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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

ECONOMICS [DAY 10] 

Q.1) With respect to inequality measurement, consider the following statements:

1. Lorenz Curve: It calculates degree of income inequality
2. Gini Coefficient: It measures distribution of Income in an economy

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements with reference to Gini Coefficient:

1. A value of 1 indicates perfect equality and 0 indicates perfect inequality
2. Gini Index is defined based on the Lorenz Curve
3. IMF publishes report on Gini index

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3only
4. 3 only

Q.3) Consider the following statements about poverty

1. Poverty can be termed as ‘cognitive tax’ on the poor
2. Poverty brings in wide ranging behavioural changes in a person
3. Poverty keeps the vicious cycle perpetuating forever

Choose the correct statements using the codes given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.4) Consider the following statements

1. Headcount ratio is the percentage of population that lives below the poverty line. It gives the exact picture of poverty in India
2. Poverty Gap is the difference between average income of BPL population and the BPL. It does not provide the exact picture of poverty in India.

Which of the above statement/s is/are true?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the statements about MDGs and SDGs

1. MDGs started the campaign to end global poverty and hunger, while SDGs aim to realise it comprehensively.
2. Both MDGs and SDGs emphasised on the ‘Data Revolution’ i.e., track the performance using Big Data.
3. Peace building as an integral part of ending poverty and hunger was recognised by only SDGs.

Choose the correct statements using the codes given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.6) Which of the following are the disadvantages of the Universal Basic Income?

1. Freedom of choice
2. Poverty reduction
3. Wasteful expenditure
4. Moral Hazard

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.7) The Socio-Economic Caste Census could be efficiently used to improve

1. Reservation policy of India
2. Selecting scholarship beneficiaries
3. National Food Security Scheme
4. Promoting private sector investment

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Q.8) Select the correct statement about the term ‘unemployment trap’

1. A situation in the economy when the rate of employment growth is less than the rate of increase in the unemployed population
2. A situation when unemployed population of an economy does not feel encouraged to become employed
3. A situation of frictional unemployment when there is a heavy rush of labour force from the primary to the secondary activities
4. A situation when existing job loss is higher than the new jobs created

Q.9) Consider the following parameters:

1. GDP per capita
2. Employment
3. Productivity
4. Life expectancy

‘Inclusive development Index’ (IDI) takes into account which of the above?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Q.10) Which of the following best describe the term ‘Learning Poverty’?

1. Unwillingness of come out of poverty.
2. Unwillingness to engage in more productive work.
3. The state of being unable to read and understand a simple text by age 10.
4. Transfer of poverty from generation to generation.

Q.11) Which of the following correctly explains the inadequate nature of calorie-based norm to identify the poor?

1. It groups all the poor together and does not differentiate between the very poor and the other poor.
2. It takes into account expenditure on food and a few select items as proxy for income which proves difficult to identify who among the poor need help the most.

Choose the correct code

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

Q.12) Consider the following statements with reference to different type of Economic curve and their definitions:

1. Engel curve: It displays how household expenditure on a particular good or service varies with change in household income.
2. Beveridge curve: It shows relationship between unemployment and job vacancy rate.
3. Phillips curve: It shows relation between inflation and unemployment has a stable and inverse relationship.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Consider the following statements with reference to Voluntary Unemployment:

1. It refers to the situation when the worker deliberately chooses not to work because of a low wage scale
2. Most frictional unemployment is considered voluntary unemployment.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

1. The major reason for cyclical unemployment is lack of demand in the economy and slowdown of economic activity.
2. Structural unemployment usually occurs due to the mismatch of skills.
3. Disguised unemployment is when too many people are employed than what is required to produce efficiently.
4. The minimum amount of unemployment that prevails in an economy due to workers quitting their previous jobs and are searching for the new jobs is called Involuntary Unemployment.

Q.15) Which of the following factors can be attributed to growth of unemployment in India?

1. Slow growth in agricultural and industrial productivity.
2. Slow expansion of manufacturing sector.
3. Concentration of investment in capital goods industry.

Select the correct answer from below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Which among the following correctly defines the term ‘Dependency Ratio’?

1. It is the ratio of population dependent on the agricultural sector.
2. It is the ratio of children below the age of 15 and older persons above 65 years to the working age population.
3. It is the ratio of the population below the poverty line.
4. It is the number of persons unemployed per thousand persons.

Q.17) Which of the following ‘Sustainable Development Goals’ (SDGs) is correct?

1. Goal 4 is End poverty in all its forms everywhere.
2. Goal 2 is Ensure healthy lives and promote wellbeing for all ages.
3. Goal 5 is Ensure availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all.
4. Goal 11 is Make cities and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable.

Q.18) There is a paradoxical effect where increase in human capital may not lead to economic growth. Which of the following best explains this nebulous phenomenon?

1. Education measured in terms of years of schooling, teacher-pupil ratio and enrolment rates may not reflect the quality of education.
2. Health services measured in monetary terms, life expectancy and mortality rates may not reflect the true health status of the people in a country.
3. Both a and b
4. None of the above

Q.19) Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) 3.0:

1. PMKVY 3.0 envisages training of eight lakh candidates over the scheme period of 2020-2021.
2. With the advent of PMKVY 3.0, the focus is on bridging the demand-supply gap by promoting skill development in areas of new-age and Industry 4.0 job roles.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) With reference to Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM), consider the following statements:

1. It is a centrally sector programme, launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in 2011.
2. To aim to eliminate rural poverty through the promotion of multiple livelihoods and improved access to financial services for the rural poor households across the country

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) With reference to The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Act, 2020, consider the following statements:

1. The Act allows inter-state trade of farmers produce outside the physical premises of APMC market.
2. The Act provides a framework for electronic trading of agricultural produce.
3. The Act empowers State governments to collect market fee, cess or levy for trade outside the APMC markets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) World’s largest tropical wetland, Pantanal borders which of the following countries?

1. Brazil, Bolivia and Paraguay
2. Brazil, Peru and Bolivia
3. Paraguay, Uruguay and Argentina
4. Brazil, Bolivia and Uruguay

Q.23) With reference to Conference on Interaction and Confidence-Building Measures in Asia (CICA), consider the following statements:

1. It is a multi-national forum for enhancing cooperation towards promoting peace, security and stability in Asia.
2. The idea of convening the CICA was first proposed by India at the United Nations General Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Which of the following statements regarding Brucellosis is NOT correct?

1. Brucellosis is a bacterial zoonotic disease.
2. Brucellosis mainly infect cattle, swine, goats, sheep and dogs.
3. Humans generally acquire the Brucellosis disease through direct contact with infected animals.
4. Brucella abortusS19 delta per vaccine is developed by National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID).

Q.25) The Global Biodiversity Outlook report is published by which of the following?

1. World Wildlife Fund (WWF)
2. Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES)
3. Convention on Biological Diversity
4. Conservation International

Q.26) With reference to Science and Engineering Research Board (SERB), consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body.
2. Supporting basic research in emerging areas of Science & Engineering is its primary mandate.
3. It offers JC Bose National Fellowship for brilliant scientists and engineers from all over the world to take up scientific research positions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding National Initiative for Developing and Harnessing Innovations (NIDHI) programme:

1. It is an umbrella program pioneered by the Department of Science & Technology (DST).
2. It supports aspiring entrepreneurs for pursuing a promising technology business idea with a subsistence grant up to Rs 2 lakh per month to each Entrepreneur in Residence.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) The ‘Partial Credit Guarantee Scheme (PCGS) 2.0’ provides greater flexibility to state-owned banks in purchasing bonds of which of the following?

1. Non-Banking Financial Companies
2. Co-operative Societies
3. Small Finance Banks and Payment Banks
4. Urban Co-operative Banks

Q.29) The Convention on Road Traffic is commonly known as which of the following?

1. Geneva Convention
2. Brisilia Convention
3. Singapore Convention
4. Warsaw Convention

Q.30) Recently Renati Chola Era inscription has been unearthed in which of the following state of India?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Telangana
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Kerala

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

The Criminal Investigation Department often makes use of fingerprints in identifying culprits. This procedure is based on the accepted truth that the fingerprints of no two individuals are the same. A glance at the five fingers of our own hand convinces us of the differences that exist among them. No two individuals are the same, not even identical twins. Everyone is different from the other in one way or another.

Noticeable differences may exist in size, weight, age appearance, colour, voice, smile, etc. There are other differences which are not easily observable. Differences exist in the mental make-up, psychological actions, understanding capacity, attitudes, abilities, interests, etc.

Every individual is a separate entity having his or her own identity. It speaks highly of the Creator who has not created human beings like the modern machine-made goods. Every individual has been created separately land differently from the rest.

Individual differences exist because of heredity, family background, education,, environment, etc. Whatever the causes or reasons, we must accept the fact that there are individual differences both perceptible and non-perceptible. Consequently, two individuals cannot be expected to react to a situation or a problem in the same way. There are as many opinions as there are men. It is bound to be so. One should not be surprised to get different opinions from different people on the same issue.

Individual differences affect the actions, reactions and performances of people. In a family of three children, the eldest may to extremely well at studies, and the parents expect the same kind of performance from the others. It is certainly unjust and unfair as each of them is different in several ways. Very often we wonder why a person reacts the way he or she does. We consider that person to be strange, abnormal or stupid. Yet, that person may be quite normal and intelligent. These differences in reactions can be understood only if individual differences are kept in mind. In fact, this concept helps people understand each other better. It results in respect and appreciation for each other’s views.

It is understood that each one is a separate individual with his or her own identity. No one is expected to be a carbon copy of another. We may imitate or hero-worship, but it would be wrong to identify ourselves with someone else. We are different and must remain so in our thoughts, words and actions.

Q.31) What are the causes for individuals differences?

1. Every individual has different fingerprints.
2. Every individual wears different clothes and has different hairstyles and appearance.
3. Every individual has a different background, educational environment and heredity.
4. Every individual is the offspring of different parents.

Q.32) Find the incorrect statement on the basis of the given passage.

1. It is unjust and unfair to think all the children of the same person to be identical.
2. Two sons of the same parents will react to situation in the same way if they are identical twins.
3. The procedure of the CID is based on the truth that the fingerprints of no two individuals are the same.
4. No one is expected to be a carbon copy of another.

Q.33) A motorbike leaves point A at 1 pm and moves towards point B at a uniform speed. A car leaves point B at 2 pm and moves towards point A at a uniform speed which is double that of the motorbike. They meet at 3:40 pm at a point which is 168 km away from A. What is the distance, in km, between A and B?

1. 364
2. 378
3. 380
4. 415

Q.34) 2 cars facing each other are at a distance of 500 m from each other. Each car moves forward by 100 m at a speed of 50 m/s and then moves backwards by 50 m at a speed of 25 m/s. How long will they take to collide?

1. 14 sec
2. 13 sec
3. 11 sec
4. 10 sec

Q.35) In an examination, a student had to obtain 40% of the maximum marks to pass. He got 130 marks and failed by 30 marks. The maximum marks of the examination were?

1. 280
2. 400
3. 340
4. 390

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 25PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba