Solution (c)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (d)

Explanation

Solution (a)

Explanation

Solution (d)

Explanation

Solution (d)

Explanation 

• M2 is made up of Currency with the public, Current Deposits with the Banking System, Savings Deposits with the Banking System, Certificates of Deposits issued by Banks, Residents’ Term Deposits with the Banking System with a contractual maturity up to and including one year, and ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI. (Hence option a, b and c are correct) 

Term Deposits of residents with a contractual maturity of over one year with the Banking System is a component of M3 (Broad money). (Hence option d is incorrect)

Solution (a)

Explanation 

The RBI has started publishing a set of new monetary aggregates following the recommendations of the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation which submitted its report in June 1998.  Yaga Venugopal Reddy served as the chairman of this working group. The Working Group recommended compilation of four monetary aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet of the banking sector in conformity with the norms of progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base), M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad money). (Hence option a is correct)

Solution (c)

Explanation

Solution (c)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation

 Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation:

RuPay is a product of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the umbrella organisation that powers retail payments in the country. The provision under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, empowered the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to create a secure electronic payment and settlement system in India. The nature of NPCI’s initiatives and objectives includes it under the “Not for Profit Company” under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 and more recently under the Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013. (Hence option b is correct)

 Solution (c)

Explanation 

Core Banking Solutions (CBS) can be defined as a solution that enables banks to offer a multitude of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location, supporting retail as well as corporate banking activities.  The centralisation thus makes a “one-stop” shop for financial services a reality. Using CBS, customers can access their accounts from any branch, anywhere, irrespective of where they have physically opened their accounts. (Hence option c is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation 

A money multiplier is a method of demonstrating the maximum amount of broad money that commercial banks could create for a given fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio.  Money multiplier (m) is the inverse of the reserve requirement which means if the reserve requirement is increased, then the money multiplier will increase. (Hence option b is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• IDBI was established in 1964 as a subsidiary of RBI to provide financial assistance for industrial development in India. In 1976, it was made an independent financial institution. (Statement 1 is correct)
• NABARD’s primary focus is on agriculture and rural development, but it also supports infrastructure development, microfinance, and cottage industries in rural areas. It does not focus exclusively on agriculture. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

SIDBI is focused on promoting, financing, and developing micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). It provides a wide range of financial products and services to this sector. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits (up to a certain limit, currently ₹2 lakh per individual), provide remittance services, and issue debit cards, but they are not allowed to provide loans or issue credit cards. The primary function of Payments Banks is to enhance financial inclusion by offering basic banking service. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• RRBs were established with the objective of providing banking services, such as credit and savings, to rural areas, specifically to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and other economically weaker sections. They play a crucial role in financial inclusion in rural areas. (Statement 2 is correct)

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• D-SIBs are identified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), based on the bank’s size, interconnectedness, substitutability, and complexity, not by the Central Government. The RBI uses specific criteria to assess the systemic importance of banks. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• The D-SIB framework requires a detailed evaluation based on the systemic importance scores (SISs), not merely based on a bank’s asset size relative to GDP. The 1% of GDP criterion is only a guideline for assessing systemic importance, but does not automatically classify a bank as a D-SIB. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• As of the latest review, SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be classified as D-SIBs by the RBI. No new banks have been added to this list recently. (Option (c) is correct)

D-SIBs are required to maintain additional capital buffers beyond the minimum regulatory requirements. This additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital varies based on the bank’s placement in different “buckets” of systemic importance, as per the RBI’s D-SIB framework. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• A reverse repo is a tool used by RBI to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. When liquidity is tight, RBI is more likely to inject liquidity through repo operations rather than reverse repo. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
• To control rising inflation, the RBI may increase the repo rate. This action makes borrowing more expensive, thus reducing demand and helping to control inflation. (Statement 2 is correct)

When the rupee appreciates too quickly, the RBI may intervene by buying foreign currency, primarily U.S. dollars, to curb excessive rupee strength. This helps maintain export competitiveness. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Scheduled Banks are those that are listed under the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They meet certain criteria laid down by RBI, including a minimum paid-up capital and reserves, and they must also comply with RBI’s regulations. Being in this schedule provides them access to certain facilities, such as borrowing from the RBI for day-to-day liquidity needs. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Cooperative banks can be eligible for scheduled status if they meet the criteria outlined by the Reserve Bank of India. In fact, some state cooperative banks and urban cooperative banks have been granted the status of scheduled banks. An example is the State Cooperative Bank of India, which has scheduled status. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

Recently, certain payment banks like Airtel Payment Bank and Paytm Payment Bank have been granted scheduled bank status. This enables them to participate in government-operated payment schemes and enhances their ability to serve customers. (Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is set to begin in Cali, Colombia. The meeting, starting on October 21, is the first time the Parties are meeting since the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) was adopted in 2022.

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources. 
• It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992. 
• It has three overarching objectives:

• The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
• The sustainable use of biological diversity.
• The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.

• Conference of the Parties (COP) is its governing body. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The meeting of CoP takes place every two years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Secretariat of the CBD is based in Montreal, Canada. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: New research by South African ecologists has refuted the claim that the African Baobab (Adansonia digitata) tree is dying due to climate change.

• African Baobabs are long-lived deciduous trees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are small to large trees from 20 to 100 feet tall with broad trunks and compact tops.
• These trees can live to become thousands of years old. 
• The oldest baobab tree on record was the Panke baobab in Zimbabwe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• These solitary trees are also incredibly resilient, thriving in dry, open areas such as the savannas of southern Africa and western Madagascar.
• They help keep soil conditions humid, aid nutrient recycling, and slow soil erosion with their massive root systems. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It absorbs and stores water from the rainy season in its massive trunk, producing a nutrient-dense fruit in the dry season, which can grow up to a foot long.
• The fruit contains tartaric acid and Vitamin C, serving as a vital nutrient and food source for many species.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The European Space Agency (ESA) at the International Astronautical Congress, launched its Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme.

• Moonlight Programme is Europe’s first-ever dedicated satellite constellation for telecommunication services for the Moon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It will have a constellation of about five lunar satellites that will allow accurate autonomous landings, high-speed communication, and surface mobility.
• As part of the programme, the first step will be the launch of Lunar Pathfinder, a communications relay satellite built by Surrey Satellite Technology LTD, in 2026. 
• The initial services of the programme will reportedly begin by the end of 2028, and the system is said to be fully operational by 2030.
• Its prime focus is to offer coverage at the Moon’s South Pole. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The South Pole of the Moon is a key area for many missions owing to lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice within craters that perpetually remain in the shadows. 

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Hon’ble President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu will confer the 5th National Water Awards 2023 on October 22nd, 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi. 

• The first edition of the National Water Awards was introduced by the Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation in 2018. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It creates awareness among the people about the importance of water and motivates them to adopt the best water usage practices.
• It focuses on the good work and efforts made by individuals and organizations across the country in attaining the government’s vision of a ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The 5th National Water Awards, 2023, is given for 09 categories viz Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School or College, Best Industry, Best Water User Association, Best Institution (other than school or college), and Best Civil Society. 

In the 5th National Water Awards of 2023, Odisha secured first place in the category of Best State followed by Uttar Pradesh at the second position, and Gujarat and Puducherry jointly securing the third position. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft, participated in the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr with the Royal Navy of Oman Vessel Al Seeb off Goa from 13 to 18 October 24. 

    Hence option b is correct.

 Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Scientists have made a breakthrough in developing what has been long called the “holy grail” diabetes treatments — a “smart” insulin that responds in real-time to fluctuations in one’s blood sugar level.

NNC2215 is the newly developed insulin to treat diabetes. It comprises two parts: a ring-shaped structure, and a molecule with a similar shape to glucose called a glucoside. When blood sugar levels are low, the glucoside binds to the ring, keeping the insulin in an inactive state to prevent further lowering of blood sugar. But, as blood glucose rises, the glucoside is replaced by glucose itself, triggering the insulin to shift its shape and become active, helping bring blood sugar levels down to safer ranges. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: A set of copper plate inscriptions with two leaves dating back to the 16th Century CE have been discovered at the Sri Singeeswarar temple at Mappedu village in Tiruvallur district recently.

• Sri Singeeswarar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is located at Mappedu Village near Perambakkam in Thiruvallur District of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is built in the Dravidian architecture style, and the Rajagopuram consists of 5 tiers.
• The temple was built by Aditya Karikalan II in the year 976 AD. He is the father of the great Chola emperor Rajaraja Cholan, who built the Thanjavur Big Temple. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Later, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, his viceroy, Dalavai Ariyanadha Mudaliar, used his influence and built the Rajagopuram-Main Tower, compound wall, and 16-pillar Mandap in the year 1501.
• The presiding deity is called Singeeswarar. Singeeswarar is found in the form of a slightly big Shiva Lingam in the sanctum.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Egypt is the 5th African nation to receive ‘malaria-free’ certification from the World Health Organization, bringing the total number of certified malaria-free countries and territories to 44.

• Malaria is an acute febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that is spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Five species of parasites can cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species – Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.
• It is a life-threatening disease primarily found in tropical countries.
• It is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The first symptoms of malaria usually begin within 10–15 days after the bite from an infected mosquito.
• Fever, headache, and chills are typically experienced, though these symptoms may be mild and difficult to recognize as malaria.
• Egypt was officially declared ‘malaria-free’ by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is preventable and curable. Vector control is the main approach to prevent malaria and reduce transmission.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The 2024 edition of the IAEA’s Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report has been released on the margins of the Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) in Brazil. 

International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) released the Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report. It highlighted the need for a significant increase in investment to achieve goals for expanding nuclear power. According to the report, global investment in nuclear energy must increase to 125 billion USD annually, up from the around 50 billion USD invested each year from 2017-2023, to meet the IAEA’s high case projection for nuclear capacity in 2050. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Residents of Thiruvanmiyur and Neelankarai experienced a stunning spectacle on Friday night as stretches of the beach glowed with bioluminescence. 

• Bioluminescence is a natural phenomenon produced primarily by microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This occurs when the luciferase enzyme reacts with the luciferin compound in the presence of oxygen to produce a cold light.
• In general, it is widespread among deep marine animals either to evade predators, attract prey, or during mating. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is widespread in lagoons and sometimes breakwaters and is particularly visible during warm weather conditions.

It is exhibited by many marine creatures like sponges, jellyfish, worms, species of fish, anthropods, echinoderms, and unicellular alga. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Number of triangles = 15C3 – 5C3

= 455 – 10 = 445

Solution (b) 

Explanation:

Statement (a) is incorrect. According to the passage, wildfires are a natural phenomenon.  They may be caused even without climate change. Human activities and climate change have increased their scale and intensity. Even if the statement is partially correct on its own, it is not the best implied crux of the passage. 

Statement (b) is correct. The entire passage is based on the occurrence and the reasons for intensification of the wildfires. The passage mentions that greenhouse gas emission will intensify the occurrence of wildfires. The greenhouse gases emitted by human activity are responsible for climate change, which in turn is responsible for intensification of wildfires. Furthermore, their adverse consequences and relatively high intensity in wildland-urban interface should be carefully studied to minimise the damages. Hence, it is a correct option. 

Statement (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions that such events are harmful and disastrous for human health and the environment.  It is a correct statement but cannot be the crux of the entire passage.  

Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, the place where an intersection of urban areas and wild land occurs, are the areas where risk of wildfire is very noticeable. It is a correct statement but does not reflect the crux of the passage. 

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

The question is about invalid assumption – not valid ones.

 Assumption 1 is an invalid assumption. Refer to the lines, “In 2020, power generation declined in Africa, North America and in West and Central Europe. Generation rose in Asia, although by a much smaller amount than in recent years”. The author only says that the rise in electricity generation was less in Asia as compared to recent years. We get no indication from the passage that this rise was able to ‘offset’ the fall in demand in other parts of the world. So, this statement is an invalid assumption. 

Assumption 2 is also invalid. The line, “Nuclear electricity generation will need to double between 2020 and 2050 if the world is to meet its net-zero ambitions”, shows that nuclear power can help achieve net-zero ambition of the world, but the given option also includes the aspect of safety which has not been discussed anywhere in the passage. So, to assume that nations should invest in the safety of nuclear power generation is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, the statement is not a valid assumption.  

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Let us assume that he spent x percent on constructing the boundary. 

Amount spent on floor work = 12×27000/100 (∵ His overall budget is Rs. 27000) 

Amount spent on painting work = 28×27000/100  

Amount spent on boundary construction = x × 27000/100 

Left amount = Rs. 8100 

According to the question,  

(12×27000/100) + (28×27000/100) + (x × 27000/100) + 8100 = 27000 

⟹ (27000/100) (12+28+x) = 27000 – 8100 

⟹ (27000/100) (40+x) = 18900 

⟹ 40+x = (18900×100)/27000 

⟹ 40+x = 70 

⟹ x = 30, i.e. 30% 

Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of the boundary around the house.  

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.  

Alternate Method: 

Let’s calculate the percent amount left.  

Amount left = (8100/27000) × 100 = 30%

Spend on painting = 28% 

Spend on floor work = 12% 

Let percentage amount spent on construction of boundary around the house be y%.  

According to the question, 

30+28+12+y = 100 

Or y = 30% 

Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of boundary around the house.  

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.