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Syllabus

• Prelims – International Relations

Context: In the recently concluded 12th Session of the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group (ITWG) on Animal Genetic Resources (AnGR) at Rome during 18 -20 January 2023, India was elected as Vice-Chair and represented Asia and Pacific region.

About WG AnGR:

• The Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO)’s Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA) established the Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture at its Seventh Regular Session, in 1997.
• Its purpose is to:
  • review the situation and issues related to agrobiodiversity in the area of animal genetic resources for food and agriculture and advise and make recommendations to the Commission on these matters;
  • consider the progress made in implementing the Commission’s programme of work on animal genetic resources for food and agriculture as well as any other matters referred to it by the Commission;
  • report to the Commission on its activities.

About Food and Agricultural Organization:

• FAO is a United Nations specialized agency that leads international efforts to end hunger.
• Every year on October 16th, the world celebrates World Food Day.
  • The day commemorates the anniversary of the FAO’s founding in 1945.
• It is one of the United Nations food aid organizations based in Rome (Italy).
• The World Food Programme and the International Fund for Agricultural Development (IFAD) are its sister organizations.

Flagship Publications of FAO:

• The State of World Fisheries and Aquaculture (SOFIA).
• The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO).
• The State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World (SOFI).
• The State of Food and Agriculture (SOFA).
• The State of Agricultural Commodity Markets (SOCO).

About Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):

• The Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture.
• It aims to reach international consensus on policies for the sustainable use and conservation of genetic resources for food and agriculture and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits derived from their use.
• The Commission initiates, oversees and guides the preparation of global sectoral and cross-sectoral assessments of genetic resources for food and agriculture.
• As of July 2014, 178 countries and The European Union are Members of the Commission.
• Membership of the Commission, which is open to all Members of FAO, shall be composed of those Members which notify the Director-General in writing of their desire to become members.
• Membership of the Commission does not place any financial burden on the Government.
• The Commission, so far, has established the following intergovernmental technical working groups:
  • Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Animal Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AnGR)
  • Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Aquatic Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG AqGR)
  • Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Forest Genetic Resources (WG FGR)
  • Intergovernmental Technical Working Group on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (WG PGR)

Source: PIB

Previous Year Question

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Science and Technology

Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is planning to launch the Aditya-L1 mission by June or July 2023.

About Aditya-L1 Mission:

• Aditya-L1 is the first observatory-class space-based solar mission from India.
• A satellite around the L1 point has the major advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without occultation/eclipses.
• This position provides a greater advantage of observing solar activities continuously.
• Aditya-L1 carries seven payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layers of the Sun (the corona) using electromagnetic and particle detectors.
• Four payloads directly view the Sun from the unique vantage point of L1, and the remaining three payloads carry out in-situ studies of particles and fields at the Lagrange point L1.
• The Aditya-L1 mission will be inserted in a halo orbit around the L1 point, which is about 1.5 million km from Earth.

Aditya L1 Payloads: The 1,500 kg satellite carries seven science payloads with diverse objectives.

• Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC): To study the diagnostic parameters of solar corona and dynamics and origin of Coronal Mass Ejections, magnetic field measurement of solar corona.
• Solar Ultraviolet Imaging Telescope (SUIT): To image the spatially resolved Solar Photosphere and Chromosphere in near Ultraviolet (200-400 nm) and measure solar irradiance variations.
• Aditya Solar wind Particle Experiment (ASPEX): To study the variation of solar wind properties as well as its distribution and spectral characteristics.
• Plasma Analyser Package for Aditya (PAPA): To understand the composition of solar wind and its energy distribution
• Solar Low Energy X-ray Spectrometer (SoLEXS): To monitor the X-ray flares for studying the heating mechanism of the solar corona .
• High Energy L1 Orbiting X-ray Spectrometer (HEL1OS): To observe the dynamic events in the solar corona and provide an estimate of the energy used to accelerate the particles during the eruptive events.
• Magnetometer: To measure the magnitude and nature of the Interplanetary Magnetic Field.

Source:   The Hindu

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Q.2) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021)

1. Distance among stellar bodies do not change
2. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change
3. Light always travels in straight line
4. Speed of light is always same

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Science and Technology

Context: Recently, the US President announced that he would send M1 Abrams tanks to Ukraine.

About M1 Abrams:

• The M1 Abrams main battle tank was developed by Chrysler Defence.
• Production of the M1 started in 1980 and ceased in 1992.
• This MBT was named in honour to the General Abrams, commander of US forces during Vietnam War.
• The M1 Abrams MBT replaced the M60 Patton in service with US Army.
• The M1 is informally known as “The Beast,” “Dracula” and “Whispering Death,” referring to its impressive firepower and quiet operation.
• The M1 Abrams has a modern fire control system with a high first hit probability.
• It can destroy tank-size targets at a range of 2 km while firing on the move.

Source: Indian Express

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news? (2018)

1. An Israeli radar system
2. India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
3. An American anti-missile system
4. A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Miscellaneous

Context: The President of India Approved the conferment of 43 persons for Jeevan Raksha Padak Series of Awards-2022 out of which four are posthumous.

About Jeevan Raksha Padak 2022:

• It’s a series of awards given to a person for a meritorious act of human nature in saving the life of a person.
• It is given in three categories, namely,
  • Sarvottam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for conspicuous courage in saving life under circumstances of very great danger to the life of the rescuer.
  • Uttam Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of great danger to the life of the rescuer.
  • Jeevan Raksha Padak: Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life under circumstances of grave bodily injury to the rescuer.
• The Awards Committee makes its recommendations to the Prime Minister and the President.

Conditions of Eligibility:

• Awarded for courage and promptitude in saving life from drowning, fire, rescue operations in mines, rescuer displayed in an act or a series of acts of human nature in saving life from drowning, fire rescue operations in mines.
• The medal may be awarded posthumously.

Eligible Categories:

• Persons of either sex in all walks of life, other than the members of the Armed Forces, Police Forces and of recognized Fire Services, if the act is performed by them in the course of duty.

Source: PIB 

Previous Year Question

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct? (2021)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Art and Culture

Context: The Union government choosing to confer Padma Shri on him in the art category is an honour to the Etikoppaka wooden toy craft, and it will go a long way in promoting the art.

About Etikoppaka Wooden Toy Craft:

• The toys are made with lacquer colour and are traditionally known as Etikoppaka toys or Etikoppaka Bommalu.
• The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating.
• The toys are made out of wood and are coloured with natural dyes derived from seeds, lacquer, bark, roots and leaves.
• The wood used to make the toys is soft in nature and the art of toy making is also known as Turned wood Lacquer craft.
• While making the Etikoppaka toys, lac, a colourless resinous secretion of numerous insects, is used.
• The toys are also called as lacquer toys because of application of lacquer coating.

• Etikoppaka is a picturesque village on the banks of Varaha River in Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
• The success for the Etikoppaka toys is thought to have come from the Rajas of Vizianagaram, who migrated to this region around the same time and acted as catalysts as landlords.

GI tag:

• Etikoppaka Toys have obtained their GI tag under Handicrafts category in the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• Agricultural, natural or manufactured goods are registered as Geographical Indications (GI) by the Geographical Indications Registry as per the provisions of the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999.

Source:                    The Hindu

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2021)

1. dance forms of Northwest India
2. musical instruments
3. pre-historic cave paintings
4. tribal languages

Q.2) Building ‘Kalyana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of (2019)

1. Chalukya
2. Chandela
3. Rashtrakuta
4. Vijayanagara

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Syllabus

• Prelims: Governance

In News: Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation has launched a massive district outreach program in all the districts of the country through a revamped Nidhi Aapke Nikat program.

About the Programme:

• A District Outreach Program for expanding its presence in more than 685 districts of the country – to strengthen the relationship between the organization and its stakeholders
• Aim: To reach all the districts of the country on the same day i.e. 27th of every month.

Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO)

• It is a government organisation that manages the provident fund and pension accounts for the workforce engaged in the organized sector in India.
• It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
• Administered by: Ministry of Labour and Employment.

News Source: PIB

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Syllabus

• Prelims: Governance

In News: The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) and all its field formations observed the International Customs Day, 2023 on 27^th January.

Theme: “Nurturing the Next Generation: Promoting a Culture of Knowledge-sharing and Professional Pride in Customs”

Theme is given by: World Customs Organisation (WCO)

• The World Customs Organization (WCO) is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in Brussels, Belgium.
• The WCO is noted for its work in areas covering the development of international conventions, instruments, and tools on topics such as commodity classification, valuation, rules of origin, collection of customs revenue, supply chain security, international trade facilitation, customs enforcement activities, combating counterfeiting in support of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR), drugs enforcement, illegal weapons trading, integrity promotion, and delivering sustainable capacity building to assist with customs reforms and modernization.
• The WCO maintains the international Harmonized System (HS) goods nomenclature, and administers the technical aspects of the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreements on Customs Valuation and Rules of Origin.
• The Harmonized System Committee of the WCO undertakes a periodic review of the HS to take account of changes in technology and patterns in international trade, and recommends amendments to the HS.

Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC)

• A part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
• The Central Board of Excise and Customs (CBEC) was renamed as the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) in 2018 after the roll out of Goods and Services Tax (GST).
• It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST).
  • GST Law comprising
    • Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
    • State Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
    • Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017,
    • Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017
    • Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act, 2017.

News Source: PIB

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Syllabus

• Prelims: Biodiversity

In News: Researchers from Pune have discovered a low-level basalt plateau, an isolated flat-topped steep hill, in the Western Ghats in Maharashtra.

• Recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families
• Registered a floristic inventory which they claim to be important from the conservation point of view, considering the rampant urbanisation.
• Location: Manjare village

The Details:

• Three types of rock outcrops are known in the biodiversity hotspot of Western Ghats — lateritic outcrops at high (HLF) and low altitude (LLF), and basalt outcrops at high altitudes (BM). Now a low-altitude basalt outcrop has been found in Murbad district, about 100 kilometres from Mumbai.
• Rock outcrops are landscape habitats with more areas of rock surface exposure than surrounding areas.
• It emerges when the surface soil and other materials wear off, exposing the parent rock surface. The outcrop is identified if the area has more than 50 per cent of such rocks.
• Besides the outcrops, the team also recorded 76 plant species belonging to 24 families, mainly from Poaceae, Leguminosae and Cyperaceae ranges.
• What stands out is:
  • It is the first time that such plants were found during research on floral biodiversity.
  • The discovery holds significance as flora growing on these rocks experience multiple environmental stresses.
  • As they grow among rocks, the flora faces a harsher environment compared to other species growing elsewhere
  • What are the Challenges?
    • Limited soil, restricting their nutrient availability
    • The lack of soil also reduces water retention capacity, which puts additional water stress on the plants
    • Face challenges during peak summers: In summer, the rock surfaces have higher temperatures than soil or other surfaces, making it difficult for these species to survive.
  • But despite multiple stresses, these plants are found thriving which shows that these plants have adapted to their surroundings and indicates that a certain level of endemism also exists.

Kas Plateau

• Locally called as ‘Kas Pathar’ or ‘Plateau of Flowers’.
• A UNESCO world natural heritage site in Maharashtra, is a lateritic plateau (composed of mainly laterite rock, rich in iron and aluminium content) that hosts many endemic wild flowering plants.
• Location: 25 Km away from Satara District H.Q. & 20 Km away from Northern part of Koyana Sanctuary.
• The major portion of the plateau is Reserve Forest.
• Kas plateau is listed under the Protection Working Circle.
• Kas lake (built 100 years ago) is a perennial source of Water supply for western part of Satara city by gravity.

News Source: Down to Earth

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Syllabus

• Prelims: Biodiversity

In News: One of the largest lakes in the world, Lake Victoria, has been suffering from a variety of unsustainable human activities over the last five decades. Delhi-based non-profit Centre for Science and Environment and National Environment Management Council (NEMC), Tanzania have jointly released a report on managing its water quality.

About Lake Victoria:

• Lake Victoria and its flora and fauna support the livelihoods of about 45 million people.
• The ecologically unique water body is shared by three countries — Tanzania (51 per cent), Uganda (44 per cent) and Kenya (5 per cent).
• Africa’s largest lake by area, the world’s largest tropical lake, and the world’s second-largest freshwater lake by surface area after Lake Superior in North America.
• Occupies a shallow depression in Africa.
• The lake was renamed after Queen Victoria by the explorer John Hanning Speke, the first Briton to document it in 1858, while on an expedition with Richard Francis Burton

Findings & Suggestions of the Report

• Identified Mwanza city as a hotspot, contributing a substantial pollution load in the form of industrial effluents, domestic sewage and dumping of solid waste.
• It also recognised two rivers — the Mirongo and the Nyashishi — as the major water bodies carrying domestic and industrial pollution loads, respectively.
• Results of the sampling exercise showed substantial pollutant load in the rivers, which may be getting discharged in the lake.
• The water from the Nyashishi is extensively used for agricultural purposes before it meets the lake.
  • The focus on the Nyashishi should now be doubled as any pollutant in the river, along with affecting the water quality of Lake Victoria, may also adversely impact crops and human health.

News Source: Down to Earth

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Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: The Benegal Committee and the Justice Mukul Mudgal Committee of 2013 had both suggested moving away from censorship towards age-based rating/classification norms for films.

About Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC):

• Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a Statutory body under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the Cinematograph Act, 1952.
• It ensures the good and healthy entertainment in accordance with the provisions of the Cinematograph Act 1952 and the Cinematograph (Certification) Rules 1983.
• Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they have been certified by CBFC.
• The Board consists of non-official members and a Chairperson (all of whom are appointed by the Union Government) and functions with headquarters at Mumbai.
• It has nine Regional Offices at Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Bangalore, Thiruvananthapuram, Hyderabad, New Delhi, Cuttack and Guwahati.
• The Regional Offices are assisted in the examination of films by Advisory Panels.
• The Union Government nominates the Members of the panels by drawing people from different walks of life for a period of two years.
• The Certification process is in accordance with The Cinematograph Act, 1952, The Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 1983, and the guidelines issued by the Central government u/s 5 (B).

About Censorship:

• Censorship is the suppression of speech, public communication, or other information.
• This may be done on the basis that such material is considered objectionable, harmful, sensitive, or “inconvenient”.
• Censorship can be conducted by governments, private institutions and other controlling bodies.

Legal backing to Censorship in India:

The Cinematograph Act, of 1952:

• The legislation exclusively deals with the censorship of movies in India with respect to certain rules and regulations established by law.
• The certification, Censor Board establishment, and scope of such Board is provided in this legislation.
• The practice of censoring movies to remove any objectionable material by the Censor Board has been followed in India.
• It is to make the movie suitable for the target audience.
• The viewership is based on the certificate issued to every movie prescribing the audience that can watch the movie.

Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021:

• Digital media is brought under the ambit of Section 69(A) of the Information Technology Act, of 2000 which gives takedown powers to the government.
• The section allows the Centre to block public access to an intermediary “in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, defence of India, security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States or public order or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognisable offence relating to above”.

Digital Media:

• It covers digitised content that can be transmitted over the internet or computer networks.
• It includes intermediaries such as Twitter, Facebook, YouTube.
• It includes publishers of news and current affairs content and also curators of such content.
• Publishers of news and current affairs content cover online papers, news portals, news agencies and news aggregators.

Significance of Censorship:

Films:

• Films have always been considered the most powerful medium of expression. It is stationarily accepted that cinema is a form of speech & expression.
• They may affect public attitudes and behavior in numerous ways i.e., in negative or positive ways.
• Removal of materials that are obscene or otherwise considered morally questionable.
• Pornography, for example, is often censored under this rationale.

Online platforms:

• Increasing level of poor, offensive and abusive content is sometimes spread in the name of freedom of expression.
• With the deeper reach of smartphones, children and youth are being misled by such content.
• Increasing digital crimes like radicalisation, terrorist recruitment, digital hacking, child pornography, etc.

Religion Censorship:

• Religious censorship is the means by which any material considered objectionable by a certain religion is removed.

Political Censorship :

• Political censorship occurs when governments hold back information from their citizens.
• This is often done to exert control over the populace and prevent free expression that might foment rebellion.

Military Censorship:

• Military censorship is the process of keeping military intelligence and tactics confidential and away from the enemy.
• This is used to counter espionage.

Challenges associated with the Censorship:

• Against the Natural justice and freedom of speech: Natural justice is a fundamental principle in public law when decisions affect fundamental rights such as the freedom of speech.
  • The Supreme Court of India on various occasions has recognised that the right to receive and impart information is implicit in free speech.
• Selective targeting: Most arguments like abusive language, against the cultural ethos, are either vague or irrelevant as they often depict day-to-day life.
• Curb Freedom of Artistic Expressions:
  • The present norms put a curb on the Freedom to Artistic Expressions under Article 19.
• Exploitation of emergency powers: The recent blocking has been made under Rule 16(3) of the IT Rules and Section 69(A) of the IT Act, 2000 which allows for “emergency blocking”.
  • However, the term “emergency” itself is not legislatively defined, but following the dictionary, the meaning would mean “a dangerous situation requiring immediate action”.
  • It permits an expedited process that weakens the already minimal checks by bypassing a committee and eliminating the opportunity to be heard.
  • We have also been witnessing increased use of this emergency power,
• Rising Intolerance and Populist measure: It has also been alleged that the rules will be more misused than for real regulation.
  • There are instances when the government tried to curb certain Anti- Government Agendas while ignoring populist fake news.

Way Forward:

There are numerous landmark judgements in this regard which have mostly arisen out of a conflict between the fundamental right to speech and expression and the restrictions imposed in consonance with the restrictions enshrined in the Constitution for the right. It is the obligation of the state to protect the fundamental rights of its citizens and every action while sanctioning the censorship shall be equivalent to reasonable restrictions.

Source: Indian Express

Previous Year Question

Q.1) Which of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? (2021)

1. A committed judiciary
2. Centralization of powers
3. Elected government
4. Separation of powers

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):

1. It is the only permanent intergovernmental body that specifically addresses all components of biological diversity for food and agriculture.
2. Membership of the Commission is open to all Members of FAO.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) What is “M1 Abrams”, sometimes seen in the news ?

1. An Israeli satellite system
2. UAE’s indigenous ballistic missile programme
3. An American main battle tank
4. None of the above

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is/are correct?

1. It works under the Department of Economic Affairs of the Ministry of Finance.
2. It deals with the tasks of formulation of policy concerning levy and collection of customs, central excise duties, Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) and Integrated GST (IGST).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 28th January 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – a

Q.3) – c