Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Rotterdam convention was adopted in 1998 and entered into force on 24 February 2004. The Rotterdam Convention is an international treaty designed to facilitate informed decision-making by countries with regard to trade in hazardous chemicals.

• It does not completely ban the trade in hazardous chemicals. It rather establishes a prior informed consent (“PIC”) procedure to ensure that restricted hazardous chemicals are not exported to countries that do not wish to receive them The Convention establishes a list of covered chemicals and requires parties seeking to export a chemical on that list to first establish that the intended importing country has consented to the import.  The PIC procedure does not ban or restrict any chemicals, nor does it mean that any individual country must automatically prohibit their import. The Rotterdam Convention establishes a prior informed consent (“PIC”) procedure to ensure that restricted hazardous chemicals are not exported to countries. Hence statement I is incorrect. 

The Convention seeks to promote shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among State Parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals in order to protect human health and the environment from potential harm. Hence statement II is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents: Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, Agenda 21 and Forest Principles. 
• Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan of the United Nations (UN) related to sustainable development. It was an outcome of the Earth Summit 1992. Hence Pair 1 is incorrect.
• It is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken by organizations of the UN, governments, and major groups in every area in which humans directly affect the environment. The number 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century. Its aim is achieving global sustainable development. 
• “Rio+20” is the short name for the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development. It took place in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil in June 2012 – twenty years after the landmark 1992 Earth Summit in Rio.The official discussions focused on two main themes:  
  • how to build a green economy to achieve sustainable development and lift people out of poverty; and  
  • how to improve international coordination for sustainable development.  Hence Pair 2 is correct.
• The Johannesburg Plan of Implementation was agreed at the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Johannesburg Summit or Earth Summit 2002). It affirmed UN commitment to ‘full implementation’ of Agenda 21, alongside achievement of the Millennium Development Goals and other international agreements.  Hence Pair 3 is incorrect.
• Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• • In India, there are four major categories of Protected areas constituted under the provisions of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. The four categories of protected areas are: Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks, Community Reserves and Conservation Reserves.   

• Conservation Reserves are declared by the State Governments in any area owned by the State Government. The aim of conservation reserves is to protect landscapes, seascapes, flora and fauna and their habitat. Examples: Bankapur Peacock Conservation Reserve (Karnataka), Beas River Conservation Reserve (Punjab). 

• Community Reserves are declared by the State Government in any private or community land. The land should not be within a National Park, Sanctuary or a Conservation Reserve. It is basically an area where an individual or a community has volunteered to conserve wildlife and its habitat.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The rights of people living inside both the Conservation Reserve and the Community Reserve are not affected. Both these areas act as buffer zones between established national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests of India.  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

•  Biodiversity cold spots are areas of the world that have relatively low levels of biological diversity and they are also experiencing a high rate of habitat loss These areas are often characterized by harsh environmental conditions, such as high altitudes, deserts, or cold climates. Although a Biodiversity Coldspot is low in species richness, it is also important to conserve, as it may be home to rare flora and fauna. Biodiversity cold spots are important because they represent a unique and irreplaceable part of the world’s natural heritage.However, biodiversity cold spots are also some of the most vulnerable ecosystems on Earth. These areas are often under threat from human activities, such as deforestation, agriculture, and mining. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• • In general terms, a Marine Protected Area (MPA) is a marine area that provides protection for all or part of the natural resources it contains. Protected Area (PA) has been defined in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 including Marine Protected Areas.  

• MPAs do not necessarily exclude fishing, research or other human activities; in fact, many MPAs are multi-purpose areas. MPAs or MPA regions often have areas in which fishing is prohibited, as well as areas where under specific circumstances and with the objective of promoting research and scientific understanding, fishing may still be permitted if conducted consistently with the objectives of the MPA. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

• MPAs occupy less than 4.01% of the total area of all Protected Areas in India. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

•  The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 provides for the declaration of National Parks by the State Governments in addition to the declaration of WLS. Hence Statement a is incorrect.

• Certain activities, such as grazing, which are permissible in Wildlife Sanctuaries are prohibited in NPs. Hence Statement b is incorrect.
• Unlike Wildlife Sanctuaries, National Parks are not primarily focused on a particular species. Hence Statement c is correct.

A sanctuary can be upgraded to a national park, but a national park cannot be downgraded as a sanctuary because National Park offers higher levels of protection for wildlife. Hence Statement d is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Officially, four Biodiversity Hotspots are present in India: the Himalayas, the Western Ghats, the Indo-Burma region and the Sundaland. 
• Western Ghats, also known as the “Sahyadri Hills” encompasses the mountain forests in the south western parts of India and highlands of south western Sri Lanka. The entire extent of hotspot was originally about 1,82,500 square kms, but due to tremendous population pressure, now only 12,445 square Km or 6.8% is in pristine condition. Hence Option 1 is correct.
• The Sunderbans is formed by the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta. It is not declared as a biodiversity hotspot yet. Hence Option 2 is incorrect.
• The world’s tallest and rarest grasslands are found in the Terrai-duar Savannah region, which form a narrow stretch at the base of the Himalayas. These grasslands are fed by the rich silt deposited by the monsoon floods every year. It is not declared as a biodiversity hotspot yet. Hence Option 3 is incorrect.

The Sundalands includes Nicobar group of Islands (and Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Philippines). It is a biodiversity hotspot. Hence Option 4 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Hanguls or the Kashmiri Red Stags is the state animal of Jammu and Kashmir. It is the only surviving subspecies of Elk (Cervus Canadensis) which is native to Kashmir. IUCN status of Hangul is critically endangered.   
•  The Government of Jammu and Kashmir prepared a project for the protection of the Hangul or Kashmir stag’s habitat in the 1970s with assistance from the IUCN and World Wildlife Fund (WWF). Hence Statement 1 is correct.
•  Dachigam National Park is located in Kashmir. It is mainly found in Dachigam National Park at elevations of 3,035 meters. The Dachigam National Park, Rajparian Wildlife Sanctuary, Sind Valley, forest-covered areas of Kishtwar and Bhaderwah, and nearby areas of Aru are currently the few places where the Kashmir Stag is protected. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Tiger reserves are areas specifically designated for the protection and conservation of tigers. They are carefully managed to provide a suitable environment for tigers to thrive, including ample prey availability and protection from poaching and habitat destruction. These reserves not only safeguard the tiger population but also contribute to the conservation of other wildlife species and their habitats 
• Tiger reserves in India are governed by Project Tiger which was launched in 1973. India has a total of 55 tiger reserves. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Tiger Reserves in India are notified by the State Government under the provision of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, on the advice of The National Tiger Conservation Authority. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Madhya Pradesh had a total of 7 tiger reserves in India, with Veerangana Durgawati being the latest addition. The other 6 tiger reserves are Kanha, Bandhavgarh, Satpura, Pench, Panna and Sanjay-Dubri. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• To assist states having free ranging populations of wild elephants and to ensure long-term survival of identified viable populations of elephants in their natural habitats, a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, Project Elephant was launched in February 1992. 
•  The project aims to protect elephants, their habitats and corridors, to address issues of man-animal conflict and welfare of domesticated elephants. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change provides financial and technical support to major elephant range states in the country through Project Elephant. Hence pair 1 is incorrect.
•  MIKE Programme is a site-based system designed to monitor trends in the illegal killing of elephants, build management capacity and provide information. It is an international collaboration that measures the levels, trends and causes of elephant mortality. Hence pair 2 is correct.

The E-8 countries comprising India, Botswana, the Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Kenya, Sri lanka, Tanzania, and Thailand hold the E-50:50 summit to create a shared global perspective on elephant conservation, management, and welfare across all range countries. The First International Elephant Congress and Ministerial Meet, E 50:50 was hosted by the Indian government in New Delhi. It brought together scholars, conservation practitioners and policy makers to discuss issues on elephant conservation policy. Hence pair 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Drinking water specifications in India is prescribed by Bureau of Indian Standards. For this, it has laid down IS 10500: 2012. 
• The standard was adopted by the Bureau of Indian Standards with the following objectives:  
  • To assess the quality of water resources, and  
  • To check the effectiveness of water treatment and supply by the concerned authorities 
• These standards also apply to water supplied by Private or Non-Government Agencies for human consumption in any place of the country.   

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Green Climate Fund (GCF) is a financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that supports projects, programs, policies, and other activities in developing countries to address climate change. It was established in 2010, and it became fully operational in 2015. The GCF aims to promote a paradigm shift towards low-emission and climate-resilient development.  

• The primary goal of the Green Climate Fund is to assist developing countries in their efforts to mitigate and adapt to climate change. It seeks to support a wide range of projects and initiatives that contribute to the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions and enhance the adaptive capacity of vulnerable communities. The GCF provides financial resources to developing countries through a variety of financial instruments, including grants, concessional loans, and guarantees. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 
• The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was launched during the 16th Conference of the Parties (COP 16) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in Cancún, Mexico, in 2010. During this conference, the decision to establish the Green Climate Fund as a financial mechanism to support climate-related projects and programs in developing countries was made. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The funding is intended to catalyze both public and private investments in climate-related activities. The GCF supports projects across various sectors, including renewable energy, energy efficiency, sustainable agriculture, forestry, water resources, and climate-resilient infrastructure. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Kyoto Protocol aims to limit or reduce the greenhouse gas emissions by three market-based mechanisms – emissions trading, clean development mechanism and joint implementation. 
• Parties to UNFCCC are classified as: 
  • Annex I countries – industrialized countries and economies in transition 
  • Annex II countries – developed countries which pay for costs of developing countries 
  • Developing countries 
• Emission trading is a type of tradeable permit system. In an emission trading system, each emitter has an obligation to limit its emissions to a specified quantity. If an emitter (a country or a firm) remains below its allowed limit, it can sell permits to emit to another country or firm whose emissions exceed its limit. Emissions trading, as set out in Article 17 of the Kyoto Protocol, allows countries that have emission units to spare – emissions permitted them but not “used” – to sell this excess capacity to countries that are over their targets. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
• Clean development mechanism defined in Article 12 of the Kyoto Protocol, where an advanced country can implement emission reduction projects in a developing country to earn certified emission reduction (CER) credits which can be traded to achieve their reduction targets.  Hence Pair 2 is correct
• Joint implementation defined in Article 6 of the Kyoto Protocol, is where an advanced country “A” (not a developing country) and an advanced country “B” may take part in an emission-reduction project and count the resulting emission units towards meeting its Kyoto target. Hence Pair 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) is an integrated approach to managing landscapes—cropland, livestock, forests and fisheries–that address the interlinked challenges of food security and climate change. It helps guide actions to transform agri-food systems towards green and climate resilient practices. Hence statement a is correct. 
•  Climate-smart agriculture (CSA) aims to simultaneously achieve three outcomes: 
  • Increased productivity: Produce more and better food to improve nutrition security and boost incomes, especially of 75 percent of the world’s poor who live in rural areas and mainly rely on agriculture for their livelihoods. 
  • Enhanced resilience: Reduce vulnerability to drought, pests, diseases and other climate-related risks and shocks; and improve capacity to adapt and grow in the face of longer-term stresses like shortened seasons and erratic weather patterns. 
  • Reduced emissions: Pursue lower emissions for each calorie or kilo of food produced, avoid deforestation from agriculture and identify ways to absorb carbon out of the atmosphere. Hence statement b is correct.
•  The Examples of Climate Smart Agriculture include: 
  •  Increasing the organic content of soil through conservation tillage. 
  • Engaging in Conservation Agriculture like adopting minimum tillage, using crop residues to cover soil surface and adopting crop rotations. 
  • Following a landscape approach in agriculture, like integrated planning of land. Hence statement c is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Global Environment Facility (GEF), established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more. Through its strategic investments, the GEF works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest environmental issues. 
• GEF is an independent financial organization established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. The GEF is a partnership of 18 agencies including United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks, national entities and international NGOs. Hence Statement a is correct.
•  GEF is a financial mechanism for five major international environmental conventions: the Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence Statement b is correct.
•  The GEF is not linked formally to the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (MP), but it supports implementation of the Protocol in countries with economies in transition. Hence Statement c is incorrect.

The SECURE Himalaya project is a part of “Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development” (Global Wildlife Program) funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF). Hence Statement d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Earth Summit 1992 succeeded in raising public awareness of the need to integrate environment and development. The Earth Summit resulted in the following documents: Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, Agenda 21 and Forest Principles. 
• Two important legally binding agreements were adopted at 1992 Earth Summit: 
  • Convention on Biological Diversity  
  • United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence Options 1 and 4 are correct.
•  The Cartagena Protocol was adopted on 29 January 2000. Convention on Biological Diversity (COP5) adopted a supplementary agreement to the Convention known as the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety. It came into force on 11 September 2003. Hence Option 2 is incorrect.
• The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted on 29 October 2010 in Nagoya, Japan. It entered into force on 12 October 2014. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. Hence Option 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from POPs. POPs are chemicals that remain intact in the environment for longer time periods, became widely distributed temporally and spatially and accumulate in the fatty tissue of living organisms and are toxic to humans and wildlife.  Hence Option d is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Established in 1964, the International Union for Conservation of Nature’s Red List of Threatened Species is the world’s most comprehensive information source on the global extinction risk status of animal, fungus and plant species. Hence Options 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 

The Red Data Books does not have any specific list of Endemic plant and animal species present in the global biodiversity hotspots or globally protected sites for conservation of nature & natural resources. Hence Options 1 and 5 are incorrect

Solution (c)

Explanation:

•  The Climate Investment Funds (CIFs) are investment programs administered by the multilateral development banks (MDBs). These are aimed to help finance developing countries’ transitions toward low-carbon and climate-resilient development. The CTF provides financing for demonstrating, deploying, and diffusing low-carbon technologies that have the potential for long-term avoidance of greenhouse gas emissions. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
•  The Global Environment Facility (GEF) Trust Fund was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems. GEF funding to support the projects is contributed by donor countries. GEF funds are available to developing countries and countries with economies in transition to meet the objectives of the international environmental conventions and agreements.  The World Bank serves as the GEF Trustee, administering the GEF Trust Fund (contributions by donors). Hence Pair 2 is correct
• The Special Climate Change Fund, one of the world’s first multilateral climate adaptation finance instruments, was created at the 2001 Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to help vulnerable nations to address these negative impacts of climate change. The SCCF is managed by the Global Environment Fund and operates in parallel with the Least Developed Countries Fund (LDCF). Hence Pair 3 is correct

The Adaptation Fund (AF) was established in 2001 to finance concrete adaptation projects and programmes in developing country Parties to the Kyoto Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change. The Adaptation Fund is supervised and managed by the Adaptation Fund Board (AFB).  Hence Pair 4 is incorrect

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal is an international treaty that aims to control the movement of hazardous wastes across international borders. It was adopted in 1989 and came into force in 1992. 
• Pharmaceutical waste is one of the categories of waste regulated under the Basel Convention. This category includes expired or unused pharmaceutical products, as well as pharmaceutical formulations that are no longer suitable for their intended use. It also covers pharmaceuticals that have been withdrawn from the market for various reasons, such as safety concerns or changes in regulations. Hence Option 1 is correct.
•  Explosive waste falls under a different category of hazardous materials that require specialized handling and disposal methods. This category of waste is typically regulated by national and international authorities through specific regulations and guidelines established for explosive materials and ordnance. Hence Option 2 is correct.
• The Basel Convention does not regulate the transboundary movement and disposal of radioactive waste. Instead, the management and disposal of radioactive waste are addressed by other international agreements and organizations. One of the key international agreements that addresses the management of radioactive waste is the Joint Convention on the Safety of Spent Fuel Management and on the Safety of Radioactive Waste Management.  Hence Option 3 is incorrect.

The Basel convention covers two types of “other waste” which include ‘household waste and incinerator ash’. Household waste, also known as municipal solid waste, generally consists of everyday items that individuals and households discard. This waste can include things like food scraps, paper, cardboard, plastics, glass, metals, textiles, and non-hazardous household chemicals. Hence Option 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Cosmology Education and Research Training Center (COSMOS), Mysuru, of the Indian Institute of Astrophysics recently observed ‘Zero Shadow Day.’ In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the ‘zero shadow day.’

Explanation:

• Zero Shadow Day is an interesting celestial phenomenon that occurs twice in a year when the sun is directly overhead and thus no shadow of any vertical object can be seen. On this day, as the sun crosses the local meridian, its rays fall exactly vertically relative to an object on the ground, making it impossible to observe any shadow of that object. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

This event happens for locations situated between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This phenomenon transpires when the Sun’s declination becomes equal to the latitude of the location. This is due to the tilt of the Earth’s axis and its rotation around the sun, causing the angle of the sun’s rays to change throughout the year, which in turn affects the lengths and directions of shadows. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) had initiated a proposal call for ‘Translational Research using GenomeIndia data’ without disclosing crucial information about the available phenotype data, causing concerns among researchers across India. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the project.

Explanation:

• The “Phenome India” project, officially named Phenome India-CSIR Health Cohort Knowledgebase (PI-CheCK) is an initiative launched by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) on December 7, 2023. The main objective of the project is to develop India-specific risk prediction models for cardio-metabolic diseases including diabetes, liver diseases, and cardiac diseases. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

It is India’s first-ever pan-India longitudinal health monitoring study focused specifically on cardio-metabolic health. This study is crucial for understanding how ethnic diversity and lifestyle patterns unique to India influence the risk and incidence of cardio-metabolic disorders. Through this project, CSIR is promoting a Predictive, Personalised, Participatory, and Preventive (P4) healthcare model suited to Indian genetic and phenotypic profiles. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The government recently authorised Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) to share and receive information from the Enforcement Directorate under the anti-money laundering law, a move aimed at detecting money trails and combating cyber frauds. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about I4C.

Explanation:

• I4C has been established under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) to act as a nodal point at the National level in the fight against cybercrime. It is designed to provide a framework and ecosystem for law enforcement agencies (LEAs) to deal with cybercrime in a coordinated and comprehensive manner. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

I4C brings together academia, industry, public, and government in the prevention, detection, investigation, and prosecution of cybercrimes. Its headquarters is located at New Delhi. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), led by newly appointed Governor Sanjay Malhotra, announced a 25-basis-point cut in the repo rate. In this context, MPC becomes an important topic from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016 to provide for a statutory and institutionalized framework for an MPC. The MPC is entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level. The MPC is chaired by RBI Governor. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Under Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934, the central government is empowered to constitute a six-member MPC. Monetary Policy Committee consists of six members. The quorum for a meeting shall be four Members, at least one of whom shall be the Governor and, in his absence, the Deputy Governor, who is the Member of the MPC. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The MPC takes decisions based on a majority vote. In case of a tie, the RBI governor will have the second or casting vote. The decisions of the MPC would be binding on the RBI. RBI’s Monetary Policy Department (MPD) assists the MPC in formulating the monetary policy. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Black carbon, a short-lived but highly potent climate pollutant, is responsible for nearly half of global warming to date, a new report has found. Scientists have warned that cutting black carbon emissions could be one of the fastest ways to slow climate change and mitigate extreme weather. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about black carbon.

Explanation:

• Black Carbon (BC) is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). Black carbon is a kind of an aerosol and it is also known as soot. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is formed by the incomplete combustion of wood and fossil fuels, a process which also creates carbon dioxide (CO2), carbon monoxide, and volatile organic compounds. Most black carbon emissions in India arise from burning biomass, such as cow dung or straw, in traditional cookstoves. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• It warms the atmosphere because it is very effective at absorbing light. It contributes to global warming and poses severe risks. When deposited on ice and snow, black carbon and co-emitted particles reduce surface albedo (the ability to reflect sunlight) and heat the surface. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Test explained

Solution (b)

Context:

• India has yet again been placed on the ‘priority watch’ list of the US Trade Representative (USTR) office’s Special 301 Report on intellectual property rights. In this context, some basic details about the report can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Special 301 Report is an annual report by the United States Trade Representative (USTR) under the Trade Act of 1974. It identifies countries that are considered by the US as not providing adequate and effective protection of intellectual property rights (IPRs) or fair and equitable market access to IP rights holders from the US. The report has been issued every year since 1989. It designates countries as “priority foreign country”, “priority watch country”, and “watch list country.” Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations recently launched a significant new initiative, Accelerating Innovative Monitoring for Nature Restoration (AIM4NatuRe). In this context, a question about the initiative can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

AIM4NatuRe Initiative is an Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)-led global initiative aimed at enhancing the capacity of countries to monitor and report on ecosystem restoration. It is a US$ 9 million programme funded by the United Kingdom, with a contribution of GBP 7 million, and is set to run from 2025 to 2028. It will leverage cutting-edge technology, standardized data frameworks, and capacity development to support global efforts to restore at least 30 percent of degraded ecosystems by 2030, as outlined in Target 2 of the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Context:

• U.S. President Donald Trump has not only disrupted international trade rules but has also sought to challenge the independence of the U.S. Central Bank (Federal Reserve). In this context, UPSC can ask a question about bond market.

Explanation:

• A bond is a financial instrument that promises a fixed return (face value) at the end of a specific period, unlike equity, which has no fixed term or guaranteed returns. Bonds are generally safer investments used to hedge against risks or act as a store of value. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Bond yields are inversely proportional to their market price: when prices fall, yields rise. Inflation erodes the real returns from bonds. If inflation exceeds bond yield, investors lose purchasing power. When inflation expectations rise, the Central Bank typically raises interest rates, causing bond prices to fall and yields to rise, impacting investment decisions across the economy. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has taken suo moto cognizance against five Delhi restaurants for non-refund of mandatory service charges despite the Delhi High Court’s judgment. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about CCPA.

Explanation:

• The CCPA was established under Section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which replaced the 1986 Act, was notified on August 9, 2019, and came into force on July 20, 2020. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The CCPA protects, promotes, and enforces the rights of consumers as a class under the Act. It prevents unfair trade practices and curbs false or misleading advertisements. The CCPA ensures that no one publishes or disseminates false or misleading advertisements. It works under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Passage 

Good hygiene is critical for preventing the spread of infectious diseases and helping children lead long healthy lives. It also prevents them from missing school, resulting in better learning outcomes. In some contexts, it can also secure a family’s social status and help individuals maintain self-confidence. Yet, important hygiene behaviours are difficult to practise without the right knowledge and skills, adequate community support and the belief that one’s behaviour can make a difference. Many children around the world live in conditions that make it difficult to maintain good hygiene. Where homes, schools and health centres have dirt floors; where water for hand washing is unavailable; and even where families share spaces with domestic animals; maintaining hygiene can be a challenge. What’s more, practising good hygiene is often perceived as a woman’s responsibility, adding to her burden of care.

Solution (a)  

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct as per the lines “Yet, important hygiene behaviors are difficult to practice without the right knowledge and skills, adequate community support and the belief that one’s behavior can make a difference.” These lines show that one’s behavior can make a difference which is negated in the assumption. Hence, this assumption is not correct. 

Assumption 2 is correct: The passage mentions that hygiene “can also secure a family’s social status” and talks about children missing school (which can have economic implications in the long run). This supports the assumption that poor hygiene has both social and economic implications. Therefore, this assumption is valid based on the passage 

Assumption 3 is incorrect: The given assumption is not correct because it is not well established in the passage. The line “Many children around the world live in conditions that make it difficult to maintain good hygiene”, shows that the living conditions for children are poor but the cause for the same cannot necessarily be a lack of investment in rural infrastructure. The reasons could be varied ranging from poor culture of cleanliness, poor accountability, etc. Also, this issue need not necessarily be a rural one. Even many urban areas may suffer from this issue. Therefore, this assumption is not correct as per the passage. 

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Statement 1 is not correct: Both countries are in the process of negotiating an agreement called Early Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA).  Once the two countries sign such an agreement, they can lower their customs duties. However, custom duties are lowered only when the agreement is signed. The passage says that In March last year, the two countries re-launched negotiations for an interim agreement, officially dubbed as Early Progress Trade Agreement (EPTA).  It further says that “In such agreements, two countries significantly reduce or eliminate customs duties on the maximum number of goods traded between them”. This implies that lowering the customs duty is a part of EPTA, which is yet to be signed. Hence, option 1 is not correct. 

Statement 2 is not correct: The passage mentions that India’s resentment towards the political development in Canada has temporarily paused the negotiations of EPTA. However, it is not mentioned in the passage that it will have any effect on the bilateral relations between the two countries. Moreover, as of now the suspension of EPTA negotiations is more of an outcome of adverse bilateral relations than vice-versa. Hence, option 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The respective positions of the towns have been represented below:

Clearly, town K is in the South-East direction from town D.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Case l:

By looking at the diagram of case l we can say that conclusion l cannot be drawn because some Clerks are Officers and conclusion III cannot be drawn because all Officers are not Graduates.

Case II:

By looking at the diagram of case II we can say that conclusion II can be drawn because all Clerks can be Scientists. It is a possibility.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

According to the question, Eva (E) sends the problem to Bablu (B), i.e. E → B

Using Statement-1: Appu(A) is the last person to see the problem. And, Cibbu takes up the problem only after

Bablu. So, we get:

Bablu (B) … → … Cibbu (C) … → … Appu(A)

Using Statement-2: Bablu or Eva takes up the problem only after Dabbu

So, Dabbu (D) … → … B/E

On combining above pieces of information, we get:

D → E → B → C→ A

Hence, option (c) is the right answer.