IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements
- When actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat wave should be declared.
- When a coastal station satisfies both the Heat Wave and Hot Day criteria, then Heat Wave should be given higher priority and be declared.
- Heat wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Frost is classified as a natural disaster (atmospheric).
Criteria for Heat Wave:
Heat wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
a) When normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C
- Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C
- Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more
b) When normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C
- Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C
- Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more
c) When actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat wave should be declared. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
In the northern plains of the country, dust in suspension occurs in many years for several days, bringing minimum temperature much higher than normal and keeping the maximum temperature around or slightly above normal. Sometimes increase in humidity also adds to this discomfort. Nights do not get cooled and become uncomfortable. To cover this situation, hot day concept has been introduced.
When a station satisfies both the Heat Wave and Hot Day criteria, then Heat Wave should be given higher priority and be declared.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Frost is classified as a natural disaster (atmospheric).
Criteria for Heat Wave:
Heat wave need not be considered till maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains and at least 30°C for Hilly regions. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
a) When normal maximum temperature of a station is less than or equal to 40°C
- Heat Wave Departure from normal is 5°C to 6°C
- Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 7°C or more
b) When normal maximum temperature of a station is more than 40°C
- Heat Wave Departure from normal is 4°C to 5°C
- Severe Heat Wave Departure from normal is 6°C or more
c) When actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat wave should be declared. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
In the northern plains of the country, dust in suspension occurs in many years for several days, bringing minimum temperature much higher than normal and keeping the maximum temperature around or slightly above normal. Sometimes increase in humidity also adds to this discomfort. Nights do not get cooled and become uncomfortable. To cover this situation, hot day concept has been introduced.
When a station satisfies both the Heat Wave and Hot Day criteria, then Heat Wave should be given higher priority and be declared.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements
- Asphyxiants are substances that interfere with the transport of an adequate supply of oxygen to the vital organs of the body.
- Allergens are substances which cause an adverse reaction by the immune system.
- Irritants are noncorrosive chemicals that cause reversible inflammatory effects on living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Four categories of common chemical hazards are corrosives, flammables, oxidizers/ reactive, and toxins.
Types of Toxins:
Asphyxiants are substances that interfere with the transport of an adequate supply of oxygen to the vital organs of the body. They can do this by either displacing oxygen from the air or by combining with hemoglobin and thus reducing the blood’s ability to transport oxygen. Examples – nitrogen, argon, helium, methane, propane, carbon dioxide.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Allergens are substances which cause an adverse reaction by the immune system. As these reactions result from previous sensitization from the substance or similar substance, chemical allergens will be different for each person. Example – Formaldehyde resins, Cleaners etc.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Irritants are noncorrosive chemicals that cause reversible inflammatory effects (swelling and redness) on living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact. Because a wide variety of organic and inorganic chemicals are irritants, skin and eye contact with all chemicals in the laboratory should be avoided.
Example – Epoxy resin, Solvents, Adhesives etc.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Corrosive substances are solids, liquids, and gases that cause destruction of living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact.
Examples – Sulphuric Acid, Nitric Acid, Hydrochloric Acid etc.
Neurotoxins induce an adverse effect on the structure or function of the central and/or peripheral nervous system. These effects can be permanent or reversible. Examples – Drugs of abuse (like methamphetamine).
Incorrect
Four categories of common chemical hazards are corrosives, flammables, oxidizers/ reactive, and toxins.
Types of Toxins:
Asphyxiants are substances that interfere with the transport of an adequate supply of oxygen to the vital organs of the body. They can do this by either displacing oxygen from the air or by combining with hemoglobin and thus reducing the blood’s ability to transport oxygen. Examples – nitrogen, argon, helium, methane, propane, carbon dioxide.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Allergens are substances which cause an adverse reaction by the immune system. As these reactions result from previous sensitization from the substance or similar substance, chemical allergens will be different for each person. Example – Formaldehyde resins, Cleaners etc.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Irritants are noncorrosive chemicals that cause reversible inflammatory effects (swelling and redness) on living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact. Because a wide variety of organic and inorganic chemicals are irritants, skin and eye contact with all chemicals in the laboratory should be avoided.
Example – Epoxy resin, Solvents, Adhesives etc.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Corrosive substances are solids, liquids, and gases that cause destruction of living tissue by chemical action at the site of contact.
Examples – Sulphuric Acid, Nitric Acid, Hydrochloric Acid etc.
Neurotoxins induce an adverse effect on the structure or function of the central and/or peripheral nervous system. These effects can be permanent or reversible. Examples – Drugs of abuse (like methamphetamine).
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements
- Fog is a phenomenon of small droplets suspended in air and the visibility is one kilometer or less.
- Frost occurs when the temperature of the air in contact with the ground, or at thermometer-screen level, is below the freezing-point of water.
- Haze is traditionally an atmospheric phenomenon where dust, smoke and other dry particles obscure the clarity of the sky.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Fog is a phenomenon of small droplets suspended in air and the visibility is one kilometer or less.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Frost occurs when the temperature of the air in contact with the ground, or at thermometer-screen level, is below the freezing-point of water (‘ground frost’ or ‘air frost’, respectively). The term is also used of the icy deposits which may form on the ground and on objects in such temperature conditions (glaze, hoar-frost).
Frost is classified as a natural disaster (atmospheric).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Haze is traditionally an atmospheric phenomenon where dust, smoke and other dry particles obscure the clarity of the sky.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Dew:-Condensation of water vapour on a surface whose temperature is reduced by radiational cooling to below the DEW-POINT of the air in contact with it.
Squally weather is meant to cover occasional or frequent squalls with rain or persistent type of strong gusty winds (mean wind speed not less than 20 knot) accompanied by rain. Such conditions are associated with low pressure systems or onset and strengthening of monsoon.
Incorrect
Fog is a phenomenon of small droplets suspended in air and the visibility is one kilometer or less.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Frost occurs when the temperature of the air in contact with the ground, or at thermometer-screen level, is below the freezing-point of water (‘ground frost’ or ‘air frost’, respectively). The term is also used of the icy deposits which may form on the ground and on objects in such temperature conditions (glaze, hoar-frost).
Frost is classified as a natural disaster (atmospheric).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Haze is traditionally an atmospheric phenomenon where dust, smoke and other dry particles obscure the clarity of the sky.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Dew:-Condensation of water vapour on a surface whose temperature is reduced by radiational cooling to below the DEW-POINT of the air in contact with it.
Squally weather is meant to cover occasional or frequent squalls with rain or persistent type of strong gusty winds (mean wind speed not less than 20 knot) accompanied by rain. Such conditions are associated with low pressure systems or onset and strengthening of monsoon.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
With regard to Landslide Vulnerability Zones, which of the following fall under Very High Vulnerability Zones?
- Young mountainous areas in the Himalayas.
- Young mountainous areas in the Andaman and Nicobar.
- High rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western Ghats.
- High rainfall regions with steep slopes in the north-eastern regions.
Select from the below codes:
Correct
Landslide Vulnerability Zones:
Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the
Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western
Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are included in this zone.
High Vulnerability Zone: Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. The only difference between these two is the combination, intensity and frequency of the controlling factors. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.
Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-
Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and
Deccan plateau also experience occasional landslides. Landslides due to mining and subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.
Additional Information:
The GSI is the nodal agency for monitoring landslide activity and its mitigation.
Incorrect
Landslide Vulnerability Zones:
Very High Vulnerability Zone: Highly unstable, relatively young mountainous areas in the
Himalayas and Andaman and Nicobar, high rainfall regions with steep slopes in the Western
Ghats and Nilgiris, the north-eastern regions, along with areas that experience frequent ground-shaking due to earthquakes, etc. and areas of intense human activities, particularly those related to construction of roads, dams, etc. are included in this zone.
High Vulnerability Zone: Areas that have almost similar conditions to those included in the very high vulnerability zone are also included in this category. The only difference between these two is the combination, intensity and frequency of the controlling factors. All the Himalayan states and the states from the north-eastern regions except the plains of Assam are included in the high vulnerability zones.
Moderate to Low Vulnerability Zone: Areas that receive less precipitation such as Trans-
Himalayan areas of Ladakh and Spiti (Himachal Pradesh), undulated yet stable relief and low precipitation areas in the Aravali, rain shadow areas in the Western and Eastern Ghats and
Deccan plateau also experience occasional landslides. Landslides due to mining and subsidence are most common in states like Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and Kerala.
Additional Information:
The GSI is the nodal agency for monitoring landslide activity and its mitigation.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Disaster Management Act, 2005 extends to the whole of India.
- The members of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) are nominated by the Chair Person of NDMA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Disaster Management Act,2005 extends to the whole of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Prime Minister of India is the Chair Person of NDMA. The members of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) are nominated by the Chair Person of NDMA. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The Chair Person of NDMA shall, in the case of emergency, have power to exercise all or any of the powers of the National Authority (NDMA) but exercise of such powers shall be subject to ex post facto ratification by the National Authority.
Incorrect
The Disaster Management Act,2005 extends to the whole of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Prime Minister of India is the Chair Person of NDMA. The members of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) are nominated by the Chair Person of NDMA. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The Chair Person of NDMA shall, in the case of emergency, have power to exercise all or any of the powers of the National Authority (NDMA) but exercise of such powers shall be subject to ex post facto ratification by the National Authority.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements
- Geographical Survey of India (GSI) has grouped the country into four seismic zones.
- Zone II is seismically the least active region.
- Delhi falls under Zone IV.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), has grouped the country into four seismic zones, viz. Zone II, III, IV and V. Of these, Zone V is seismically the most active region, while zone II is the least.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 are correct.
Broadly, Zone – V comprises entire north-eastern India, parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, part of North Bihar and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Zone – IV covers remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, Sikkim, Northern Parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions of Maharashtra near the west coast and Rajasthan.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Town State/UT Zone Delhi Delhi IV Hyderabad Telangana II Bangalore Karnataka II Chennai Tamil Nadu III Mumbai Maharashtra III Incorrect
Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), has grouped the country into four seismic zones, viz. Zone II, III, IV and V. Of these, Zone V is seismically the most active region, while zone II is the least.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect and 2 are correct.
Broadly, Zone – V comprises entire north-eastern India, parts of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, part of North Bihar and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Zone – IV covers remaining parts of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi, Sikkim, Northern Parts of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and West Bengal, parts of Gujarat and small portions of Maharashtra near the west coast and Rajasthan.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Town State/UT Zone Delhi Delhi IV Hyderabad Telangana II Bangalore Karnataka II Chennai Tamil Nadu III Mumbai Maharashtra III -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements
- Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar is related to the field of Disaster Management.
- Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar can be awarded to all Indian Citizens and organizations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Government has instituted an annual award titled Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar. The award is to be announced every year on 23rd January on the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
All Indian Citizens and organizations, who have excelled in areas of Disaster Management; like Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief, Rehabilitation, Research/ Innovations or Early Warning are eligible for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Additional Information:
For the year 2019, 8th Battalion of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) located at Ghaziabad has been selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar for its commendable work in Disaster Management.
The 8th Battalion of NDRF was raised in 2006 and is a highly specialised Rescue and Response Force with large area of responsibility covering National Capital Region (NCR), Uttarakhand, Western UP & Haryana.
Incorrect
Government has instituted an annual award titled Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar. The award is to be announced every year on 23rd January on the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
All Indian Citizens and organizations, who have excelled in areas of Disaster Management; like Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Rescue, Response, Relief, Rehabilitation, Research/ Innovations or Early Warning are eligible for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Additional Information:
For the year 2019, 8th Battalion of National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) located at Ghaziabad has been selected for the Subhash Chandra Bose Aapda Prabandhan Puraskar for its commendable work in Disaster Management.
The 8th Battalion of NDRF was raised in 2006 and is a highly specialised Rescue and Response Force with large area of responsibility covering National Capital Region (NCR), Uttarakhand, Western UP & Haryana.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements about World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS)
- World Sustainable Development Summit 2019 is organized by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
- The theme of 2019 edition is “Creating Partnerships for a Resilient Planet”.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The theme of the 2019 edition of the Summit is ‘Attaining the 2030 Agenda: Delivering on Our Promise’.
The theme of 2018 edition is “Creating Partnerships for a Resilient Planet”.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The WSDS has continued the legacy of the Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) which was initiated in 2001 with the aim of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
Incorrect
The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The theme of the 2019 edition of the Summit is ‘Attaining the 2030 Agenda: Delivering on Our Promise’.
The theme of 2018 edition is “Creating Partnerships for a Resilient Planet”.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The WSDS has continued the legacy of the Delhi Sustainable Development Summit (DSDS) which was initiated in 2001 with the aim of making ‘sustainable development’ a globally shared goal.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements
- Phytoextraction refers to the ability of plants to take up contaminants into the roots and translocate them to the above ground shoots or leaves.
- Phytostabilization refers to the holding of contaminated soils and sediments in place by vegetation, and to immobilizing toxic contaminants in soils.
- Phytodegradation refers to the uptake of contaminants with the subsequent breakdown, mineralization, or metabolization by the plant itself through various internal enzymatic reactions and metabolic processes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Phytodegradation, also called “phytotransformation,” refers to the uptake of contaminants with the subsequent breakdown, mineralization, or metabolization by the plant itself through various internal enzymatic reactions and metabolic processes.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Phytostabilization refers to the holding of contaminated soils and sediments in place by vegetation, and to immobilizing toxic contaminants in soils.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Phytoextraction refers to the ability of plants to take up contaminants into the roots and translocate them to the above ground shoots or leaves.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Additional Information:
Phytovolatilization is the volatilization of contaminants from the plant either from the leaf stomata or from plant stems.
Rhizofiltration can be defined as the use of plant roots to absorb, concentrate, and/or precipitate hazardous compounds, particularly heavy metals or radionuclides, from aqueous solutions.
Incorrect
Phytodegradation, also called “phytotransformation,” refers to the uptake of contaminants with the subsequent breakdown, mineralization, or metabolization by the plant itself through various internal enzymatic reactions and metabolic processes.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Phytostabilization refers to the holding of contaminated soils and sediments in place by vegetation, and to immobilizing toxic contaminants in soils.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Phytoextraction refers to the ability of plants to take up contaminants into the roots and translocate them to the above ground shoots or leaves.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Additional Information:
Phytovolatilization is the volatilization of contaminants from the plant either from the leaf stomata or from plant stems.
Rhizofiltration can be defined as the use of plant roots to absorb, concentrate, and/or precipitate hazardous compounds, particularly heavy metals or radionuclides, from aqueous solutions.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Government of India has partnership with which of the following International Agencies in the field of Disaster Management?
- Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR)
- United Nations Disaster Assessment and Coordination (UNDAC)
- International Search and Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG)
- United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (UNOCHA)
Select from the given codes:
Correct
Government of India has partnership with various International Agencies in the field of Disaster Management such as United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR), The World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR), Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR), Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR), United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (UNOCHA), United Nations Disaster Assessment and Coordination (UNDAC), International Search and Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG), Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR), SAARC Disaster Management Centre – Interim Unit (SDMC-IU), Asian Disaster Reduction Center (ADRC), Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) and ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) etc.
Incorrect
Government of India has partnership with various International Agencies in the field of Disaster Management such as United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR), The World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR), Global Platform for Disaster Risk Reduction (GPDRR), Asian Ministerial Conference for Disaster Risk Reduction (AMCDRR), United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs (UNOCHA), United Nations Disaster Assessment and Coordination (UNDAC), International Search and Rescue Advisory Group (INSARAG), Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR), SAARC Disaster Management Centre – Interim Unit (SDMC-IU), Asian Disaster Reduction Center (ADRC), Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre (ADPC) and ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) etc.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR)
- GFDRR is administered by the United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR).
- India is a member of GFDRR.
- GFDRR supports the implementation of Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
The Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR) is a global partnership program administered by the World Bank Group.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India is a member county of GFDRR. Hence statement 2 is correct.
GFDRR was launched on September 29, 2006 to support implementation of the Hyogo Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA). On March 18, 2015, the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 (Sendai Framework) was adopted. GFDRR now supports the implementation of this framework.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
GFDRR supports developing countries to: (i) mainstream disaster risk management and climate change adaptation in development strategies and investment programs, and (ii) improve the quality and timeliness of resilient recovery and reconstruction following a disaster.
The Consultative Group (CG) is GFDRR’s primary decision-making and advisory body.
Consisting of Members and Observers, the CG sets GFDRR’s long-term strategic objectives and oversees expected results. The Consultative Group has a Chair, who is a representative of the World Bank Group, and a Co-chair, who is a Member of the CG.
Incorrect
The Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR) is a global partnership program administered by the World Bank Group.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
India is a member county of GFDRR. Hence statement 2 is correct.
GFDRR was launched on September 29, 2006 to support implementation of the Hyogo Framework for Action 2005-2015 (HFA). On March 18, 2015, the Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction 2015-2030 (Sendai Framework) was adopted. GFDRR now supports the implementation of this framework.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
GFDRR supports developing countries to: (i) mainstream disaster risk management and climate change adaptation in development strategies and investment programs, and (ii) improve the quality and timeliness of resilient recovery and reconstruction following a disaster.
The Consultative Group (CG) is GFDRR’s primary decision-making and advisory body.
Consisting of Members and Observers, the CG sets GFDRR’s long-term strategic objectives and oversees expected results. The Consultative Group has a Chair, who is a representative of the World Bank Group, and a Co-chair, who is a Member of the CG.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements
- Sustainable Agriculture Mission is one of the eight Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
- Soil Health Management (SHM) is one of the components under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
NMSA derives its mandate from Sustainable Agriculture Mission which is one of the eight Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Soil Health Management (SHM) is one of the components under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). SHM aims at promoting Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) through judicious use of chemical fertilizers including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manures and bio fertilizers for improving soil health and its productivity, strengthening of soil and fertilizer testing facilities to improve soil test based recommendations to farmers for improving soil fertility.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) has been formulated for enhancing agricultural productivity especially in rainfed areas focusing on integrated farming, water use efficiency, soil health management and synergizing resource conservation.
Incorrect
NMSA derives its mandate from Sustainable Agriculture Mission which is one of the eight Missions outlined under National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Soil Health Management (SHM) is one of the components under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA). SHM aims at promoting Integrated Nutrient Management (INM) through judicious use of chemical fertilizers including secondary and micro nutrients in conjunction with organic manures and bio fertilizers for improving soil health and its productivity, strengthening of soil and fertilizer testing facilities to improve soil test based recommendations to farmers for improving soil fertility.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) has been formulated for enhancing agricultural productivity especially in rainfed areas focusing on integrated farming, water use efficiency, soil health management and synergizing resource conservation.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding “Green – Ag: Transforming Indian Agriculture for global environment benefits and the conservation of critical biodiversity and forest landscapes”
- It is a Global Environment Facility (GEF) assisted project.
- It is launched in collaboration with the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The government of India has launched a Global Environment Facility (GEF) assisted project namely, “Green – Ag: Transforming Indian Agriculture for global environment benefits and the conservation of critical biodiversity and forest landscapes” in collaboration with the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Additional Information:
The project is launched during September, 2018 in high-conservation-value landscapes of five States namely (i) Madhya Pradesh: Chambal Landscape, (ii) Mizoram: Dampa Landscape, (iii) Odisha: Similipal Landscape, (iv) Rajasthan: Desert National Park Landscape and v) Uttarakhand: Corbett-Rajaji Landscape.
The project seeks to mainstream biodiversity, climate change and sustainable land management objectives and practices into Indian agriculture. The overall objective of the project is to catalyze transformative change of India’s agricultural sector to support achievement of national and global environmental benefits and conservation of critical biodiversity and forest landscapes.
Incorrect
The government of India has launched a Global Environment Facility (GEF) assisted project namely, “Green – Ag: Transforming Indian Agriculture for global environment benefits and the conservation of critical biodiversity and forest landscapes” in collaboration with the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
Additional Information:
The project is launched during September, 2018 in high-conservation-value landscapes of five States namely (i) Madhya Pradesh: Chambal Landscape, (ii) Mizoram: Dampa Landscape, (iii) Odisha: Similipal Landscape, (iv) Rajasthan: Desert National Park Landscape and v) Uttarakhand: Corbett-Rajaji Landscape.
The project seeks to mainstream biodiversity, climate change and sustainable land management objectives and practices into Indian agriculture. The overall objective of the project is to catalyze transformative change of India’s agricultural sector to support achievement of national and global environmental benefits and conservation of critical biodiversity and forest landscapes.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements
- Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare formulated the Scheme Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM).
- One of its components is installation of standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has formulated a Scheme ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM)’. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The scheme consists of three components:
Component-A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants.
Component-B: Installation of 17.50 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Component-C: Solarisation of 10 Lakh Grid-connected Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The Scheme will have substantial environmental impact in terms of savings of CO2 emissions. All three components of the Scheme combined together are likely to result in saving of about 27 million tonnes of CO2 emission per annum. Further, Component-B of the Scheme on standalone solar pumps may result in saving of 1.2 billion liters of diesel per annum and associated savings in the foreign exchange due to reduction of import of crude oil.
Incorrect
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has formulated a Scheme ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (KUSUM)’. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The scheme consists of three components:
Component-A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants.
Component-B: Installation of 17.50 lakh standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Component-C: Solarisation of 10 Lakh Grid-connected Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The Scheme will have substantial environmental impact in terms of savings of CO2 emissions. All three components of the Scheme combined together are likely to result in saving of about 27 million tonnes of CO2 emission per annum. Further, Component-B of the Scheme on standalone solar pumps may result in saving of 1.2 billion liters of diesel per annum and associated savings in the foreign exchange due to reduction of import of crude oil.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Arrange the following in decreasing order (installed capacity of renewable energy in India)
- Installed capacity from Solar power
- Installed capacity from Wind power
- Installed capacity from Bio power
- Installed capacity from Small Hydro Power.
Select from the given codes:
Correct
A total of 74.79 GW of renewable energy capacity has been installed in the country as on 31/12/2018 which includes 35.14 GW from Wind, 25.21 GW from Solar, 9.92 GW from Bio power and4.52 GW from Small Hydro Power.
Additional Information:
- Tamil Nadu stands first in the installed capacity from Wind power.
- Karnataka stands first in the installed capacity from Solar power.
- Maharashtra stands first in the installed capacity from Bio power.
- Karnataka stands first in the installed capacity of from Hydro Power.
Overall, Karnataka stands first in the total installed capacity of renewable energy.
India ranks 4 in the world in wind energy capacity and 5th in solar & total renewable energy capacity installed in the world.
Incorrect
A total of 74.79 GW of renewable energy capacity has been installed in the country as on 31/12/2018 which includes 35.14 GW from Wind, 25.21 GW from Solar, 9.92 GW from Bio power and4.52 GW from Small Hydro Power.
Additional Information:
- Tamil Nadu stands first in the installed capacity from Wind power.
- Karnataka stands first in the installed capacity from Solar power.
- Maharashtra stands first in the installed capacity from Bio power.
- Karnataka stands first in the installed capacity of from Hydro Power.
Overall, Karnataka stands first in the total installed capacity of renewable energy.
India ranks 4 in the world in wind energy capacity and 5th in solar & total renewable energy capacity installed in the world.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements
- The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is a non-governmental organization.
- The IRENA membership is open to those states that are members of the United Nations.
- Renewable Capacity Statistics is published by IRENA.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
Correct
The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is an intergovernmental organisation that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future, and serves as the principal platform for international co-operation, a centre of excellence, and a repository of policy, technology, resource and financial knowledge on renewable energy.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The IRENA Statute stipulates that membership in the agency is open to those states that are members of the United Nations, and to regional intergovernmental economic-integration organisations.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Renewable Capacity Statistics is published by IRENA.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Members of IRENA must be willing and able to act in accordance with the objectives and activities laid down in the statute.
India, China, Pakistan and United States of America are members of IRENA.
Incorrect
The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) is an intergovernmental organisation that supports countries in their transition to a sustainable energy future, and serves as the principal platform for international co-operation, a centre of excellence, and a repository of policy, technology, resource and financial knowledge on renewable energy.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The IRENA Statute stipulates that membership in the agency is open to those states that are members of the United Nations, and to regional intergovernmental economic-integration organisations.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Renewable Capacity Statistics is published by IRENA.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
Members of IRENA must be willing and able to act in accordance with the objectives and activities laid down in the statute.
India, China, Pakistan and United States of America are members of IRENA.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements
- SDG India Index is constructed by NITI Aayog.
- SDG India Index covers all the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDG’s).
- SDG India Index tracks the progress of all the States and UTs in achieving SDG’s.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
NITI Aayog has constructed the SDG India Index spanning across 13 out of 17 SDG’s (leaving out goals 12, 13, 14, and 17).
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
The Index tracks the progress of all the States and UTs on a set of 62 Priority Indicators, measuring their progress on the outcomes of the interventions and schemes of the Government of India. The SDG India Index is intended to provide a holistic view on the social, economic and environmental status of the country and its States and UTs.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
SDG India Index does not currently cover Goals 12, 13 and 14 largely on account of unavailability of comparable data across States and UTs. Further, SDG 17 is also not included given that indicators have not been identified by National Indicator Framework for this goal.
Incorrect
NITI Aayog has constructed the SDG India Index spanning across 13 out of 17 SDG’s (leaving out goals 12, 13, 14, and 17).
Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
The Index tracks the progress of all the States and UTs on a set of 62 Priority Indicators, measuring their progress on the outcomes of the interventions and schemes of the Government of India. The SDG India Index is intended to provide a holistic view on the social, economic and environmental status of the country and its States and UTs.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
Additional Information:
SDG India Index does not currently cover Goals 12, 13 and 14 largely on account of unavailability of comparable data across States and UTs. Further, SDG 17 is also not included given that indicators have not been identified by National Indicator Framework for this goal.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding United Nations High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development (HLPF)
- It replaced the Commission on Sustainable Development.
- The Forum meets annually under the auspices of the United Nations Economic and Social Council.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The High-level Political Forum’s first meeting was held on 24 September 2013. It replaced the Commission on Sustainable Development, which had met annually since 1993.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Forum meets annually under the auspices of the UN Economic and Social Council for eight days, including a three-day ministerial segment and every four years at the level of Heads of State and Government under the auspices of the General Assembly for two days.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Background:
The annual High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development serves as the central UN platform for the follow-up and review of the SDGs.
Incorrect
The High-level Political Forum’s first meeting was held on 24 September 2013. It replaced the Commission on Sustainable Development, which had met annually since 1993.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Forum meets annually under the auspices of the UN Economic and Social Council for eight days, including a three-day ministerial segment and every four years at the level of Heads of State and Government under the auspices of the General Assembly for two days.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Background:
The annual High-level Political Forum on Sustainable Development serves as the central UN platform for the follow-up and review of the SDGs.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements
- The First Assembly of International Solar Alliance was organized in India.
- ISA membership is open to all the countries that are members of United Nations.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given ex-post facto approval for moving a Resolution in the first Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) for amending the Framework Agreement of the ISA for opening up the ISA membership to all countries that are members of the United Nations.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The First Assembly of the ISA was held from 2nd – 5th October, 2018 at Delhi-NCR, India.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy hosted the First Assembly of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Incorrect
The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has given ex-post facto approval for moving a Resolution in the first Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA) for amending the Framework Agreement of the ISA for opening up the ISA membership to all countries that are members of the United Nations.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The First Assembly of the ISA was held from 2nd – 5th October, 2018 at Delhi-NCR, India.
The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy hosted the First Assembly of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
Hence statement 1 is correct.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Himalayan States Regional Council will be the nodal agency for the Sustainable development in the Himalayan Region.
- NITI Aayog has constituted the Himalayan State Regional Council.
- West Bengal is also one among the twelve states for which the council acts as nodal agency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
NITI Aayog has constituted the ‘Himalayan State Regional Council’ to ensure sustainable development of the Indian Himalayan region.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Himalayan States Regional Council will be the nodal agency for the Sustainable development in the Himalayan Region which consists of the twelve States namely Jammu &Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts of Assam namely Dima Hasao and KarbiAnglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal.
Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Additional Information:
The terms of reference of the Council states that it shall monitor the implementation of action points for Central Ministries, Institutions and 12 Himalayan State Governments in Indian Himalayan Region which include river basin development and regional cooperation, spring mapping and revival across Himalayas in phased manner for water security; develop, implement and monitor tourism sector standards as well as bring policy coherence, strengthen skill & entrepreneurship with focus on identified priority sectors, among other action points.
Incorrect
NITI Aayog has constituted the ‘Himalayan State Regional Council’ to ensure sustainable development of the Indian Himalayan region.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
The Himalayan States Regional Council will be the nodal agency for the Sustainable development in the Himalayan Region which consists of the twelve States namely Jammu &Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, two districts of Assam namely Dima Hasao and KarbiAnglong and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal.
Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
Additional Information:
The terms of reference of the Council states that it shall monitor the implementation of action points for Central Ministries, Institutions and 12 Himalayan State Governments in Indian Himalayan Region which include river basin development and regional cooperation, spring mapping and revival across Himalayas in phased manner for water security; develop, implement and monitor tourism sector standards as well as bring policy coherence, strengthen skill & entrepreneurship with focus on identified priority sectors, among other action points.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
‘Chitmahal Agreement’ recently seen in news is associated with which of the following countries?
Correct
Enclave exchange
- Bangladesh and India had exchanged a total of 162 enclaves on August 1, 2015, ending one of the world’s most-complex border disputes that had lingered for seven decades since Independence.
- As per the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) 1974 and Protocol of 2011, 51 erstwhile Bangladeshi enclaves in India and 111 erstwhile Indian enclaves in Bangladesh were physically transferred to the other country.
- They are also known as the chitmahals
- It settled the question of citizenship for over 50,000 people in these enclaves.
- The enclaves were part of West Bengal, Tripura, Assam and Meghalaya.
Incorrect
Enclave exchange
- Bangladesh and India had exchanged a total of 162 enclaves on August 1, 2015, ending one of the world’s most-complex border disputes that had lingered for seven decades since Independence.
- As per the Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) 1974 and Protocol of 2011, 51 erstwhile Bangladeshi enclaves in India and 111 erstwhile Indian enclaves in Bangladesh were physically transferred to the other country.
- They are also known as the chitmahals
- It settled the question of citizenship for over 50,000 people in these enclaves.
- The enclaves were part of West Bengal, Tripura, Assam and Meghalaya.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Which of the following are examples of ‘over-the-top (OTT) services’?
- Netflix
- HotStar
Select the correct code:
Correct
Over the top is a term used to refer to content providers that distribute streaming media as a standalone product directly to viewers over the Internet, bypassing telecommunications, multichannel television, and broadcast television platforms that traditionally act as a controller or distributor of such content.
OTT television, usually called internet television or streaming television, remains the most popular OTT content. This signal is received over the internet or through a cell phone network, as opposed to receiving the television signal from a terrestrial broadcast or satellite. Access is controlled by the video distributor, through either an app or a separate OTT dongle or box, connected to a phone, PC or television set.
OTT messaging is defined as instant messaging services or online chat provided by third parties, as an alternative to text messaging services provided by a mobile network operator. An example is the Facebook-owned mobile application WhatsApp, that serves to replace text messaging on Internet connected smartphones. Other providers of OTT messaging include Viber, WeChat, Skype, Telegram and Google Allo.
OTT voice calling, usually called VOIP, capabilities, for instance, as provided by Skype, WeChat, Viber, and WhatsApp use open internet communication protocols to replace and sometimes enhance existing operator controlled services offered by mobile phone operators.
Incorrect
Over the top is a term used to refer to content providers that distribute streaming media as a standalone product directly to viewers over the Internet, bypassing telecommunications, multichannel television, and broadcast television platforms that traditionally act as a controller or distributor of such content.
OTT television, usually called internet television or streaming television, remains the most popular OTT content. This signal is received over the internet or through a cell phone network, as opposed to receiving the television signal from a terrestrial broadcast or satellite. Access is controlled by the video distributor, through either an app or a separate OTT dongle or box, connected to a phone, PC or television set.
OTT messaging is defined as instant messaging services or online chat provided by third parties, as an alternative to text messaging services provided by a mobile network operator. An example is the Facebook-owned mobile application WhatsApp, that serves to replace text messaging on Internet connected smartphones. Other providers of OTT messaging include Viber, WeChat, Skype, Telegram and Google Allo.
OTT voice calling, usually called VOIP, capabilities, for instance, as provided by Skype, WeChat, Viber, and WhatsApp use open internet communication protocols to replace and sometimes enhance existing operator controlled services offered by mobile phone operators.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Sea surface temperature in the Indian and Pacific Oceans has no effect on the heat waves
- Duration and area of spread of heat waves in India is steadily decreasing over the past decade
Select the correct statements
Correct
Heat wave
- A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India. Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
- The extreme temperatures and resultant atmospheric conditions adversely affect people living in these regions as they cause physiological stress, sometimes resulting in death.
- It is considered if maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains, 37°C or more for coastal stations and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.
Following criteria are used to declare heat wave:
Based on Departure from Normal
- Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.5°C to 6.4°C
- Severe Heat Wave: Departure from normal is >6.4°C
Based on Actual Maximum Temperature (for plains only)
- Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥ 45°C
- Severe Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥47°C
To declare heat wave, the above criteria should be met at least in 2 stations in a Meteorological sub-division for at least two consecutive days and it will be declared on the second day
From 2014-2017, the average length of heatwaves in India ranged from 3-4 days compared to the global average of 0.8-1.8 days
More Info
- Heatwaves are associated with increased rates of heat stress and heat stroke, worsening heart failure and acute kidney injury from dehydration.
- The time series of frequency, duration and maximum duration clearly suggests a link between the El Nino events and heat wave events over India.
- The years that record above-normal heat wave activity in India are also the years that follow El Nino events
- Sea surface temperature in the Indian and Pacific Oceans play a large role in the creation of heat waves, adding that increases in greenhouse gase emissions can also lead to further warming of the oceans.
- With warming of the tropical Indian Ocean and increasing frequency of extreme El Nino events, more frequent and long lasting heat wave events are likely over the Indian sub-continent in near future.
- In India, the frequency of heat waves has increased by one event in 20 years and that the average duration of heat waves has risen by two days per decade.
Incorrect
Heat wave
- A Heat Wave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, more than the normal maximum temperature that occurs during the summer season in the North-Western parts of India. Heat Waves typically occur between March and June, and in some rare cases even extend till July.
- The extreme temperatures and resultant atmospheric conditions adversely affect people living in these regions as they cause physiological stress, sometimes resulting in death.
- It is considered if maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains, 37°C or more for coastal stations and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.
Following criteria are used to declare heat wave:
Based on Departure from Normal
- Heat Wave: Departure from normal is 4.5°C to 6.4°C
- Severe Heat Wave: Departure from normal is >6.4°C
Based on Actual Maximum Temperature (for plains only)
- Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥ 45°C
- Severe Heat Wave: When actual maximum temperature ≥47°C
To declare heat wave, the above criteria should be met at least in 2 stations in a Meteorological sub-division for at least two consecutive days and it will be declared on the second day
From 2014-2017, the average length of heatwaves in India ranged from 3-4 days compared to the global average of 0.8-1.8 days
More Info
- Heatwaves are associated with increased rates of heat stress and heat stroke, worsening heart failure and acute kidney injury from dehydration.
- The time series of frequency, duration and maximum duration clearly suggests a link between the El Nino events and heat wave events over India.
- The years that record above-normal heat wave activity in India are also the years that follow El Nino events
- Sea surface temperature in the Indian and Pacific Oceans play a large role in the creation of heat waves, adding that increases in greenhouse gase emissions can also lead to further warming of the oceans.
- With warming of the tropical Indian Ocean and increasing frequency of extreme El Nino events, more frequent and long lasting heat wave events are likely over the Indian sub-continent in near future.
- In India, the frequency of heat waves has increased by one event in 20 years and that the average duration of heat waves has risen by two days per decade.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
- Individuals born in India to parents on temporary visas are Indian citizens.
- India follows ‘Jus soli’ system of citizenship
Select the correct statements
Correct
Most countries follow one of the two following systems: jus soli or jus sanguinis. Jus soli is a Latin term meaning law of the soil. Many countries follow jus soli, more commonly known as birthright citizenship. Under this concept, citizenship of an individual is determined by the place where the individual was born. So a child of an immigrant is a citizen as long as he/she is born in the country of immigration. The US follows the jus soli system to determine citizenship. Therefore, whoever is born in the US and is subject to its jurisdiction is automatically granted US citizenship.
Jus sanguinis is when a person acquires citizenship through descent, i.e. through their parents or ancestors independent of where he/she is born. For example, a child born in India must have at least one parent who is an Indian citizen to be conferred citizenship.
Incorrect
Most countries follow one of the two following systems: jus soli or jus sanguinis. Jus soli is a Latin term meaning law of the soil. Many countries follow jus soli, more commonly known as birthright citizenship. Under this concept, citizenship of an individual is determined by the place where the individual was born. So a child of an immigrant is a citizen as long as he/she is born in the country of immigration. The US follows the jus soli system to determine citizenship. Therefore, whoever is born in the US and is subject to its jurisdiction is automatically granted US citizenship.
Jus sanguinis is when a person acquires citizenship through descent, i.e. through their parents or ancestors independent of where he/she is born. For example, a child born in India must have at least one parent who is an Indian citizen to be conferred citizenship.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following countries opens out to ‘Ionian Sea’?
Correct
Ionia Sea is an elongated bay of the Mediterranean Sea, south of the Adriatic Sea. It is bounded by Southern Italy including Calabria, Sicily, and the Salento peninsula to the west, southern Albania to the north, and the west coast of Greece.
Incorrect
Ionia Sea is an elongated bay of the Mediterranean Sea, south of the Adriatic Sea. It is bounded by Southern Italy including Calabria, Sicily, and the Salento peninsula to the west, southern Albania to the north, and the west coast of Greece.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
With reference to term ‘Annualised Slippage Ratio’, which of the following is correct?
Correct
The annualised slippage ratio (i.e. the percentage of fresh NPAs as percentage of standard advances at the beginning of the quarter) has also witnessed a declining trend over the past two quarters, which is again reflective of the improving credit discipline- RBI REPORT.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/npas-on-downhill-path-since-march-peak-says-rbi/article25608250.ece
Incorrect
The annualised slippage ratio (i.e. the percentage of fresh NPAs as percentage of standard advances at the beginning of the quarter) has also witnessed a declining trend over the past two quarters, which is again reflective of the improving credit discipline- RBI REPORT.
https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/npas-on-downhill-path-since-march-peak-says-rbi/article25608250.ece
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) is a:
Correct
China’s “artificial sun” (EAST) has for the first time achieved a plasma central electron temperature of 100 million degrees celsius, marking a key step in China’s future fusion reactor experiment.
A Chinese team operating the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) managed to heat the reactor’s internal plasma to 100 million degrees Celsius (212 million Fahrenheit). That’s six times hotter than the sun, but it doesn’t have any net power generation.
Additional Information
In stars, hydrogen fuses into helium, and eventually into heavier elements. The fusion process releases large amounts of energy, and the byproducts of fusion aren’t radioactive. The only nuclear power we’ve managed to utilize on Earth is fission, which requires dangerous radioactive materials and comes with the risk of a reactor meltdown.
It’s easy to see why there’s so much interest in fusion, but it’s hard to coax atoms together in a reactor. Once you get fission going, it’s self-sustaining. Fusion requires constant energy input because we don’t have the concentrated gravity of the sun to smash atoms together. The best way we’ve found to do it is with a tokamak-style reactor — that’s what EAST is.
A tokamak heats hydrogen (usually a deuterium isotope) to high temperatures until it becomes plasma. Magnetic fields then squeeze the plasma together inside the reactor’s toroidal internal chamber. Some of the molecules will fuse and release energy. However, all tokamak reactors thus far have consumed more power than they created.
https://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/world/china-watch/technology/nuclear-fusion-reactor/
Incorrect
China’s “artificial sun” (EAST) has for the first time achieved a plasma central electron temperature of 100 million degrees celsius, marking a key step in China’s future fusion reactor experiment.
A Chinese team operating the Experimental Advanced Superconducting Tokamak (EAST) managed to heat the reactor’s internal plasma to 100 million degrees Celsius (212 million Fahrenheit). That’s six times hotter than the sun, but it doesn’t have any net power generation.
Additional Information
In stars, hydrogen fuses into helium, and eventually into heavier elements. The fusion process releases large amounts of energy, and the byproducts of fusion aren’t radioactive. The only nuclear power we’ve managed to utilize on Earth is fission, which requires dangerous radioactive materials and comes with the risk of a reactor meltdown.
It’s easy to see why there’s so much interest in fusion, but it’s hard to coax atoms together in a reactor. Once you get fission going, it’s self-sustaining. Fusion requires constant energy input because we don’t have the concentrated gravity of the sun to smash atoms together. The best way we’ve found to do it is with a tokamak-style reactor — that’s what EAST is.
A tokamak heats hydrogen (usually a deuterium isotope) to high temperatures until it becomes plasma. Magnetic fields then squeeze the plasma together inside the reactor’s toroidal internal chamber. Some of the molecules will fuse and release energy. However, all tokamak reactors thus far have consumed more power than they created.
https://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/world/china-watch/technology/nuclear-fusion-reactor/
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The term BDR-10, recently in news correctly defines:
Correct
Tropical Tasar Silkworm (BDR-10)race developed by the Central Silk Board have 21% more productivity than the traditional Daba breed.
Farmers can get upto 52 kg cocoons per 100 disease free layings (dfls).
This silkworm breed will help the tribal farmers of Jharkhand, Chattishgarh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
Incorrect
Tropical Tasar Silkworm (BDR-10)race developed by the Central Silk Board have 21% more productivity than the traditional Daba breed.
Farmers can get upto 52 kg cocoons per 100 disease free layings (dfls).
This silkworm breed will help the tribal farmers of Jharkhand, Chattishgarh, Odisha, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Maharastra, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The term ‘Oumuamua’ has been making a lot of buzz in recent times. What is it?
Correct
Scientists pointed NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope toward the object known as ‘Oumuamua – the first known interstellar object to visit our solar system. The infrared Spitzer was one of many telescopes pointed at ‘Oumuamua.
Incorrect
Scientists pointed NASA’s Spitzer Space Telescope toward the object known as ‘Oumuamua – the first known interstellar object to visit our solar system. The infrared Spitzer was one of many telescopes pointed at ‘Oumuamua.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The term ‘Heavenly Palace’ recently in news correctly defines:
Correct
China revealed some life-sized replicas of components going into a space station of its own making. The new station ‘Tiangong-2’ or ‘Heavenly Palace’ in Chinese was unveiled at China’s largest aerospace exhibition.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/china-unveils-new-heavenly-palace-space-station-as-iss-days-numbered/article25437361.ece
Incorrect
China revealed some life-sized replicas of components going into a space station of its own making. The new station ‘Tiangong-2’ or ‘Heavenly Palace’ in Chinese was unveiled at China’s largest aerospace exhibition.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/china-unveils-new-heavenly-palace-space-station-as-iss-days-numbered/article25437361.ece
