Solution (c)

Explanation:

• When there was no paper or language or the written word, there no books or written documents, this period is called prehistory. Hence statement 1 is correct
• The prehistoric period in the early development of human beings is commonly known as the Old Stone Age or the Paleolithic Age. Hence statement 2 is correct
• Painting and drawing were the oldest art forms practised by human beings to express themselves, using the cave walls as their canvas. Hence statement 3 is correct

We do not know exactly if Lower Paleolithic people ever produced any art objects. But by the Upper Paleolithic times, we see a proliferation of artistic activities. Hence statement 4 is incorrect

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Puranas provide accounts of dynastic history, including the genealogies of various dynasties up to beginning of the Gupta rule. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• The Puranas are aware of the concept of cyclical time and the change of ages (yugas), indicating an understanding of change over time. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The Puranas describe the four Yugas: Krita (or Satya), Treta, Dvapara, and Kali, each representing different epochs within a cyclical concept of time. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Numismatists focus on the study of coins, which are valuable sources of historical information. In their research, they analyse various aspects of coins, such as their design, production methods, and the historical context they provide. The imagery and symbols on coins, including portraits of rulers, deities, and various emblems, offer insights into the cultural, religious, and political milieu of the era. For example, the coins from the Gupta period in India often feature detailed images of kings performing rituals, which reflect the religious practices and royal iconography of that time.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Narmada Man refers to the hominin fossils discovered in the Narmada Valley in central India. The fossil remains were first discovered in 1982 by a team led by geologist Arun Sonakia. 
  • This discovery is significant because it represents the first fossil evidence of early humans in India.
• The fossils are dated to the Middle and Late Pleistocene epoch, which spans from about 781,000 to 126,000 years ago.
• The Narmada Man includes a partial skull (calvarium) which has been classified as belonging to Homo erectus, a species of early humans that lived throughout Asia and Africa.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The first discovery of rock paintings was made in India in 1867–68 by an archaeologist, Archibold Carlleyle in the Sohagighat, Mirzapur district.
• The caves of Bhimbetka were discovered in 1957–58 by eminent archaeologist V.S. Wakankar and later on many more were discovered. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
  • Wakankar spent several years in surveying these inaccessible hills and jungles to study these paintings. 
• The themes of paintings found here are of great variety, ranging from mundane events of daily life in those times to sacred and royal images. These include hunting, dancing, music, horse and elephant riders, animal fighting, honey collection, decoration of bodies, and other household scenes. Hence statement 2 is correct

The drawings and paintings can be categorized into seven historical periods. Period I, Upper Paleolithic; Period II, Mesolithic; and Period III, Chalcolithic. After Period III there are four successive periods. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The floor of the Great Bath was made of tightly fitted burnt bricks set in gypsum mortar and made waterproof using layers of bitumen, not dried bricks. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• The Great Bath is believed to have been used for ritual bathing and special ceremonies, not for the daily bathing needs of the general population. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

There is no evidence of a temple at the northern face of the Great Bath. The structures surrounding the Great Bath have not been definitively identified as temples. Temples were not present during the Harrapan civilisation. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• While Harappa and Mohenjodaro are situated in Pakistan, the important sites excavated in India are Lothal and Dholavira in Gujarat.
• Rakhigarhi in Haryana, Ropar in Punjab, Kalibangan in Rajasthan. (Hence pair 1 and 3 are correct)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro each had a citadel area where the ruling class and important public buildings were located. Hence statement 1 is correct 
• While the Harappan civilization did cover parts of Rajasthan, it did not cover the whole of Uttar Pradesh. The Harappan sites in Uttar Pradesh are few and located mainly in the western part of the state. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• Kalibangan is a Harappan site in Rajasthan, but it is located in northern Rajasthan, not southern. The name “Kalibangan” is derived from the local language and means “black bangles,” referring to the numerous black bangle fragments found at the site Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Harappan (Indus Valley) Civilization is older in Indian history as compared to more recent many Chalcolithic (Copper Age) cultures. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• The Harappan Civilization arose in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent, primarily in present-day Pakistan and northwest India. Hence statement 2 is correct

The Harappan Civilization is named after the site of Harappa, one of its major urban centers, not because of a specific type of pottery Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• State polities emerged around the 6th Century BCE, in a belt stretching from Gandhara in the northwest to Anga in eastern India and to the Malwa region in the south.
• The most powerful states were Magadha, Kosala, Vatsa, and Avanti. 
• Capitals of these manajanpadas 
  • Magadha :  Rajgriha
  • Kosala: Shravasti
  • Avanti: Ujjain
• The relations among the states fluctuated over time causing warfare, truce, military alliances and marriage alliances.
• Angunttara Nikaya, a Buddhist text enlists Mahajanapadas:
  • Anga – Champa, 
  • Vajji – Vaishali,
  •  Kashi – Varanasi, 
  • Vatsa – Kausambi, 
  • Chedi – Sotthivatinagara, 
  • Panchala – Ahichchhatra, 
  • Matsya – Mathura, 
  • Gandhara – Taxila, 
  • Malla – Kushinagar 
  • Kuru – Hastinapur. (Hence option b is correct)

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Palaeolithic age, also known as the Old Stone Age, ended around the same time as the last Ice Age, roughly around 9000 B.C., transitioning into the Mesolithic period. Hence statement (a) is correct
• The Mesolithic period is characterized by the use of microliths, which are small, finely worked stone tools. Hence statement (b) is correct
• During the Neolithic period, also known as the New Stone Age, people used polished stone tools, which were more advanced than the flaked tools of the earlier periods. Hence statement (c) is correct
• While the Mesolithic period saw the beginnings of settled life and some experimentation with cultivation, it was during the Neolithic period that farming and agriculture became well-established and widespread. Neolithic communities are known for being the first to practice systematic farming and animal domestication. Hence statement (d) is incorrect

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan dynasty with the help of his advisor Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), who was a Brahmin. Hence statement 1 is incorrect

“Mudrarakshasha” is a Sanskrit drama written by Vishakhadatta,  in 9th century which depicts the cunning tactics employed by Chanakya (Kautilya) to defeat the enemies of Chandragupta Maurya. Hence statement 2 is correct

Chandragupta Maurya defeated Seleucus I Nicator, a successor of Alexander the Great, and established control over northwestern India. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Megasthenes was a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, not Ashoka. Ashoka was Chandragupta’s grandson. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• Megasthenes lived in Pataliputra, the capital of the Maurya Empire. He wrote in detail about the city as well as the whole empire. Hence statement 2 is correct
• Megasthenes wrote an account of his observations but these observations didn’t survive rather various fragments have remained which after compilation are as called “Indika. Hence statement 3 is Correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The term “Gramini” was used for village headmen during the pre-Mauryan period. Hence statement 1 is correct 
• The term “Bali” referred to a form of tax or tribute, and a specific title for tax collectors like Balisadhakas was given in this period. Hence statement 2 is correct
• “Bhandagarika” refers to an official in charge of the treasury or the storehouse, not a commander general. Hence statement 3 is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The “Digha Nikaya” is a collection of long discourses of the Buddha in the Sutta Pitaka of the Pali Canon. One of the texts in the Digha Nikaya, the “Aggañña Sutta,” provides an explanation for the emergence of kingship and the origination of the state. In this discourse, the Buddha explains the origin of the world and society, including how humans transitioned from a state of equality and simplicity to a more complex society where the need for a ruler (king) arose. This discourse outlines the social contract theory, where people come together to appoint a king to maintain order and justice.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Haryanka Dynasty (c. 544 BCE – 413 BCE):The Haryanka dynasty was founded by Bimbisara. This period saw the expansion of Magadha under rulers like Bimbisara and his son Ajatashatru.

Shishunaga Dynasty (c. 413 BCE – 345 BCE):The Shishunaga dynasty succeeded the Haryanka dynasty. Shishunaga, its founder, and his successors played a crucial role in further consolidating Magadha.

Nanda Dynasty (c. 345 BCE – 321 BCE):The Nanda dynasty came after the Shishunaga dynasty. The Nandas, especially under Dhana Nanda, are known for their wealth and administrative efficiency. Their rule ended when Chandragupta Maurya overthrew Dhana Nanda.

Maurya Dynasty (c. 321 BCE – 185 BCE):The Maurya dynasty was established by Chandragupta Maurya after he defeated the Nandas. This dynasty saw the rise of one of India’s greatest empires under the reigns of Chandragupta Maurya, Bindusara, and Ashoka

So, the correct chronological order with timelines is: b) 1-4-3-2

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The term used for war in the Rigvedic period was “Gavishthi,” which literally means “search for cows” or “cattle raid,” indicating the conflicts and battles often centered around cattle raids. Hence statement 1 is incorrect 
• The term used for daughter in the Rigvedic period was “Duhitri,” which is derived from the root word “duh,” meaning “to milk,” indicating the daughter’s role in milking cows. Hence statement 2 is incorrect 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Harappans were skilled in metallurgy and were familiar with the manufacture and use of bronze. Hence statement 1 is correct 
• While copper was relatively more accessible to the Harappans, tin was not readily available in the region and had to be imported from distant areas. Hence statement 2 is incorrect

The analysis of bronze artifacts from Harappan sites indicates a lower percentage of tin, suggesting that the alloying process was known but tin was used sparingly, likely due to its scarcity. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Ashoka was a great missionary ruler in the history of the ancient world. He worked with great zeal and devotion to his mission and achieved a lot, both at home: and abroad.
• Ashoka brought about the political unification of the country. He bound it further by one dharma, one language and practically one script called Brahmi which was used in most of his inscriptions. 
• Ashoka called himself ‘dear to the gods’, a title which was translated into Tamil and adopted by the chiefs mentioned in the Sangam texts. Hence statement 1 is correct
• In unifying the country he respected such scripts as Brahmi, Kharoshthi, Aramaic and Greek. Evidently, he also accommodated such languages as Greek, Prakrit and Sanskrit and various religious sects.
• Ashoka followed a tolerant religious policy. He did not try to foist his Buddhist faith on his subjects. 
• On the other hand he made gifts to non-Buddhist and even anti-Buddhist sects. Hence statement 2 is correct
• In the reign of Bindusara the citizens of Taxila bitterly complained against the misruie of wicked bureaucrats (dushtamatyas). Their grievance was redressed by the appointment of Ashoka. But when Ashoka became emperor, a similar complaint was lodged by the same city. Hence statement 3 is correct
• The Kalinga edicts show that Ashoka felt very much concerned about oppression in the provinces and, therefore, asked the mahamatras not to torture townsmen without due cause.
• For this purpose he introduced rotation of officers in Tosali (in Kalinga), Uljain and Taxila. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
• Ashoka was fired with zeal for missionary activities. He deputed officials in the far-flung parts of the empire. This helped the cause of administration and also promoted cultural contacts between the developed Gangetic basin and the backward distant provinces.
• The material culture, typical of the heart of the empire, spread to Kalinga and the lower Deccan and northern Bengal.
• Above all Ashoka is important in history for his policy of peace, non-aggression and cultural conquest.
• He had no model in early Indian history for pursuing such a policy; nor did such an example exist in any country except Egypt where Akhnaton had pursued a pacific policy in the fourteenth century B.C. But it is obvious that Ashoka was not aware of his Egyptian predecessor.
• According to Ashokan inscriptions, all the three last peoples together with the Satyaputras and the people of Tamraparni or Sri Lanka lived on the borders of the Maurya empire. They were, therefore, familiar with the Maurya state. 
• The Pandyas were known to Megasthenes who visited the Maurya capital. 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Megasthenes states that he did not notice any slaves in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect
• According to the Arthashastra of Kautilya, a striking social development of the Maurya period was the employment of slaves in agricultural operations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
• But there is no doubt that domestic slaves were found in India from Vedic times onwards. Hence statement 3 is correct 
• It seems that in the Maurya period, slaves were engaged in agricultural work on a large scale. 
• The state maintained farms, on which numerous slaves and hired labourers were employed. 150,000 war captives brought, by Ashoka from Kalinga to Pataliputra may have been engaged in agriculture, but the number one and a half lakhs seems to be exaggerated.
• However, ancient Indian society was not a slave society. What the slaves did in Greece and Rome was done by the Shudras in India. The shudras were regarded as the collective property of the three higher varnas. They were compelled to serve them as slaves, artisans, agricultural labourers, and domestic servants.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, the Supreme Court of India highlighted that there is often a shortage of members in the National Company Law Tribunal and inadequate infrastructure to support their functioning. In this context, NCLT as a body becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) is a quasi-judicial authority incorporated for dealing with corporate disputes that are of civil nature arising under the Companies Act,2013. It was constituted on 1 June 2016 under the Companies Act, 2013. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It was constituted on 1 June 2016 under the Companies Act, 2013 based on the recommendation of the Balakrishna Eradi committee on law relating to the insolvency and the winding up of companies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Following the order of the National Green Tribunal, a team of Indore Municipal Corporation along with police removed encroachments and 30 stalls from the catchment area in Sirpur Lake recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the lake.

Explanation:

• Sirpur Lake is a human-made wetland located in Indore, Madhya Pradesh. It is a 670-acre lake, which is more than 130 years old, made by Maharaja Shivaji Rao Holkar to generate water supply for the city of Indore. The Indore City Gazette, 1908, has many references to Sirpur Lake, utilised for water supply and recreational purposes. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It was designated a Ramsar site under the Ramsar Convention on January 7, 2022. It boasts a diverse habitat, featuring extensive wetlands, shrub forests, grasslands, tall trees, and shallow and deep-water areas. It is inhabited by 189 species of birds, belonging to 55 families. It is arguably one of the only remaining bird watching sites where water birds can be recorded within city limits. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Recently, Tata Steel signed MoU with Tamil Nadu Government for its Titanium Oxide Project. In this context, basic details about Titanium can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Titanium is the fourth most abundant element in the Earth’s crust. It often occurs in ore deposits in the form of chemical compounds with iron or oxygen. It is present in meteorites and the sun. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Titanium is corrosion resistant and generally not affected by air, water, acids or bases. It has a low density, good strength, is easily fabricated, and has excellent corrosion resistance. The two prime commercial mineral ores of titanium are Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and Rutile (TiO2). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Titanium is useful in aircraft, spacecraft, ships, and other high-stress applications. It also is used in prosthetic devices, because it does not react with fleshy tissue and bone. Titanium oxide spectra are used by astronomers to identify cool red dwarf stars. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Gluten is infamous for the allergic reaction it induces in some people and has often been in news. In this context, basic details about gluten can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Gluten is a type of protein found in the wheat plant and some other grains. Many cereal grains — but in particular barley, wheat, and rye — contain specific proteins that, when mixed with water and kneaded, create an elastic mass. Two important types of these proteins are gliadins and glutenins. At the microscopic level, gluten is an elastic mesh of the protein molecules. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It is naturally occurring, but it can be extracted, concentrated and added to food and other products to add protein, texture and flavour. It also works as a binding agent to hold processed foods together and give them shape. The ability of gliadins and glutenins to create gluten makes them prized ingredients in the food industry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Over consumption of gluten can lead to Coeliac disease, which is characterised by a severe allergic reaction in the small intestine, prompting the immune system to produce a large number of antibodies that attack the body’s own proteins. The disease is present in around 2% of the general population. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• State of the Climate 2024 Report once again issues a Red Alert at the sheer pace of climate change in a single generation, turbo-charged by ever-increasing greenhouse gas levels in the atmosphere. In this context, the report becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• State of the Climate 2024 Report was released by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) during the United National Climate Conference (COP29) in Baku. The year 2024 is on track to be the warmest year on record after an extended streak of exceptionally high monthly global mean temperatures. It said that 2015-2024 would be the warmest ten years on record, adding that ocean warming rates show a particularly strong increase in the past two decades and the planet’s seas will continue to heat up irreversibly. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Australia has come up with a new scheme called MATES that allows talented young people from India to work in the country for some time. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the scheme.

Explanation:

Mobility Arrangement for Talented Early-professionals Scheme (MATES) gives Indian university graduates and early career professionals a chance to work in Australia for two years. Australia and India entered into a Migration and Mobility Partnership Arrangement (MMPA). The MMPA is a bilateral framework that supports and promotes two-way migration and mobility between the two countries, while addressing issues pertaining to illegal and irregular migration. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Subansiri Lower Hydroelectric Project nears commissioning stage by March 2025. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the project.

Explanation:

• Subansiri Lower Hydro Electric Project (SLHEP) is an under-construction gravity dam on the Subansiri River. The project is being developed by the state-run National Hydro Power Corporation (NHPC). Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is a run-of-river project in North Eastern India on the borders of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam. It is expected to supply 2,000 MW of power (eight 250 MW units) when completed. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

It will be the single largest hydroelectric plant in India when completed. The dam will be 116 m high from the river bed level and 130 m from the foundation. The length of the dam will be 284 m. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Experts from the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) have claimed that the controversial ‘Project Cheetah’ in Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh, has proven to be a successful endeavour by the Centre. In this context, Wildlife Institute of India as an institution becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Wildlife Institute of India (WII) is an autonomous institution established in 1982 for nurturing the growth of wildlife science in the country. The institute carries out research work in the fields of study, which include Biodiversity, policy related to wildlife, Endangered Species, Wildlife management, forensic Wildlife research work, Eco-development, Spatial Modelling, and studies related to changing climatic conditions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change, Government of India. The board is chaired by the Union Minister and has representatives from the centre and state governments as well as institutions and academia. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• It is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It shares the boundaries with the famous Rajaji National Park. It is an internationally acclaimed institution, which offers training programs, academic courses, and advisory in wildlife research and management. It is actively engaged in research across the breadth of the country on biodiversity related issues. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• According to defence officials, two South American countries have shown interest in the Pinaka multi-barrel rocket launchers. In this context, its features become important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• Pinaka Multi-Barrel Rocket Launcher is designed by the Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE), a laboratory of the DRDO. It consists of a multi-tube launcher vehicle, a replenishment-cum-loader vehicle, a replenishment vehicle, and a command post vehicle. It has a range of 60 to 75 kilometers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It was first used during the Kargil War, where it successfully neutralised Pakistan Army positions on the mountain tops. It delivers lethal and responsive fire against a variety of area targets, such as exposed enemy troops, armoured and soft-skin vehicles, communication centres, air terminal complexes, and fuel and ammunition dumps. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• In a boost for wildlife enthusiasts and tourists, a new tiger has been spotted in the renowned Sahyadri Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the Reserve.

Explanation:

• Sahyadri Tiger Reserve is located in the Sahyadri Ranges of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra. The history of the area dates back to the Maratha Empire, and many forts built or captured by the first Maratha Emperor Shivaji Bhonsle can be found here. The legendary temple from which Shivaji received the Bhavani Sword from divine providence is also said to be among the many ruins in this region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It is the northernmost tiger habitat in western ghats, with an area of almost 741.22 sq. km. The reserve spreads over Koyna Wildlife Sanctuary, forming the northern portion, and Chandoli National Park, forming the southern part of the reserve. STR was created by merging the areas of these two forests in 2007. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct. The passage mentions “For the people and animals that live in the Arctic’s unique environment climate change is not a debate; it’s a daily reality. And with the world growing warmer, Arctic ice is melting even faster, threatening their safety and way of life”. It is clearly given that climate change threatens the safety and way of life of animals (polar bears, walrus, beluga, etc.) that live in the Arctic‘s unique environment. So, this statement is correct. 

Statement (2) is incorrect. It is given in the passage, “with the world growing warmer, Arctic ice is melting even faster, threatening their safety and way of life”. These are the effects of climate change – we cannot infer from the passage if it can or cannot speed up “climate change” as such. It is rather just indicating the accelerated rate of climate change. So this statement is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Most stakeholder including the government has sought the courts’ intervention at some point or the other and not always to correct a perceived wrong.” Here the passage implies that all the stakeholders move the court to settle their disputes. But the passage nowhere mentions that all the telecom companies are facing litigation at a given point in time. It would be an exaggeration to generalise it to every telecom company. So, this is an incorrect statement. 

Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “The stakes are huge, running into billions of dollars.”  Here the passage implies the telecom sector is worth billions of dollars, but does not mention profit. Here this amount is indicating the value of this business – we cannot assume the profits arising from it. Also, the author sounds very pessimistic about the telecom business in India.  It is evident from the usage of „not for the faint-hearted‟ in the very first line of the passage. It won’t be logical to make inferences about the profit aspects of telecom business in India.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

x can be obtained by using the information provided in both S1 and S2. 

Using S1, we get x= 4, or 12. 

Using S2, we get that x is a multiple of 2.  

Using both S1 and S2,  LCM × HCF = 1st number × 2nd number 

36 × 2 = x × 18 

or, x = 4. 

Hence, S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The arrangements can be drawn as: 

Position of Amit from front end = 17th  

Position of Sumit from rear end = 18th  

 Position of Sumit from front end = 50 – 18 + 1 = 33rd  

Position of Ramya = (17 + 33)/2 = 50/2 = 25th. 

Thus, there are 7 persons in between Amit (17th) and Ramya (25th). Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

2nd Jan 1901 means

(1900 years and 2 day)

Now, 1600 years have 0 odd day

300 years have 1 odd day

2 days has 2 odd day

Total no. of odd days = 0 + 1 + 2 = 3 days

Hence, the day on 2nd Jan 1901 was Wednesday.