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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

GEOGRAPHY [DAY 32] 

Q.1) Which among the following are physical processes in soil formation?

1. Lateralization
2. Podzolization
3. Salinization
4. Gleization

Choose the correct option:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 3

Q.2) With reference to “factors controlling the soil formation”, consider the following statements:

1. Relief determines the fertility of soil.
2. Parent material determines the texture of soil.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

1. Clayey soil has the highest water holding capacity.
2. Soil texture tells about the workability of soil.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

1. Pedocals are formed in humid conditions whereas pedalfars forms in arid and semi-arid conditions.
2. Pedalfars are acidic soil.
3. Pedocals have low organic content.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Q.5) Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

Select the correct option using the codes given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Q.6) Consider the following conditions:

1. Average rainfall of less than 75 cms.
2. Mean Annual temperature about 25-30 degree centigrade.
3. Mean Humidity less than 50 percent.
4. Trees found are low and widely scattered.

Which of the following forests type characterizes above mentioned conditions?

1. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
2. Montane Subtropical Forests
3. Tropical Thorn Forests
4. Swamp Forests

Q.7) Teak, Axlewood and Tendu are the trees of which type of forests in India?

1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Montane Forests
3. Tropical Thorn Forests
4. Tropical Deciduous Forests

Q.8) Arrange the following sources of renewable energy  in descending order in terms of their percentage of the global renewable power generation capacity.

1. Hydropower
2. Solar power
3. Wind energy
4. Bioenergy

Choose the correct option:

1. 1-2-3-4
2. 1-3-2-4
3. 2-3-1-4
4. 2-1-3-4

Q.9) With reference to “unconventional sources of natural gas”, consider the following statements:

1. Shales are fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
2. China is estimated to have the world’s largest shale gas reserves.
3. Coalbed Methane extraction falls under Ministry of Coal.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. India has increased its non-fossil fuel target to 450 GW by 2030.
2. IRIX is a platform initiated by Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.11) Consider the following statements about gleization:

1. It is a dominant process in well-drained soils.
2. High rainfall always results in the formation of glays.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q.12) Select the incorrect statement about laterization:

1. This is a dominant process in high rainfall areas within the tropics.
2. Sesquioxides get leached away due to heavy rainfall.
3. Eluviated layer of the soil contains very little silica.
4. Laterite soils are not very fertile.

Q.13) Consider the following statements about soil structure:

1. It is the arrangement of the solid parts of the soil and of the pore spaces located between them.
2. The soil structure is enhanced under most types of cultivation.
3. Biological activity affects soil structure.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q.14) Consider the following statements related to soil pH:

1. Soil pH has a huge effect on the solubility of minerals and nutrients in the soil.
2. Rainwater leaching away basic ions can increase pH.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q.15) Consider the following statements about peaty soils in India:

1. Peaty soils are found in areas of high rainfall.
2. Peaty soils are highly acidic.
3. Peaty soils are found in north-west Bihar.

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. None of the above.

Q.16) Which of the following statements is incorrect among the given options?

1. Forest soils are high in soil organic carbon.
2. Forest soils are neutral to slightly alkaline in character.
3. High organic content helps in retention of soil moisture.
4. All the above statements are correct.

Q.17) Consider the following statements about humus:

1. Humus is formed due to the process called mineralization.
2. Humus has a dark color due to accumulation of organic carbon.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Q.18) Consider the following statements about the Taiga Biome:

1. It is the largest land biome.
2. These are dense forests formed due to heavy precipitation throughout the year.
3. Fire has been one of the important factors shaping the taiga forests.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Q.19) Match the following grasslands with its area of existence:

1. Chaurs                         A. Brahmaputra plains
2. Terai grasslands        B. Gujarat
3. Vidis                            C. Satpuras
4. Valley grasslands      D. Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct options:

1. 1-A,2-D,3-C,4-B
2. 1-D,2-A,3-B,4-C
3. 1-C,2-A,3-B,4-D
4. 1-C,2-A,3-C,4-B

Q.20) Consider the following statements about gas hydrates:

1. Gas hydrates are a type of clathrate compound.
2. Gas hydrates are found in areas of high pressure and low temperature conditions.
3. A large reserve of gas hydrates have been discovered in the Arabian Sea off the Mumbai coast.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Q.21) Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as President of the Indian National Congress in which of the following two sessions?

1. Haripur Session
2. Ramgarh Session
3. Faizpur Session
4. Tripuri Session

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Q.22) Which of the following are reasons behind increasing human wildlife conflicts in recent past?

1. Loss of Habitat
2. Adverse climatic events
3. Over grazing

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.23) Changalikodan is a banana variety originated and cultivated in which of the following State of India?

1. Kerala
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Telangana

Q.24) With reference to the South Asia Group for Energy (SAGE), consider the following statements:

1. It is a high-level group for South Asia energy security.
2. It has been set up under the Ministry of External Affairs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Which of the following Acts empowered the Government to notify the Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Safety) Rules, 2017?

1. National Security Act, 1980
2. Information Technology Act, 2000
3. Indian Telegraph Act of 1885
4. Maintenance of Internal Security Act, 1971

Q.26) Consider the following research stations:

1. Bharati
2. Dakshin Gangotri
3. Maitri
4. Himadri

Which of the research stations given above are operational in Antarctica?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

1. Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR) is the ratio of provisioning to gross non-performing assets.
2. A high PCR ratio means that the bank is more vulnerable.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) The West bank territory of Western Asia borders with which of the following country?

1. Lebanon
2. Syria
3. Jordan
4. Egypt

Q.29) Consider the following statements regarding the Aqua Rejuvenation Plant (ARP):

1. It is an Integrated Waste Water Rejuvenation Model which has two-stage purification profile for comprehensive treatment of waste water.
2. The filtered sludge generated is utilized as manure.
3. It facilitates an organic farming model through treated waste water.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) The PREZODE initiative aims to keep the risk of which of the following?

1. Nuclear weapons
2. Zoonotic diseases
3. Climate Change
4. Ocean pollution

Directions for the following 3 (three) questions:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

The success of the bold direct taxation proposals contained in the Union budget for 2004-05 will have a crucial bearing on the realisation of the targeted fiscal deficit projection for the year, according to economists and tax consultants. In particular, the amnesty scheme introduced to harness black money is being seen as vital to the government’s calculations. Finance minister P Chidambaram announced in his budget presentation that he was expecting to augment direct tax revenues by 15 to 16 per cent.

This has led analysts to conclude that the attainment of the government’s direct taxation target would be largely dependent on widening the tax net and would also significantly depend on the success of the amnesty scheme announced to induct black money into the mainstream economy. Most tax consultants opined that the amnesty scheme would draw an extremely favourable response. “It is a tremendous opportunity.”

The finance minister said that residents of metropolitan cities who owned cars, telephones and travelled abroad would be roped into tax net. The budget has also introduced an “estimated income scheme” for retail traders with a turnover less than Rs. 40 lakh. Their income would be estimated at 5 per cent of the turnover and those claiming lower incomes would be subjected to audit. “This would also serve to rope in assesses after the earlier presumptive Rs. 1,400 scheme was a failure.” Another bold and much-sought-after change introduced in the budget is the abolition of taxation of dividend in the hands of the shareholder. Instead, companies would be liable to pay 20 per cent tax on dividend distributed.

Q.31) “It is tremendous opportunity.” In this sentence ‘It’ refers to

1. direct taxation proposals
2. widening the tax net
3. amnesty scheme
4. Budget 2004-05

Q.32) According to the passage, the success of the bold direct taxation proposals will have a bearing upon

1. The attainment of the government’s direct taxation target.
2. Not widening the tax net.
3. Decreasing direct tax revenues.
4. Realisation of the targeted fiscal deficit projection.

Q.33) What change has been introduced in the budget for 2004-05?

1. Companies have been exempted from paying 10 percent tax on dividend.
2. Abolition of taxation of dividend to the shareholders.
3. To support corporate sector in particular
4. To impose double taxation on dividend income.

Q.34) In a certain code language ‘HORSE’ is written as 71417184, then the word ‘MONKEY’ is coded as:

1. 11141216425
2. 12141310424
3. 12151411325
4. 12151210424

Q.35) In a certain code language, “LOYALTY” is written as “ZUMBZPM”. How is “LAUGHTER” written in that code language?

1. SFHJOMN
2. SFUIHVBM
3. SHFOJMK
4. SHFOMJL

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 25 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba