IASbaba ’60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2016 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [DAY 38]

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IASbaba ’60 Day Plan’ – Prelims Test 2016 [Day 38]

Q.1) Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by

1. War
2. External aggression
3. Internal disturbance

Select the correct code:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All of the above

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution declares Delhi as the seat of the Supreme Court. But, it also authorises the chief justice of India to appoint other place or places as seat of the Supreme Court.
2. The CJI can take decision in this regard only with the approval of the President.
3. This means that Supreme Court can give direction either to the President or to the Chief Justice to appoint any other place as a seat of the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

Q.3) Consider the following statements with regard to Parliamentary Approval of the proclamation of Constitutional Emergency:

1. Once the President proclaims the Constitutional Emergency, it must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its issue.
2. However, if the proclamation of the Constitutional Emergency is issued at a time when the LS has been dissolved or the dissolution of the LS takes place during the period of one month without approving the proclamation, then the proclamation survives until 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha after its reconstitution, provided the Rajya Sabha has in the meantime approved it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court

1. The Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period
2. The CJI can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Q.5) Which of the following statements is/are true in regard to the Judiciary?

1. India has a single system of courts, adopted from the Government of India Act of 1935
2. The Parliament is authorized to regulate the jurisdiction, powers, procedures and so on of the Supreme Court

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Q.6) Consider the following statements:

1. Proclamation of a national emergency by President is not a discretionary power, as he can proclaim only after receiving a written recommendation from the Prime Minister
2. In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that the proclamation of a national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Which of the following is not true in regard to the proclamation of Emergency?

a) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue

b) Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority

c) A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval

d) Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation

Q.8) A resolution of disapproval is different from a resolution approving the continuation of a proclamation, because:

1. The first one is required to be passed by the Lok Sabha only, while the second one needs to be passed by the both Houses of Parliament.
2. The first one is to be adopted by a simple majority only, while the second one needs to be adopted by a special majority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Consider the following statements in regard to Supreme Court’s Writ Jurisdiction:

1. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with regard to federal disputes is different from its original jurisdiction with regard to disputes relating to fundamental rights
2. In the first case, it is exclusive and in the second case, it is concurrent with high courts jurisdiction
3. Moreover, the parties involved in the first case are units of the federation (Centre and states) while the dispute in the second case is between a citizen and the Government (Central or state)

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) All of the above

d) None of the above

Q.10) Consider the following statements in regard to the National Emergency:

1. During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised.
2. Thus, the state governments are suspended and are brought under the complete control of the Centre.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None

Q.11) The expression, “Proclamation of Emergency” as used in the Constitution refers to –

a) National Emergency

b) State Emergency or Constitutional Emergency

c) Financial Emergency

d) All of the above

Q.12) What happens when a proclamation of national emergency is in operation?

1. The President can issue ordinances on the state subjects also, if the Parliament is not in session
2. The President can either reduce or cancel the transfer of finances from Centre to the states
3. The six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended
4. However, every such order [in statement (2) and (3)] of the President has to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 3 and 4 only

d) All of the above

Q.13) Which of the following are the eligibility criteria for a person to be appointed as a Supreme Court Judge?

1. The person must be a citizen of India
2. The person must have attained 35 years of age
3. A judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years
4. An advocate in a High Court, for at least ten years
5. A distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president

Select the code from below:

a) 3,4 and 5

b) 1,3,4 and 5

c) 1,2 and 3

d) All of the above

Q.14)Earlier the judges of the Supreme court were appointed by the President on the Advice of the Union Cabinet. But the Scenario changed after the Second Judges Case of 1993. In the light of Second Judges Case, which of the following statements are correct?

1. Judges are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Collegium consisting of Chief Justice and four senior most Judges.
2. No Minister, or the executive collectively cannot suggest a name to president.
3. Collegium system was put into Constitution by 44^th

Select the code from below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Q.15) Consider the following statements regarding Judiciary during British rule:

1. The Indian High Court Act was passed in 1861 and High Courts were established at Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
2. The judges in these High Courts were appointed by the Crown.
3. The Indian Penal Code was enacted in the year 1860.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Q.16) As per Article 143 the President has the power to address questions to the Supreme Court, which he deems important for public welfare. Which of the following statements are correct about advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

1. The ‘Advice’ given by the Supreme Court under Article 143 is binding on the President.
2. The Supreme Court may decline to give its opinion under Article 143(1) in cases it does not consider proper or not amenable to such exercise.
3. References made by Supreme Court under Article 143 are binding on the inferior Courts.

Select the code from below:

a) 1 and 2

b) 2 and 3

c) 1 and 3

d) All of the above

Q.17) Consider the following statements:

1. Family Courts are statutory provisions to secure speedy settlement of disputes related to marriage and family affairs.
2. Family Courts are established by State Governments after consultation with High Courts.

Select the correct code from the following:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements:

1. ‘e-Courts’ is a Mission Mode Project for justice delivery by ICT enablement of Courts.
2. According to the project, all the courts including taluk courts will get computerised.
3. The project also includes producing witnesses through video conferencing.

Which of the above statements are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3

c) 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Q.19) Consider the following statements regarding the writ jurisdiction of High Courts:

1. The writ jurisdiction of High Court is mentioned under Article 32 of the Indian Constitution.
2. The Supreme Court has wider powers as compared to High Courts in issuing writs.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Two or more states can have a common High Court. A common High Court for two or more states and Union Territory may be established by:

a) The President

b) The Parliament by law

c) The State Governments of the Respective states

d) The Governors of the respective states

Q.21) Consider the following statements and select the incorrect statement/s from the codes given below:

1. Foreign-origin companies can give “donations to political parties”
2. Donations made by such [foreign shareholding] companies to entities including parties will not attract provisions of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA)
3. The Representation of the People Act bars parties from receiving foreign funds

Choose the appropriate code:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 3 only

d) None

Q.22) Choose the incorrect pair from below:

Missile                                     Associated Country

a) Dong-Feng 26 (DF 26)                 North Korea

b) Guam killer                                     China

c) Poseidon                                          US

d) Babur                                                Pakistan

Q.23) Consider the following statements related to Indian Rhinos Vision 2020:

1. The goal of IRV 2020 is to increase the total rhino population in Assam from 2,000 to 3,000 by the year 2020
2. Pabitora National Park has the largest number of one horned rhinos in the world
3. Kaziranga National Park has the highest density of rhinos in the world.
4. Translocations of rhinos from source populations in Kaziranga and Pabitora to target areas such as Manas.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 1 and 4

c) 1, 2 and 3

d) 2, 3 and 4

Q.24) Consider the following with regard to Intellectual Property Rights:

1. Every year World Intellectual Property Day (WIPD) is being observed on 26 April
2. It highlights the importance of intellectual property rights (patents, trademarks, industrial designs, copyright) in encouraging innovation and creativity.
3. 2016 Theme: “Digital Creativity: Culture Reimagined“.

Choose the correct code

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) All of the above

Q.25) Consider the following with regard to Trade Facilitation Agreement:

1. India yet to formally ratify the WTO’s (World Trade Organisation) Trade Facilitation Agreement, which aims at easing customs procedures to boost commerce.
2. The TFA is the WTO’s first-ever multilateral accord that aims to simplify customs regulations for the cross-border movement of goods.
3. It was outcome of WTO’s 9th Bali (Indonesia) ministerial package of 2013.

Choose the correct code

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

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IASbaba