a deity by the pre-Columbian people who lived on its shores.
- It is the largest freshwater lake in South America. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 23 of 35

23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Sovereign Green Bonds:
1. They are fixed interest-bearing financial instruments issued by private entities only.
2. The proceeds of these bonds are used only for environmentally conscious, climate-resilient projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Solution (b)
- Sovereign Green Bonds are fixed interest-bearing financial instruments issued by any sovereign entity / inter-governmental organization/corporation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Since these bonds are issued by the government entity, they carry nil credit and default risk.
- Green bonds are a good investment vehicle for those who are more concerned with the sustainable social development and greening of brown industries.
- The proceeds of these bonds are used only for environmentally conscious, climate-resilient projects. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- Sovereign Green Bonds are fixed interest-bearing financial instruments issued by any sovereign entity / inter-governmental organization/corporation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Since these bonds are issued by the government entity, they carry nil credit and default risk.
- Green bonds are a good investment vehicle for those who are more concerned with the sustainable social development and greening of brown industries.
- The proceeds of these bonds are used only for environmentally conscious, climate-resilient projects. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 24 of 35

24. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Lead acid batteries are used in automotive starting batteries and backup power systems.
2. Lithium-ion batteries are used in smartphones, laptops, and digital cameras.
3. Nickel-cadmium batteries are used in portable power tools and medical equipment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (c)
- An electric battery is a device that stores electrical energy in the form of chemical energy and releases it as electrical power when needed.
- Lead acid batteries are used in automotive starting batteries and backup power systems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Lithium-ion batteries are used in smartphones, laptops, electric vehicles, portable electronic devices, and digital cameras. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Nickel-cadmium batteries are used in portable power tools, emergency lighting, and medical equipment. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- An electric battery is a device that stores electrical energy in the form of chemical energy and releases it as electrical power when needed.
- Lead acid batteries are used in automotive starting batteries and backup power systems. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Lithium-ion batteries are used in smartphones, laptops, electric vehicles, portable electronic devices, and digital cameras. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Nickel-cadmium batteries are used in portable power tools, emergency lighting, and medical equipment. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 25 of 35

25. Question
Consider the following statements:
1. Both the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 and the Special Marriage Act of 1954 apply to all citizens of India irrespective of their religion, caste, or community.
2. The Hindu Marriage Act provides specific grounds for divorce such as adultery, cruelty, and desertion while the Special Marriage Act provides only one ground for divorce i.e., irretrievable breakdown of the marriage.
3. The Hindu Marriage Act does not require the registration of marriages while the Special Marriage Act mandates the registration of marriages.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)
- The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 applies only to Hindu, Jain, Sikh, and Buddhist communities while the Special Marriage Act of 1954 applies to all citizens of India irrespective of their religion, caste, or community. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Under the Hindu Marriage Act, marriage is a religious sacrament, and the ceremony is conducted according to the religious customs of the parties involved while the Special Marriage Act provides a civil marriage framework, where couples can register their marriage without any religious ceremony.
- The Hindu Marriage Act provides specific grounds for divorce such as adultery, cruelty, and desertion while the Special Marriage Act provides only one ground for divorce i.e., irretrievable breakdown of the marriage. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Hindu Marriage Act provides for several family law provisions, including adoption, maintenance, and guardianship of children while the Special Marriage Act does not cover all those matters.
- The Hindu Marriage Act does not require the registration of marriages while the Special Marriage Act mandates the registration of marriages. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- The Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 applies only to Hindu, Jain, Sikh, and Buddhist communities while the Special Marriage Act of 1954 applies to all citizens of India irrespective of their religion, caste, or community. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Under the Hindu Marriage Act, marriage is a religious sacrament, and the ceremony is conducted according to the religious customs of the parties involved while the Special Marriage Act provides a civil marriage framework, where couples can register their marriage without any religious ceremony.
- The Hindu Marriage Act provides specific grounds for divorce such as adultery, cruelty, and desertion while the Special Marriage Act provides only one ground for divorce i.e., irretrievable breakdown of the marriage. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Hindu Marriage Act provides for several family law provisions, including adoption, maintenance, and guardianship of children while the Special Marriage Act does not cover all those matters.
- The Hindu Marriage Act does not require the registration of marriages while the Special Marriage Act mandates the registration of marriages. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 26 of 35

26. Question
Which of the following are the four fundamental forces of the Universe?
1. Weak force
2. Electromagnetic force
3. Strong force
4. Gravity
Choose the correct code:
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) Only three
- d) All four
Correct

Solution (d)

The four fundamental forces of the Universe:
- Weak force – It is responsible for certain kinds of radioactive decay. For example, the kind of decay measured by archaeologists when they perform radiocarbon dating. It operates only up to distances of 10-18 m – about one-thousandth the size of a proton.
- Electromagnetic force – It is the force responsible for the way matter generates and responds to electricity and magnetism.
- Strong force – It ranges over somewhat longer distances, around 10-15 m. It keeps the nucleus of an atom bound together, rather than flying apart, and sustains the nuclear fusion that powers the sun.
- Gravity – It is the force that pulls us to the surface of the Earth, keeps the planets in orbit around the Sun, and causes the formation of planets, stars, and galaxies.
Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (d)

The four fundamental forces of the Universe:
- Weak force – It is responsible for certain kinds of radioactive decay. For example, the kind of decay measured by archaeologists when they perform radiocarbon dating. It operates only up to distances of 10-18 m – about one-thousandth the size of a proton.
- Electromagnetic force – It is the force responsible for the way matter generates and responds to electricity and magnetism.
- Strong force – It ranges over somewhat longer distances, around 10-15 m. It keeps the nucleus of an atom bound together, rather than flying apart, and sustains the nuclear fusion that powers the sun.
- Gravity – It is the force that pulls us to the surface of the Earth, keeps the planets in orbit around the Sun, and causes the formation of planets, stars, and galaxies.
Hence option d is correct.
Question 27 of 35

27. Question
Consider the following statements about Constantine Joseph Beschi:
1. He was an Italian Jesuit missionary and Tamil scholar.
2. His works include Thembavani and Sathurakarathi.
3. He was appointed to the office of Dewan by Shah Jahan.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (b)
- Constantine Joseph Beschi was an Italian Jesuit missionary and Tamil scholar. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- He also studied Sanskrit, Telugu, and Tamil assiduously and became a master of these languages, especially Tamil.
- His works include Thembavani and Sathurakarathi. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- He was known as Veeramamunivar.
- He was also known as Thairiyanathaswamy, and its translation reads Veeramamunivar.
- He was appointed to the office of Dewan by Chanda Sahib. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Chanda Sahib gifted Veeramamunivar four villages—Bokalur, Malwav, Arasur, and Nullur—north of the Kollidam in Tiruchi district.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- Constantine Joseph Beschi was an Italian Jesuit missionary and Tamil scholar. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- He also studied Sanskrit, Telugu, and Tamil assiduously and became a master of these languages, especially Tamil.
- His works include Thembavani and Sathurakarathi. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- He was known as Veeramamunivar.
- He was also known as Thairiyanathaswamy, and its translation reads Veeramamunivar.
- He was appointed to the office of Dewan by Chanda Sahib. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Chanda Sahib gifted Veeramamunivar four villages—Bokalur, Malwav, Arasur, and Nullur—north of the Kollidam in Tiruchi district.
Question 28 of 35

28. Question
Consider the following statements about Igla-S:
1. It is a man-portable air defence system that can be fired to bring down an enemy aircraft.
2. It was developed by Israel and has range from 500m to 6 km.
3. It can target up to an altitude of 10 km with a speed of 400 meters per second.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (a)
- Igla-S is a man-portable air defence system that can be fired to bring down an enemy aircraft. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It has the capability of bringing down low-flying aircraft.
  It can also identify and neutralize air targets such as cruise missiles and drones.
- It was developed by Russia and has range from 500m to 6 km. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It comprises a 9M342 missile, a 9P522 launching mechanism, a 9V866-2 mobile test station, and a 9F719-2 test set.
- It can target up to an altitude of 3.5 km with a speed of 400 meters per second. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect

Solution (a)
- Igla-S is a man-portable air defence system that can be fired to bring down an enemy aircraft. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It has the capability of bringing down low-flying aircraft.
  It can also identify and neutralize air targets such as cruise missiles and drones.
- It was developed by Russia and has range from 500m to 6 km. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It comprises a 9M342 missile, a 9P522 launching mechanism, a 9V866-2 mobile test station, and a 9F719-2 test set.
- It can target up to an altitude of 3.5 km with a speed of 400 meters per second. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Question 29 of 35

29. Question
Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. There are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
2. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
3. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) All three
- d) None
Correct

Solution (c)
- Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are the more vulnerable groups among tribal communities.
- Criteria for Identifying PVTGs:
- Pre-agricultural level of technology
- Low level of literacy
- Economic backwardness
- A declining or stagnant population
- There are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. It has been categorized as the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Of these, the highest number of PVTGs are found in Odisha (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh (12).
- Irular of Tamil Nadu and Konda Reddi tribes of Telangana are included in the list of PVTGs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory – Andaman and Nicobar Island. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (c)
- Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are the more vulnerable groups among tribal communities.
- Criteria for Identifying PVTGs:
- Pre-agricultural level of technology
- Low level of literacy
- Economic backwardness
- A declining or stagnant population
- There are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. It has been categorized as the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Of these, the highest number of PVTGs are found in Odisha (13), followed by Andhra Pradesh (12).
- Irular of Tamil Nadu and Konda Reddi tribes of Telangana are included in the list of PVTGs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory – Andaman and Nicobar Island. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Question 30 of 35

30. Question
Consider the following statements about Casgevy
1. It is a gene-editing therapy designed to treat leprosy.
2. It utilizes the advanced CRISPR-Cas 9 tool for editing genes.
Choose the correct code:
- a) 1 only
- b) 2 only
- c) Both 1 and 2
- d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct

Solution (b)
- Casgevy is a gene-editing therapy designed to treat sickle cell anaemia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It works by editing the patient’s genes to revive fetal haemoglobin, which is normally switched off after birth. This compensates for the defective haemoglobin in sickle cells, reducing the disease’s severe symptoms and complications.
- Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the dominant form of hemoglobin present in the fetus during gestation.
- It utilizes the advanced CRISPR-Cas 9 tool for editing genes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect

Solution (b)
- Casgevy is a gene-editing therapy designed to treat sickle cell anaemia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It works by editing the patient’s genes to revive fetal haemoglobin, which is normally switched off after birth. This compensates for the defective haemoglobin in sickle cells, reducing the disease’s severe symptoms and complications.
- Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is the dominant form of hemoglobin present in the fetus during gestation.
- It utilizes the advanced CRISPR-Cas 9 tool for editing genes. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Question 31 of 35

31. Question
90, 180, 12, 50, 100, 200, ? , 3, 50, 4, 25, 2, 6, 30, 3
- a) 150
- b) 175
- c) 225
- d) 250
Correct

Solution (a)

Clearly, 90 = 30 x 3, 180 = 6 x 30, 12 = 2 x 6, 50 = 25 x 2, 100 = 4 x 25, 200 = 50 x 4.

So, missing term = 3 x 50 = 150.

Incorrect

Solution (a)

Clearly, 90 = 30 x 3, 180 = 6 x 30, 12 = 2 x 6, 50 = 25 x 2, 100 = 4 x 25, 200 = 50 x 4.

So, missing term = 3 x 50 = 150.
Question 32 of 35

32. Question
The greatest number which will divide: 4003, 4126 and 4249, leaving the same remainder in each case
- a) 43
- b) 41
- c) 45
- d) None of the above
Correct

Solution (b)

Rule- Greatest number with which if we divide P, Q, R and it leaves same remainder in each case. Number is of form = HCF of (P – Q), (P – R)

Therefore, HCF of (4126 – 4003), (4249 – 4003) = HCF of 123, 246 = 41.[Taken for Positive result].

Detailed Explanation:

The numbers can be written as,

4003 = AX + P where P = Remainder

4126 = BX + P

4249 = CX + P

(B – A) × X = 123

(C – B) × X = 246

Thus the X is factor of 123 and 246.

Incorrect

Solution (b)

Rule- Greatest number with which if we divide P, Q, R and it leaves same remainder in each case. Number is of form = HCF of (P – Q), (P – R)

Therefore, HCF of (4126 – 4003), (4249 – 4003) = HCF of 123, 246 = 41.[Taken for Positive result].

Detailed Explanation:

The numbers can be written as,

4003 = AX + P where P = Remainder

4126 = BX + P

4249 = CX + P

(B – A) × X = 123

(C – B) × X = 246

Thus the X is factor of 123 and 246.
Question 33 of 35

33. Question
In the following number series a wrong number is given. Find out the wrong number.

1, 3, 10, 21, 64, 129, 356, 777
- a) 129
- b) 21
- c) 10
- d) 356
Correct

Solution (d)

The given pattern is,

2^nd term → 1*2+1 = 3

3^rd term → 3*3+1 = 10

4^th term → 10*2+1 = 21

5^th term → 21*3+1 = 64

6^th term → 64*2+1 = 129

7^th term → 129*3+1= 388

So, 7^th term 356 is wrong and must be replaced by 388.

Incorrect

Solution (d)

The given pattern is,

2^nd term → 1*2+1 = 3

3^rd term → 3*3+1 = 10

4^th term → 10*2+1 = 21

5^th term → 21*3+1 = 64

6^th term → 64*2+1 = 129

7^th term → 129*3+1= 388

So, 7^th term 356 is wrong and must be replaced by 388.
Question 34 of 35

34. Question
Find the number to be present in the place of?

12, 13, 25, 38, ?, 101, 164
- a) 63
- b) 72
- c) 85
- d) 65
Correct

Solution (a)

It is based on Fibonacci series

The solution of the series is as follows.

12

13

25 = 12 + 13

38 = 13 + 25

63 = 25 + 38

101 = 38 + 63

164 = 101 + 63

Incorrect

Solution (a)

It is based on Fibonacci series

The solution of the series is as follows.

12

13

25 = 12 + 13

38 = 13 + 25

63 = 25 + 38

101 = 38 + 63

164 = 101 + 63
Question 35 of 35

35. Question
Find the missing term: 5760, 960, ?, 48, 16, 8
- a) 120
- b) 160
- c) 192
- d) 240
Correct

Solution (c)

The pattern is ÷ 6, ÷ 5, ÷ 4, ÷ 3, ÷ 2

So, missing term = 960 ÷ 5= 192

Incorrect

Solution (c)

The pattern is ÷ 6, ÷ 5, ÷ 4, ÷ 3, ÷ 2

So, missing term = 960 ÷ 5= 192

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