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Consider the following statements regarding the declaration of certain wild animals as ‘vermin’ in India:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. | The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. | The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. |
Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ) in India:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| The National Board of Wildlife has decided that the activities in the ESA would be of regulatory nature rather than prohibitive nature, unless and otherwise so required. | An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002. | The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 percent of the total area of the Western Ghats, which is roughly 60,000 square kilometers, to be declared as an eco-sensitive area (ESA). |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| The National Board of Wildlife has decided that the activities in the ESA would be of regulatory nature rather than prohibitive nature, unless and otherwise so required. | An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002. | The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 percent of the total area of the Western Ghats, which is roughly 60,000 square kilometers, to be declared as an eco-sensitive area (ESA). |
Which of the following categories are covered under the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2022?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Greenhouse gas emissions (40 per cent of the overall score) | Renewable energy (20 per cent) | Energy use (20 per cent) | Climate policy (20 per cent) |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Greenhouse gas emissions (40 per cent of the overall score) | Renewable energy (20 per cent) | Energy use (20 per cent) | Climate policy (20 per cent) |
Recently seen in the news, Puntius denisonii or the Denison barb is:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Denison Barb:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Denison Barb:
Consider the following statements about the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| It is an intergovernmental organisation formed/established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. | The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to it. | All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership. It is not a United Nations body. India has been its founding member since 2012. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| It is an intergovernmental organisation formed/established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. | The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to it. | All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership. It is not a United Nations body. India has been its founding member since 2012. |
Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Black Bear and Sloth Bear:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus), and sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) are currently listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. | The gall bladder of the Asiatic black bear is poached in high numbers for use in traditional medicine, while sloth bears are killed for their skin and claws. | Asiatic Black Bears hibernate through the winter months.
The sloth bear usually spends the day snoozing in a cave, preferring one near a river bank and unlike other bears, it doesn’t hibernate but does have a period of comparative inactivity during the monsoon. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
| The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus), and sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) are currently listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. | The gall bladder of the Asiatic black bear is poached in high numbers for use in traditional medicine, while sloth bears are killed for their skin and claws. | Asiatic Black Bears hibernate through the winter months.
The sloth bear usually spends the day snoozing in a cave, preferring one near a river bank and unlike other bears, it doesn’t hibernate but does have a period of comparative inactivity during the monsoon. |
Tarballs, that have recently have resurfaced on the beaches of Mumbai and Goa, sometimes seen in news are:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Tarballs:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Tarballs:
Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. | They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments.
Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. | They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments.
Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools. |
The terms E12 and E15 recently in news are related to:
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Emission standards for biofuels:
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Emission standards for biofuels:
Consider the following statements with respect to Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG):
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG.
It has a pure methane content of over 90%. |
CBG has a calorific value similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel. | The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades or pipelines to retail outlets. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG.
It has a pure methane content of over 90%. |
CBG has a calorific value similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel. | The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades or pipelines to retail outlets. |
Which one of the following statements regarding Nurdles is not correct?
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| a) | b) | c) | d) |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Nurdles are highly persistent pollutants that continue to circulate in ocean currents. | Nurdles are tiny plastic pellets that form the raw materials of most of today’s plastic products and are made of polyethylene, polypropylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride and other plastics. | Nurdles act as rafts for harmful bacteria such as E coli and Cholera. | Nurdles act as toxic sponges attracting many toxic chemicals on its surface. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| a) | b) | c) | d) |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
| Nurdles are highly persistent pollutants that continue to circulate in ocean currents. | Nurdles are tiny plastic pellets that form the raw materials of most of today’s plastic products and are made of polyethylene, polypropylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride and other plastics. | Nurdles act as rafts for harmful bacteria such as E coli and Cholera. | Nurdles act as toxic sponges attracting many toxic chemicals on its surface. |
Consider the following statements regarding very short-lived halogenated substances (VSLS):
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| They are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere. | Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is increasing. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| They are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere. | Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is increasing. |
Ecological Threat Report 2021 has been published by:
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Solution (b)
Explanation:
With reference to the Earth shot Prize, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is awarded for contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals. | It is an award set up by Prince William and the Royal Foundation, the charity founded by the Duke and Duchess of Cambridge, and historian David Attenborough (Winner of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2019). | The Earthshot Prize 2021 Indian Winner: ‘Clean our Air’ Takachar, India: A portable machine created to turn agricultural waste into fertilizer so that farmers do not burn their fields and cause air pollution. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| It is awarded for contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals. | It is an award set up by Prince William and the Royal Foundation, the charity founded by the Duke and Duchess of Cambridge, and historian David Attenborough (Winner of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2019). | The Earthshot Prize 2021 Indian Winner: ‘Clean our Air’ Takachar, India: A portable machine created to turn agricultural waste into fertilizer so that farmers do not burn their fields and cause air pollution. |
Montreal Process, Near East Process, Bhopal–India Process are related to:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
According to India’s Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, which of the following wastes has/have been prohibited for import?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Waste edible fats and oils of vegetable or animal origin | Household waste | Critical care medical equipment |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| Waste edible fats and oils of vegetable or animal origin | Household waste | Critical care medical equipment |
Consider the following statements with reference to Society of Integrated Coastal Zone Management (SICOM):
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| SICOM is the National Project Management Unit of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project. | Its objective is to check violations to CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) through improved technology-enabled enforcement. | It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| SICOM is the National Project Management Unit of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project. | Its objective is to check violations to CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) through improved technology-enabled enforcement. | It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. |
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Strategic Approach to International Chemicals Management (SAICM)’:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| It is a part of the United Nations Environment Programme. | It was adopted by the First International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM1) on 6 February 2006 in Dubai. | ‘Project Lead in Paint’ is an initiative of SAICM. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| It is a part of the United Nations Environment Programme. | It was adopted by the First International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM1) on 6 February 2006 in Dubai. | ‘Project Lead in Paint’ is an initiative of SAICM. |
In the context of environmental conservation, Glowing Glowing Gone campaign has been launched to:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Glowing Glowing Gone Campaign:
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Glowing Glowing Gone Campaign:
Match the following tiger reserves with the states they belong to.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Namdapha: Arunachal Pradesh | Achanakmar: Chhattisgarh | Mukandra Hills: Rajasthan | Sariska: Rajasthan |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
| Incorrect | Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Namdapha: Arunachal Pradesh | Achanakmar: Chhattisgarh | Mukandra Hills: Rajasthan | Sariska: Rajasthan |
Consider the following statements regarding ‘World Forest Congress’
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| WFC serves as a forum for governments, civil society and private sector to exchange views and to formulate recommendations for implementation at national, regional and global levels | It has been held (generally every six years) under Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) since 1954. Theme for this year was “Building a Green, Healthy and Resilient Future” | Assuring the Future of Forests with Integrated Risk Management (AFFIRM) Mechanism to enable countries better understand, manage and affront forest fires and Sustaining an Abundance of Forest Ecosystems (SAFE) initiative were launched at WFC held at Seoul recently |
Context – World Forestry Congress adopted Seoul Forest Declaration recently
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| WFC serves as a forum for governments, civil society and private sector to exchange views and to formulate recommendations for implementation at national, regional and global levels | It has been held (generally every six years) under Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) since 1954. Theme for this year was “Building a Green, Healthy and Resilient Future” | Assuring the Future of Forests with Integrated Risk Management (AFFIRM) Mechanism to enable countries better understand, manage and affront forest fires and Sustaining an Abundance of Forest Ecosystems (SAFE) initiative were launched at WFC held at Seoul recently |
Context – World Forestry Congress adopted Seoul Forest Declaration recently
With reference to ‘Places of Worship Act of 1991’, consider the following statements
Select the correct statement(s)
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| The act provides for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947. However, Section 5 stipulates that the Act shall not apply to the Ramjanmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and to any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. | Section 4(2) says any legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. The proviso to this subsection saves suits, appeals and legal proceedings that are pending on the date of commencement of the Act, if they pertain to the conversion of the religious character of a place of worship after the cut-off date. |
Context – Supreme Court will hear a challenge to the order of a civil court in Varanasi directing a videographic survey of the Maa Shringar Gauri Sthal in the Kashi Vishwanath temple-Gyanvapi mosque complex.
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Incorrect | Correct |
| The act provides for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947. However, Section 5 stipulates that the Act shall not apply to the Ramjanmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and to any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. | Section 4(2) says any legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. The proviso to this subsection saves suits, appeals and legal proceedings that are pending on the date of commencement of the Act, if they pertain to the conversion of the religious character of a place of worship after the cut-off date. |
Context – Supreme Court will hear a challenge to the order of a civil court in Varanasi directing a videographic survey of the Maa Shringar Gauri Sthal in the Kashi Vishwanath temple-Gyanvapi mosque complex.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Startup Advisory Council’
Select the correct statement(s)
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The functions of NSAC are –
1. Suggests measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students, promote innovation in all sectors of the economy across the country. 2. Suggests measures to facilitate public organisations to assimilate innovation with a view to improving public service delivery, promote creation, protection and commercialization of intellectual property rights. 3. Suggest measures to make it easier to start, operate, grow and exit businesses by reducing regulatory compliances and costs, promote ease of access to capital for startups. |
Chairman of NSAC is the Minister for Commerce & Industry and the Convener of the Council is the Joint Secretary of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. |
Context – Minister of Commerce and Industry launched the NavIC Grand Challenge at National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) meeting.
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The functions of NSAC are –
1. Suggests measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students, promote innovation in all sectors of the economy across the country. 2. Suggests measures to facilitate public organisations to assimilate innovation with a view to improving public service delivery, promote creation, protection and commercialization of intellectual property rights. 3. Suggest measures to make it easier to start, operate, grow and exit businesses by reducing regulatory compliances and costs, promote ease of access to capital for startups. |
Chairman of NSAC is the Minister for Commerce & Industry and the Convener of the Council is the Joint Secretary of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. |
Context – Minister of Commerce and Industry launched the NavIC Grand Challenge at National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) meeting.
‘Macolin Convention’ seen in news recently is related to
Solution (d)
The Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions, known as the Macolin Convention, is a multilateral treaty aimed at checking match-fixing. It came into force on September 1, 2019.
Context – The 12th meeting of Interpol’s Match-Fixing Task Force (IMFTF), in which the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was one of the participants, concluded with a call for harmonised global efforts to curb competition manipulation.
Solution (d)
The Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions, known as the Macolin Convention, is a multilateral treaty aimed at checking match-fixing. It came into force on September 1, 2019.
Context – The 12th meeting of Interpol’s Match-Fixing Task Force (IMFTF), in which the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was one of the participants, concluded with a call for harmonised global efforts to curb competition manipulation.
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kanheri Caves’:
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Kanheri consists of excavations primarily undertaken during the Hinayana phase but also has several examples of the Mahayana stylistic architecture as well as few printings of the Vajrayana order. | Kanheri was mentioned in the travelogues of foreign travellers. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE and later by several other travellers | Kanheri flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas and Silaharas and through donations made by the wealthy merchants of the region. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it is the only centre where a continuous progression of Buddhist faith and architecture is observed as an unbroken legacy right from 2nd century CE (cave no. 2 stupa) to 9th century CE |
Context – Ministry of Tourism inaugurated public amenities at Kanheri Caves.
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Incorrect |
| Kanheri consists of excavations primarily undertaken during the Hinayana phase but also has several examples of the Mahayana stylistic architecture as well as few printings of the Vajrayana order. | Kanheri was mentioned in the travelogues of foreign travellers. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE and later by several other travellers | Kanheri flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas and Silaharas and through donations made by the wealthy merchants of the region. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it is the only centre where a continuous progression of Buddhist faith and architecture is observed as an unbroken legacy right from 2nd century CE (cave no. 2 stupa) to 9th century CE |
Context – Ministry of Tourism inaugurated public amenities at Kanheri Caves.
For each hour a watch is going slow by 30 seconds. Now the time is 7 a.m., when the clock is set right. What will be the time in watch when the actual time is 7 p.m.?
Solution (a)
30 seconds lost in 1 hr.
So, in 12 hours, time lost = 30 × 12 = 360 seconds = 6 minutes
So, when actual time at 7:00 PM watch will show 6:54 PM
Solution (a)
30 seconds lost in 1 hr.
So, in 12 hours, time lost = 30 × 12 = 360 seconds = 6 minutes
So, when actual time at 7:00 PM watch will show 6:54 PM
A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o’clock, the true time is:
Solution (c)
Watch was set right at 7 a.m.
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. =9hrs 15min=37/4 hrs.
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock.
Thus, 37/720 hrs of this clock=1/20hrs.of the correct clock.
Therefore 37/4 hrs of this clock=1/20×720/37×37/4hrs of the correct clock.
= 9 hrs. of the correct clock.
Therefore,9 hrs. 15 min of this clock = 9 hrs of the correct clock
Hence the correct time is 9 hrs after 7 a.m. i.e., 4 p.m.
Solution (c)
Watch was set right at 7 a.m.
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. =9hrs 15min=37/4 hrs.
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock.
Thus, 37/720 hrs of this clock=1/20hrs.of the correct clock.
Therefore 37/4 hrs of this clock=1/20×720/37×37/4hrs of the correct clock.
= 9 hrs. of the correct clock.
Therefore,9 hrs. 15 min of this clock = 9 hrs of the correct clock
Hence the correct time is 9 hrs after 7 a.m. i.e., 4 p.m.
If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month ? (Month starts from Saturday)
Solution (b)
As month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays.
While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays.
Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 =23
Solution (b)
As month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays.
While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays.
Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 =23
If 10th May, 1997 was a Monday, what was the day on Oct 10, 2001?
Solution (d)
In this question, the reference point is May 10, 1997 and we need to find the number of odd days from May 10, 1997 up to Oct 10, 2001.
Now, from May 11, 1997 – May 10, 1998 = 1 odd day (Dividing 365 days by 7 )
May 11, 1998 – May 10, 1999 = 1 odd day
May 11, 1999 – May 10, 2000 = 2 odd days (2000 was leap year)
May 11, 2000 – May 10, 2001 = 1 odd day
Thus, the total number of odd days up to May 10, 2001 = 5
The remaining 21 days of May will give 0 odd days.
In June, we have 2 odd days; in July, 3 odd days; in August, 3 odd days; in September,2 odd days and up to 10th October, we have 3 odd days.
Hence, total number of odd days = 18 i.e. 4 odd days.
Since, May 10, 1997 was a Monday, and then 4 days after Monday would be Friday.
So, Oct 10, 2001 was Friday.
Solution (d)
In this question, the reference point is May 10, 1997 and we need to find the number of odd days from May 10, 1997 up to Oct 10, 2001.
Now, from May 11, 1997 – May 10, 1998 = 1 odd day (Dividing 365 days by 7 )
May 11, 1998 – May 10, 1999 = 1 odd day
May 11, 1999 – May 10, 2000 = 2 odd days (2000 was leap year)
May 11, 2000 – May 10, 2001 = 1 odd day
Thus, the total number of odd days up to May 10, 2001 = 5
The remaining 21 days of May will give 0 odd days.
In June, we have 2 odd days; in July, 3 odd days; in August, 3 odd days; in September,2 odd days and up to 10th October, we have 3 odd days.
Hence, total number of odd days = 18 i.e. 4 odd days.
Since, May 10, 1997 was a Monday, and then 4 days after Monday would be Friday.
So, Oct 10, 2001 was Friday.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only
British colonial policy went through two policy phases, or at least there were two strategies between which its policies actually oscillated, sometimes to its great advantage. At first, the new colonial apparatus exercised caution, and occupied India by a mix of military power and subtle diplomacy, the high ground in the middle of the circle of circles. This, however, pushed them into contradictions. For, whatever their sense of the strangeness of the country and the thinness of colonial presence, the British colonial state represented the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment rationalism, entering India precisely at the moment of its greatest unchecked arrogance. As inheritors and representatives of this discourse, which carried everything before it, this colonial state could hardly adopt for long such a self-denying attitude. It had restructured everything in Europe—the productive system, the political regimes, the moral and cognitive orders—and would do the same in India, particularly as some empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments. Consequently, the colonial state could not settle simply for eminence at the cost of its marginality; it began to take initiatives to introduce the logic of modernity into Indian society. But this modernity did not enter a passive society. Sometimes, its initiatives were resisted by pre-existing structural forms. At times, there was a more direct form of collective resistance. Therefore the map of continuity and discontinuity that this state left behind at the time of independence was rather complex and has to be traced with care.
Most significantly, of course, initiatives for modernity came to assume an external character. The acceptance of modernity came to be connected, ineradicably, with subjection. This again points to two different problems, one theoretical, the other political. Theoretically, because modernity was externally introduced, it is explanatorily unhelpful to apply the logical format of the ‘transition process’ to this pattern of change. Such a logical format would be wrong on two counts. First, however subtly, it would imply that what was proposed to be built was something like European capitalism. (And, in any case, historians have forcefully argued that what it was to replace was not like feudalism, with or without modificatory adjectives.) But, more fundamentally, the logical structure of endogenous change does not apply here. Here transformation agendas attack as an external force. This externality is not something that can be casually mentioned and forgotten. It is inscribed on every move, every object, every proposal, every legislative act, and each line of causality. It comes to be marked on the epoch itself. This repetitive emphasis on externality should not be seen as a nationalist initiative that is so well rehearsed in Indian social science.
Quite apart from the externality of the entire historical proposal of modernity, some of its contents were remarkable. Economic reforms, or rather alterations did not foreshadow the construction of a classical capitalist economy, with its necessary emphasis on extractive and transport sectors. What happened was the creation of a degenerate version of capitalism—what early dependency theorists called the ‘development of underdevelopment’.
Which of the following observations is a valid conclusion to draw from the author’s statement that “the logical structure of endogenous change does not apply here. Here transformation agendas attack as an external force”?
Solution (d)
‘Endogenous change’ means change from within. The first line means that the transformation of the Indian society did not proceed due to changes within the system. ‘Transformation agendas attack as an external force’ means the agenda to transform the society was imposed upon by external forces. Here, the external force is the colonial agenda. Option d, sums this up best.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Solution (d)
‘Endogenous change’ means change from within. The first line means that the transformation of the Indian society did not proceed due to changes within the system. ‘Transformation agendas attack as an external force’ means the agenda to transform the society was imposed upon by external forces. Here, the external force is the colonial agenda. Option d, sums this up best.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba
