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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

HISTORY [DAY 52] 

Q.1) With reference to Religious and social reform movement, consider the following statements:

1. Social service league was founded by Bal Shastri Jambhekar.
2. The followers of Pramhansa Mandali believed in one God.
3. Self –Respect movement was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Cunningham circular is associated with which of the following movement?

1. Non-cooperation movement
2. Swadeshi Movement
3. Quit India movement
4. Civil disobedience movement

Q.3) The General Service Enlistment Act is associated with?

1. Recruitment of Indian civil services.
2. Empowerment of provinces to recruit its own agent.
3. It ruled that Indian soldiers had to go overseas if required.
4. Service allocation to British Sepoy.

Q.4) ‘She was an Indian social reformer, a pioneer in the education and emancipation of women, she founded Arya Mahila Samaj and wrote a book titled ‘High caste, Hindu women’ in English’. Which of the following women is being referred here?

1. Pandita Ramabai
2. Savitribai Phule
3. Ramabai Ranade
4. Kadambini Ganguli

Q.5) consider the following pairs 

Treaty : Signatory

1. Treaty of Seringapatnam : Haider Ali and East India company
2. Treaty of Allahabad : Shah Alam II and Robert Clive
3. Treaty of Salbai : Peshwa and East India company

Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched?

1. and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.6) With reference to Coinage system of different period, consider the following statements and identify the incorrect one –

1. Satavahana kings mostly used lead as a material for their coins
2. The coins of Eastern Chalukyan dynasty (7th–12th century AD) had symbol of the boar at the centre.
3. Fish was an important symbol on coins of Pallava dynasty.
4. Silver Tanka and Copper Jital was introduced by Iltutmish.

Q.7) With reference to Koodiyattam, consider the following statements:

1. It is Sankrit theatre from Kerala.
2. It is mostly performed at the time of annual temple festivals of Mariamman (Rain goddess) to achieve rich harvest.

Select the correct code from the above statements

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both
4. None

Q.8) Consider the following pairs:

Commission : Associated with

1. Shore commission : Famine 
2. Aitchison commission : Public service reforms
3. Fowler commission : Currency situation

Which of the above given pairs are correctly matched? 

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.9) Consider the following statements with reference to Woods dispatch:

1. It is known as ‘Magnacarta of English education in India.’
2. It recommended Vernacular as a medium of instruction for higher studies for natives.
3. It asked the government to assume the responsibility of masses.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.10) Consider the following statements:

1. Ramosi Peasant Force aimed to rid the country of the British by instigating an armed revolt by disrupting communication lines.
2. Madan lal Dhingra Assassinated India office bureaucrat Curzon- Wylie in 1909

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2  only
3. Both
4. None

Q.11) Which of the following were features of Non–Cooperation movement?

1. No tax campaign was started in Andhra Pradesh.
2. Akali movement was also started as a part of this movement.
3. The movement aroused resentment among Moplah against their Hindu lords.

Select the correct code

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Which of the following events didn’t occur during the reign of Lord Rippon?

1. Resolution for Local Self-Government in India 1882.
2. Age for Civil Service exam was raised again to 21 years from 19.
3. The ILBERT Bill Controversy 
4. Introduced uniform salt tax throughout British India.

Q.13) Which of the following were features of August Offer?

1. Dominion status as the objective for India.
2. Expansion of viceroy’s executive council which would have a majority of Indians.
3. No future constitutions to be adopted without the consent of Minority.

Select the correct code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Which of the following theatre depicts the mythological tale of a battle between Goddess Kali and demon Darika?

1. Mudiyettu
2. Yakshgana
3. Dashavtaar
4. Bhand Panther

Q.15) Consider the following statements/features with reference to Government of India Act 1919. Identify the incorrect statement:

1. It introduced system of diarchy in provinces.
2. It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces.
3. It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
4. It separated the provincial budget from central budget.

Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to Odisha School of Architecture

1. The exterior walls were lavishly decorated with intricate carvings, but interior walls were plain.
2. Mandap was known as Jagmohan.
3. Temples were surrounded by a boundary wall as in Dravidian style of temple architecture.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 

Q.17) Which of the following movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi after the failure of August offer

1. Individual Satyagraha
2. Quit India Movement
3. Civil disobedience movement
4. Non-Co-operation movement

Q.18) Consider the following statements with reference to Buddhism

1. The predecessor of Buddha under Buddhism was Kassapa Buddha and his successor will be Maitreya (Future Buddha).
2. Buddhism rejects the concept of existence of Soul (atman).
3. Tripitakas were written in Prakrit language.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) With reference to medieval India, ‘Konrish’ was a 

1. Decorating art
2. A type of ceremonial salutation
3. A craft on stone
4. A dance performed by women in Court

Q.20) With reference to Jainism, consider the following statements:

1. Bhadrabahu was the proponent of Digambara sect.
2. Svetambaras beleive in only four restraints (except Brahmacharya) to be followed to attain Kavalya.
3. Jainism does not believe in concept of Soul.

Select the incorrect statement/s:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. None

Q.21) Which of the following organisation releases ‘World press freedom Index’?

1. Reporters Without Borders
2. World Economic Forum
3. Amnesty International
4. UNDP

Q.22) Recently centre has restricted the use of Liquid oxygen only for medical purposes. Consider the following statements with regard to Liquid oxygen –

1. It is strongly paramagnetic.
2. It is obtained from the oxygen found naturally in air by fractional distillation in a cryogenic air separation plant.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2 
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Respond Program’.

1. It is a programme of Indian armed forces to fight against CoVid.
2. It aims to establish strong links with premiere academic institutions in India to carry out research and developmental projects.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Consider the following statements about Trachoma.

1. It is a neglected tropical diseases and leading cause of blindness worldwide.
2. WHO aims to eliminate it by 2030
3. India aims to eliminate it by 2025.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Q.25) Which of the following is correct about Pressure Swing Absorption plant?

1. It is a technology used to separate some gas species from a mixture of gases under pressure.
2. It operates at near-ambient temperatures and differs significantly from cryogenic distillation techniques of gas separation

Choose correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

Q.26) Recently, ‘India’s first bamboo-dwelling bat with sticky discs was found in which of the following state of India?  

1. Meghalaya
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Q.27) Recently one of the three largest neutrino detectors in the world was launched at which of the following places ?

1. Lake Baikal
2. Gulf of Mexico 
3. Black sea
4. Denmark strait

Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding the types of Inflation:

1. Headline inflation excludes the food and fuel items from core inflation.
2. Core inflation is less volatile then headline inflation.
3. The mandate given to RBI for inflation management is in terms of headline inflation. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2  only
2. 2 only 
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.29) Consider the following statement about Nanosniffer.

1. It is the world’s first Micro sensor based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD).
2. It can detect explosives in less than 10 seconds.
3. NanoSniffer is a 100% Made in India product in terms of R&D and manufacturing.

Which of the above given statement is/ are correct?

1. 1  and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.30) Jowai, Sukri and Jojari are important tributaries of which of the following rivers.

1. Luni
2. Chenab
3. Sabarmati
4. Narmada

Read the following passages and the answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

The Indian government has announced an international competition to design a National War Memorial in New Delhi, to honour all of the Indian soldiers who served in the various wars and counter-insurgency campaigns from 1947 onwards. The terms of the competition also specified that the new structure would be built adjacent to the India Gate – a memorial to the Indian soldiers who died in the First World War. Between the old imperialist memorial and the proposed nationalist one, India’s contribution to the Second World War is airbrushed out of existence.

Q.31) In the above passage what does the author laments the fact

1. there is no recognition of the Indian soldiers who served in the Second World War
2. the new war memorial will be built right next to India Gate
3. India lost thousands of human lives during the Second World War
4. funds will be wasted on another war memorial when we already have the India Gate memorial

Q.32) In the context of the passage, we can infer that the title “Band Aids on a Corpse” suggests that:

1. the nurses who attended the clinics were too poorly trained to provide appropriate medical care
2. the electronic monitoring system was a superficial solution to a serious problem
3. the clinics were better funded, but performance monitoring did not result in any improvement
4. the nurses attended the clinics, but the clinics were ill-equipped

Q.33) A certain amount was deposited at simple interest at a specific rate for 3 years. Had it been deposited at 2% higher rate, it would have fetched Rs 360 more. Find the amount invested

1. Rs 5,500
2. Rs 5,000
3. Rs 6,000
4. Rs 4,500

Q.34) Ganesh lends some money to his friend at 5% per annum of the interest rate. After 2 years, the difference between the Simple and the compound interest on money is Rs 50. What will be the value of the amount at the end of 3 years, if compounded annually?

1. 23,152.5 Rs
2. 23,500 Rs
3. 22,750 Rs
4. 22,850 Rs

Q.35) Ravi purchases 90 pens and sells 40 pens at a gain of 10% and 50 pens at a gain of 20%. Had he sold all of them at a uniform profit of 15% he would have got Rs. 40 less. Find the cost price of each pen.

1. Rs. 80
2. Rs. 75
3. Rs. 90
4. Rs. 100

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

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Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

All the Best! 

IASbaba