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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.

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Question 1 of 5

1. Question
Q.1) The third edition of the Kalam & Kavach defence conference (May 14, 2026) has the theme ‘Taking JAI Forward With I²’. What does ‘JAI’ stand for in this context?
- a) Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, Innovation
- b) Justice, Accountability, Integrity
- c) Jammu, Arunachal, International
- d) Jet, Air, Indigenous
Correct

Q.1) Solution (a)

Explanation:

The Kalam & Kavach conference is a premier strategic platform for defence transformation discussions.
- The theme is ‘Taking JAI Forward With I²’ , where JAI stands for Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, Innovation .
- I² stands for Indigenisation and International Collaboration .
Key thematic discussions include future warfighting technologies (AI-enabled warfare, autonomous systems, hypersonic technologies, quantum-enabled C4ISR), Aatmanirbharta & defence manufacturing (MSME participation, iDEX-driven innovation ecosystems, defence industrial corridors in Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh), and global partnerships (co-development models, technology transfer).

The conference is named after Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (‘Kalam’) and ‘Kavach’ means shield. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this acronym.

Why this question?
Tests the meaning of JAI in defence context – a current Defence and Governance fact.

Why important for UPSC?
Defence indigenisation and tri-service integration appear in Security and Governance (Prelims 2026 trend).
Incorrect

Q.1) Solution (a)

Explanation:

The Kalam & Kavach conference is a premier strategic platform for defence transformation discussions.
- The theme is ‘Taking JAI Forward With I²’ , where JAI stands for Jointness, Aatmanirbharta, Innovation .
- I² stands for Indigenisation and International Collaboration .
Key thematic discussions include future warfighting technologies (AI-enabled warfare, autonomous systems, hypersonic technologies, quantum-enabled C4ISR), Aatmanirbharta & defence manufacturing (MSME participation, iDEX-driven innovation ecosystems, defence industrial corridors in Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh), and global partnerships (co-development models, technology transfer).

The conference is named after Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (‘Kalam’) and ‘Kavach’ means shield. Options (b), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this acronym.

Why this question?
Tests the meaning of JAI in defence context – a current Defence and Governance fact.

Why important for UPSC?
Defence indigenisation and tri-service integration appear in Security and Governance (Prelims 2026 trend).
Question 2 of 5

2. Question
Q.2) The ‘Essential Religious Practices’ (ERP) doctrine, currently being debated in the Sabarimala review case before a nine-judge Supreme Court Bench, originated from which landmark case?
- a) Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
- b) Shirur Mutt case (1954)
- c) Shah Bano case (1985)
- d) Ayodhya case (2019)
Correct

Q.2) Solution (b)

Explanation:
- The Essential Religious Practices (ERP) doctrine originated from the Shirur Mutt case (1954) , where the Supreme Court held that only ‘essential’ parts of a religion are protected under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution.
- The Court would determine essentiality based on the teachings, tenets, and beliefs of that religion. The Centre (Solicitor General Tushar Mehta) has now argued that this doctrine is judicial creativity not found in the Constitution, and that the Constitution presumes every religious practice is protected unless it violates public order, morality, or health.
- A nine-judge Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant is hearing the reference in the Sabarimala review case.
Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this origin case.

Why this question?
Tests the origin of the ERP doctrine (Shirur Mutt, 1954) – a static Polity fact.

Why important for UPSC?
Religious freedom and judicial interpretation appear in Polity (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).
Incorrect

Q.2) Solution (b)

Explanation:
- The Essential Religious Practices (ERP) doctrine originated from the Shirur Mutt case (1954) , where the Supreme Court held that only ‘essential’ parts of a religion are protected under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution.
- The Court would determine essentiality based on the teachings, tenets, and beliefs of that religion. The Centre (Solicitor General Tushar Mehta) has now argued that this doctrine is judicial creativity not found in the Constitution, and that the Constitution presumes every religious practice is protected unless it violates public order, morality, or health.
- A nine-judge Bench headed by CJI Surya Kant is hearing the reference in the Sabarimala review case.
Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. UPSC tests this origin case.

Why this question?
Tests the origin of the ERP doctrine (Shirur Mutt, 1954) – a static Polity fact.

Why important for UPSC?
Religious freedom and judicial interpretation appear in Polity (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).

Question 3 of 5

3. Question

Q.3) Match the following terms related to Minimum Support Price (MSP) with their correct descriptions:

List I (Term)	List II (Description)
A. CACP	1. Cabinet body that approves MSP
B. CCEA	2. Commission that recommends MSP
C. A2+FL	3. Comprehensive cost including rent and interest (not used for price fixation)
D. C2	4. Actual paid-out costs + imputed value of family labour

Select the correct code:

a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Correct

Q.3) Solution (a)

Explanation:

CACP (A-2): The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture) recommends MSPs for 23 agricultural commodities .
CCEA (B-1): The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves the MSP .
A2+FL (C-4): Cost formula that includes actual paid-out costs (seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, hired labour) plus the imputed value of family labour . This is used for MSP calculation – at least 1.5 times this cost .
C2 (D-3): Comprehensive cost includes A2+FL plus imputed rent on owned land and imputed interest on fixed capital. Used for broader analysis but not for price fixation .

The CCEA approved MSP hikes for 14 Kharif crops for Marketing Season 2026-27, with the highest hike for Sunflower Seed (₹622/quintal) , followed by Cotton (₹557) and Sesamum (₹500). Estimated procurement over 824 lakh metric tonnes with payout of ₹2.60 lakh crore. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this mapping.

Why this question?
Tests the roles of CACP (recommends) vs CCEA (approves) – a high-probability static Economy matching question.

Why important for UPSC?
MSP and agricultural pricing appear in Economy (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024).

Incorrect

Q.3) Solution (a)

Explanation:

CACP (A-2): The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture) recommends MSPs for 23 agricultural commodities .
CCEA (B-1): The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approves the MSP .
A2+FL (C-4): Cost formula that includes actual paid-out costs (seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, hired labour) plus the imputed value of family labour . This is used for MSP calculation – at least 1.5 times this cost .
C2 (D-3): Comprehensive cost includes A2+FL plus imputed rent on owned land and imputed interest on fixed capital. Used for broader analysis but not for price fixation .

Why this question?
Tests the roles of CACP (recommends) vs CCEA (approves) – a high-probability static Economy matching question.

Why important for UPSC?
MSP and agricultural pricing appear in Economy (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024).

Question 4 of 5

4. Question
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding India‘s cervical cancer burden and prevention efforts:
1. The WHO’s 90-70-90 targets for cervical cancer elimination are: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with HPV vaccine by age 15; 70% of women screened at ages 30 and above; 90% of women with disease receive treatment.
2. The Lancet estimates that India could prevent more than 10 million cervical cancer cases over the next century if the WHO targets are achieved.
3. India launched a nationwide HPV vaccination programme for adolescent girls in February 2026, making it one of the few countries to include HPV vaccine in national immunisation programmes.
4. Tamil Nadu has the lowest screening rate in India (below 0.2%), while Assam and West Bengal have screening rates above 10%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a) Only one
- b) Only two
- c) Only three
- d) All four
Correct

Q.4) Solution (c)

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The WHO’s 90-70-90 targets are: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with HPV vaccine by age 15; 70% of women screened with a high-performance test at ages 30 and above; and 90% of women identified with disease receive appropriate treatment .
- Statement 2 is correct: The Lancet estimates that India could prevent more than 10 million cervical cancer cases over the next century if the WHO targets are achieved .
- Statement 3 is correct: After a long history of limited uptake (first introduced in India in 2008), India launched a nationwide HPV vaccination programme for adolescent girls in February 2026 , becoming one of only a handful of countries to include HPV vaccine in their national immunisation programmes .
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Tamil Nadu has the highest screening rate (above 10%) and is the best performer. Assam and West Bengal have rates as low as 0.2% (worst performers). The inequity gap is wide – north-eastern and eastern states lag far behind southern states .
India has more than 1.2 lakh new cases and roughly 80,000 deaths annually. HPV DNA testing (more sensitive than Pap smear) has been proposed for integration into the National Essential Diagnostics List. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this Tamil Nadu vs Assam/West Bengal screening rate reversal.

Why this question?
Tests the screening rate ranking (Tamil Nadu highest, Assam/West Bengal lowest) – a common reversal trap.
Incorrect

Q.4) Solution (c)

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The WHO’s 90-70-90 targets are: 90% of girls fully vaccinated with HPV vaccine by age 15; 70% of women screened with a high-performance test at ages 30 and above; and 90% of women identified with disease receive appropriate treatment .
- Statement 2 is correct: The Lancet estimates that India could prevent more than 10 million cervical cancer cases over the next century if the WHO targets are achieved .
- Statement 3 is correct: After a long history of limited uptake (first introduced in India in 2008), India launched a nationwide HPV vaccination programme for adolescent girls in February 2026 , becoming one of only a handful of countries to include HPV vaccine in their national immunisation programmes .
- Statement 4 is incorrect: Tamil Nadu has the highest screening rate (above 10%) and is the best performer. Assam and West Bengal have rates as low as 0.2% (worst performers). The inequity gap is wide – north-eastern and eastern states lag far behind southern states .
India has more than 1.2 lakh new cases and roughly 80,000 deaths annually. HPV DNA testing (more sensitive than Pap smear) has been proposed for integration into the National Essential Diagnostics List. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this Tamil Nadu vs Assam/West Bengal screening rate reversal.

Why this question?
Tests the screening rate ranking (Tamil Nadu highest, Assam/West Bengal lowest) – a common reversal trap.
Question 5 of 5

5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding India’s MSME support ecosystem:
1. The Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGS) under CGTMSE provides collateral-free credit with a guarantee coverage ceiling enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore for banks (Union Budget 2025-26).
2. The SAMADHAAN portal allows MSEs to file delayed payment applications online, with cases automatically referred to Micro and Small Enterprises Facilitation Councils (MSEFCs).
3. The PM Vishwakarma Scheme (2023) provides collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh at 3% interest, with toolkit incentive up to ₹25,000 for traditional artisans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- a) Only one
- b)Only two
- c) Only three
- d) All four
Correct

Q.5) Solution (b)

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGS) under CGTMSE facilitates collateral-free credit. The guarantee coverage ceiling was enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore for banks (Union Budget 2025-26). Transgender entrepreneurs have a 10% concession in guarantee fees and enhanced coverage up to 85% .
- Statement 2 is correct: The SAMADHAAN Portal (October 2017) is a technology-enabled mechanism for MSEs to file and monitor delayed payment applications online. Cases are automatically referred to Micro and Small Enterprises Facilitation Councils (MSEFCs) . As of December 2022, ₹1,65,034 crore was paid to MSMEs by Central Ministries/Departments/CPSEs since May 2020 .
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme (2023) , collateral-free loans up to ₹3 lakh (not ₹10 lakh) are available in two tranches at 5% interest (Government provides 8% interest subvention). The toolkit incentive is up to ₹15,000 (not ₹25,000). As of March 2026, over 30 lakh artisans registered, nearly 5.9 lakh loans (~₹5,050 crore) approved, and over 25.8 lakh e-vouchers issued .
The PMEGP scheme (credit-linked subsidy) supports projects up to ₹50 lakh (manufacturing) and ₹20 lakh (service). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this ₹3 lakh loan limit.

Why this question?
Tests the specific loan limit under PM Vishwakarma (₹3 lakh, not ₹5 lakh) – a common factual trap.

Why important for UPSC?
MSME schemes and government support appear in Economy and Governance (Prelims 2024, 2026).
Incorrect

Q.5) Solution (b)

Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGS) under CGTMSE facilitates collateral-free credit. The guarantee coverage ceiling was enhanced from ₹5 crore to ₹10 crore for banks (Union Budget 2025-26). Transgender entrepreneurs have a 10% concession in guarantee fees and enhanced coverage up to 85% .
- Statement 2 is correct: The SAMADHAAN Portal (October 2017) is a technology-enabled mechanism for MSEs to file and monitor delayed payment applications online. Cases are automatically referred to Micro and Small Enterprises Facilitation Councils (MSEFCs) . As of December 2022, ₹1,65,034 crore was paid to MSMEs by Central Ministries/Departments/CPSEs since May 2020 .
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the PM Vishwakarma Scheme (2023) , collateral-free loans up to ₹3 lakh (not ₹10 lakh) are available in two tranches at 5% interest (Government provides 8% interest subvention). The toolkit incentive is up to ₹15,000 (not ₹25,000). As of March 2026, over 30 lakh artisans registered, nearly 5.9 lakh loans (~₹5,050 crore) approved, and over 25.8 lakh e-vouchers issued .
The PMEGP scheme (credit-linked subsidy) supports projects up to ₹50 lakh (manufacturing) and ₹20 lakh (service). Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this ₹3 lakh loan limit.

Why this question?
Tests the specific loan limit under PM Vishwakarma (₹3 lakh, not ₹5 lakh) – a common factual trap.

Why important for UPSC?
MSME schemes and government support appear in Economy and Governance (Prelims 2024, 2026).

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