IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 18 – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to Geochemical Baseline Atlas of India:
- It consists of maps of metals and their oxides present in the top and bottom soils across India.
- It will help in finding out the future contamination caused by polluting industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The atlas consists of 45 maps of metals, oxides and elements present in the top and bottom soils across India. With a glance at it, we will get to know regions with high and low concentrations of a metal. It will help in finding out the future contamination caused by polluting industries. Notes:
Geochemical Baseline Atlas of India is developed by CSIR-National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI). It will be given to International Union of Global Sciences (IUGS), which is preparing global maps.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The atlas consists of 45 maps of metals, oxides and elements present in the top and bottom soils across India. With a glance at it, we will get to know regions with high and low concentrations of a metal. It will help in finding out the future contamination caused by polluting industries. Notes:
Geochemical Baseline Atlas of India is developed by CSIR-National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI). It will be given to International Union of Global Sciences (IUGS), which is preparing global maps.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements related to the Dissolved Oxygen (DO):
- Higher value of Biological Oxygen Demand indicates low Dissolved Oxygen content in water and high-water quality.
- Chemical Oxygen Demand measures pollution load in water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Higher value of Biological Oxygen Demand indicates low Dissolved Oxygen content in water and high-water quality. The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water. It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Higher value of Biological Oxygen Demand indicates low Dissolved Oxygen content in water and high-water quality. The higher value of BOD indicates low DO content of water. Since BOD is limited to biodegradable materials only. Therefore, it is not a reliable method of measuring pollution load in water.
Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is a slightly better mode used to measure pollution load in water. It is the measure of oxygen equivalent of the requirement of oxidation of total organic matter (i.e biodegradable and non-biodegradable) present in water. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
- A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity with exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss.
- The term was coined by Conservation International in 1988.
- There are a total of 36 hotspots in the world, the last addition is the North American Coastal Plain.
- The current hotspots cover more than 15.7% of the land surface area, but have lost around 85% of their habitat.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity with exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss. The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term ‘biodiversity hotspot’ in 1988. There are a total of 36 hotspots in the world, the last addition is the North American Coastal Plain. The current hotspots cover more than 15.7% of the land surface area, but have lost around 85% of their habitat. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region with significant levels of biodiversity with exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss. The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term ‘biodiversity hotspot’ in 1988. There are a total of 36 hotspots in the world, the last addition is the North American Coastal Plain. The current hotspots cover more than 15.7% of the land surface area, but have lost around 85% of their habitat. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Taj Trapezium Zone (TTZ) is a measure taken by the Central Government to protect Taj Mahal from the adverse effects of air pollution. In this context, which of the statements is/are correct?
- The TTZ has been constituted under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act (or AMASR Act), 1958.
- Besides the Taj Mahal, the zone also comprises the monuments Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Central Government in the exercise of the powers conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has constituted the Taj Trapezium Zone Pollution (Prevention and Control) authority in 1998. It comprises monuments including three World Heritage Sites the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Central Government in the exercise of the powers conferred under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 has constituted the Taj Trapezium Zone Pollution (Prevention and Control) authority in 1998. It comprises monuments including three World Heritage Sites the Taj Mahal, Agra Fort and Fatehpur Sikri. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following is/are the functions powers of the ‘State Pollution Control Board’?
- Reviewing the matters related to the identification and notification of disposal sites
- To cancel the authorization or suspend it, if the occupier of the disposal site is not following the provisions of disposal ailes.
- Issue prohibition orders to the concerned persons from discharging any poisonous or noxious or polluting matter.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Reviewing the matters related to the identification and notification of disposal sites To cancel the authorization or suspend it, if the occupier of the disposal site is not following the provisions of disposal ailes. Issue prohibition orders to the concerned persons from discharging any poisonous or noxious or polluting matter. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Reviewing the matters related to the identification and notification of disposal sites To cancel the authorization or suspend it, if the occupier of the disposal site is not following the provisions of disposal ailes. Issue prohibition orders to the concerned persons from discharging any poisonous or noxious or polluting matter. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
A large fully intact ice shelf across Ellesmere Island of a country recently broke off due to global warming.
Which country is being referred to in the above passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Canada’s 4,000-year-old Milne Ice Shelf, the last fully intact ice-shelf has broken apart due to melting from both hotter air above and warmer water below. Much of the Earth’s ice shelves have collapsed because of rising temperatures in both poles.
The Milne Ice Shelf is at the fringe of Ellesmere Island, in the sparsely populated northern Canadian territory of Nunavut.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Canada’s 4,000-year-old Milne Ice Shelf, the last fully intact ice-shelf has broken apart due to melting from both hotter air above and warmer water below. Much of the Earth’s ice shelves have collapsed because of rising temperatures in both poles.
The Milne Ice Shelf is at the fringe of Ellesmere Island, in the sparsely populated northern Canadian territory of Nunavut.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following compounds was introduced as a substitute for ozone-depleting substances but turned out to be a potent Greenhouse gas?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), was introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase-out of CFCs and HCFCs.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), was introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase-out of CFCs and HCFCs.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
With reference to Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) compounds, consider the following statements:
- These compounds are highly reactive in nature.
- These are non-toxic and non-flammable
- These are used in refrigerators, air conditions and in the plastic industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct These compounds are non-reactive in nature These are non-toxic and non-flammable These are used in refrigerators, air conditions and in the plastic industry. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct These compounds are non-reactive in nature These are non-toxic and non-flammable These are used in refrigerators, air conditions and in the plastic industry. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Environment Impact Assessment Norms in India:
- They are notified under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- All developmental projects require the prior screening by their respective State level Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC).
- Public consultation under these rules requires written consent from at least 10% of the population of the affected area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the Environment Protection Act in 1986, which contains various provisions on EIA methodology and process. All projects or activities included as Category ‘B’ in the Schedule require prior environmental clearance from the State/Union territory Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA). There is no such provision where public consultation under these rules requires written consent from at least 10% of the population of the affected area. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutorily backed by the Environment Protection Act in 1986, which contains various provisions on EIA methodology and process. All projects or activities included as Category ‘B’ in the Schedule require prior environmental clearance from the State/Union territory Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA). There is no such provision where public consultation under these rules requires written consent from at least 10% of the population of the affected area. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following measures can be taken to reduce the incidence or impact of acid rain?
- Washing coal before use in power plants
- Adding lime to surface waters
- Use of fuel cells as a source of energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Washing coal before use in power plants. Adding lime to surface waters. Adding lime into acidic surface waters balances the acidity.
Use of fuel cells as a source of energy. Notes:
Acid rain refers to a mixture of deposited material, both wet and dry, coming from the atmosphere containing more than normal amounts of nitric and sulfuric acids. Simply put, it means rain that is acidic in nature due to the presence of certain pollutants in the air due to cars and industrial processes.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Washing coal before use in power plants. Adding lime to surface waters. Adding lime into acidic surface waters balances the acidity.
Use of fuel cells as a source of energy. Notes:
Acid rain refers to a mixture of deposited material, both wet and dry, coming from the atmosphere containing more than normal amounts of nitric and sulfuric acids. Simply put, it means rain that is acidic in nature due to the presence of certain pollutants in the air due to cars and industrial processes.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following conventions which deal with hazardous waste management:
- Basel Convention
- Rotterdam Convention
- Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
India is a signatory to which of the above given conventions?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
- Basel Convention
- Rotterdam Convention
- Stockholm Convention
Correct Correct Correct The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal. India is a signatory.
Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade. India is a signatory.
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of all intentionally produced POPs found in industrial chemicals and pesticides. India is a signatory.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
- Basel Convention
- Rotterdam Convention
- Stockholm Convention
Correct Correct Correct The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal. India is a signatory.
Rotterdam Convention on the Prior Informed Consent Procedure for Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade. India is a signatory.
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants aims to eliminate or restrict the production and use of all intentionally produced POPs found in industrial chemicals and pesticides. India is a signatory.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
With reference to the Sacred Groves, consider the following statements:
- Invasion by exotic weeds is a threat to the Sacred Groves in India.
- These areas are ecologically significant for the conservation of biodiversity.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Invasion by exotic weeds is a threat to the Sacred Groves in India. These areas are ecologically significant for the conservation of biodiversity. Notes:
Sacred Groves-
- Sacred groves are communally protected forests which usually have a significant religious connotation for the protecting community.
- In India, there are over lakh sacred groves across different states called by different names like Kaavu in Malayalam, Koyil kaadu in Tamil, Orans in Rajasthan, Devara kaadu in Karnataka, and Sernas in Madhya Pradesh.
- Many rare and endemic species and species having medicinal and economic value can be found here, thus making them Biodiversity Hotspots. They house gene pools of some critically endangered plant species.
- They are often associated with religious beliefs and felling of trees in sacred groves is considered taboo.
- Sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’ in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Invasion by exotic weeds is a threat to the Sacred Groves in India. These areas are ecologically significant for the conservation of biodiversity. Notes:
Sacred Groves-
- Sacred groves are communally protected forests which usually have a significant religious connotation for the protecting community.
- In India, there are over lakh sacred groves across different states called by different names like Kaavu in Malayalam, Koyil kaadu in Tamil, Orans in Rajasthan, Devara kaadu in Karnataka, and Sernas in Madhya Pradesh.
- Many rare and endemic species and species having medicinal and economic value can be found here, thus making them Biodiversity Hotspots. They house gene pools of some critically endangered plant species.
- They are often associated with religious beliefs and felling of trees in sacred groves is considered taboo.
- Sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’ in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following is/are included in the criteria for a region to qualify as a Biodiversity Hotspot by Conservation International?
- It should contain at least 3,000 species of vascular plants found nowhere else on Earth.
- It should have lost at least 50 per cent of its primary native vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants i.e., it should have a high degree of endemism. It must contain 30% (or less) of its original habitat, i.e it must be threatened. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants i.e., it should have a high degree of endemism. It must contain 30% (or less) of its original habitat, i.e it must be threatened. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements:
- London smog is formed during warm, dry and sunny climate.
- Oxidizing smog is formed during cold and humid climate.
- Smoke, fog and SO2 form the classical smog.
- Photochemical smog is also called as Los Angeles smog.
Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct London smog is formed during cold and humid climate. Oxidizing smog is formed during warm, dry and sunny climate. Smoke, fog and SO2 form the classical smog. Photochemical smog is also called as Los Angeles smog. Notes:
Classical Fog Photochemical Fog Formed during cold and humid climate. Formed during warm, dry and sunny climate. Constituents: Smoke, Fog and SO2 Constituents: O3, Nitric Oxide, Acrolein, Proxyacetyl nitrate (PANs), Formaldehyde etc. Chemically it is a reducing mixture: Reducing Smog Chemically it is a oxidizing mixture: Oxidizing Smog London Smog is the example of Classical Smog Los Angles Smog is the example of Photochemical Smog Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Correct London smog is formed during cold and humid climate. Oxidizing smog is formed during warm, dry and sunny climate. Smoke, fog and SO2 form the classical smog. Photochemical smog is also called as Los Angeles smog. Notes:
Classical Fog Photochemical Fog Formed during cold and humid climate. Formed during warm, dry and sunny climate. Constituents: Smoke, Fog and SO2 Constituents: O3, Nitric Oxide, Acrolein, Proxyacetyl nitrate (PANs), Formaldehyde etc. Chemically it is a reducing mixture: Reducing Smog Chemically it is a oxidizing mixture: Oxidizing Smog London Smog is the example of Classical Smog Los Angles Smog is the example of Photochemical Smog -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Global Warming:
- Low lying coastal areas may be permanently submerged under water due to Global warming.
- Release of nitrogen gas is a major cause of Global warming.
- Cyclopentane has zero ozone depletion potential and low global warming potential.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Low lying coastal areas may be permanently submerged under water due to Global warming. Nitrogen is not a Green House Gas (GHG). Cyclopentane has zero ozone depletion potential and low global warming potential. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Low lying coastal areas may be permanently submerged under water due to Global warming. Nitrogen is not a Green House Gas (GHG). Cyclopentane has zero ozone depletion potential and low global warming potential. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding noise pollution:
- The World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 30 dB.
- Silence Zone is an area comprising not less than 100 metres around hospitals, courts, etc.
- There are no defined rules mentioned for ambient noise pollution levels for various areas in India by the government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 30 dB. Silence Zone is an area comprising not less than 100 metres around hospitals, courts, etc. Noise Pollution (Control and Regulation) Rules, 2000 define ambient noise levels for various areas as: - Industrial Area: 75 dB – day time & 70 dB – night time
- Commercial Area: 65 dB – day time & 55 dB – night time
- Residential Area: 55 dB – day time & 45 dB – night time
- Silence Zone: 50 dB – day time & 40 dB – night time
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The World Health Organization recommends that the sound level indoors should be less than 30 dB. Silence Zone is an area comprising not less than 100 metres around hospitals, courts, etc. Noise Pollution (Control and Regulation) Rules, 2000 define ambient noise levels for various areas as: - Industrial Area: 75 dB – day time & 70 dB – night time
- Commercial Area: 65 dB – day time & 55 dB – night time
- Residential Area: 55 dB – day time & 45 dB – night time
- Silence Zone: 50 dB – day time & 40 dB – night time
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Recently, India achieves complete phase out of which of the one most potent ozone depleting chemical?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b-
India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam manufacturing enterprises and one of the most potent ozone depleting chemicals after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). (HCFC)-141 b is used mainly as a blowing agent in the production of rigid polyurethane (PU) foams.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b-
India has successfully achieved the complete phase out of Hydrochlorofluorocarbon (HCFC)-141 b, which is a chemical used by foam manufacturing enterprises and one of the most potent ozone depleting chemicals after Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). (HCFC)-141 b is used mainly as a blowing agent in the production of rigid polyurethane (PU) foams.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following are Agro-biodiversity Hotspots of India?
- Cold Desert
- Brahmaputra Valley
- Khasia-Jaintia-Garo Hills
- Bundelkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
- Cold Desert
- Brahmaputra Valley
- Khasia-Jaintia-Garo Hills
- Bundelkhand
Correct Correct Correct Correct Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
- Cold Desert
- Brahmaputra Valley
- Khasia-Jaintia-Garo Hills
- Bundelkhand
Correct Correct Correct Correct Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. Agro-biodiversity Hotspot of India. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following statements related to the different Protected Areas of India is/are correct?
- National Park: No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state.
- Wildlife Sanctuary: It acts as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks.
- Community reserves: It is the private land being accorded protection under the Indian legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct National Park: No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state. Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves acts as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks. Community reserves: It is the private land being accorded protection under the Indian legislature. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct National Park: No human activity is permitted inside the national park except for the ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the state. Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves acts as buffer zones to or connectors and migration corridors between established national parks. Community reserves: It is the private land being accorded protection under the Indian legislature. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Arguments for Biodiversity Conservation are grouped into narrowly utilitarian, broadly utilitarian, and ethical. In context of this, consider the following statements:
- The narrowly utilitarian argument says that nature provides various ecosystem services and other intangible benefits.
- The broadly utilitarian arguments to conserve biodiversity because humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature
- The ethical argument says that we have a moral duty to pass on our biological legacy in good order to future generations.
Which of the above statements is /are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The narrowly utilitarian arguments to conserve biodiversity are obvious; humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature. The broadly utilitarian argument says that nature provides various ecosystem services and other intangible benefits. The ethical argument says that we have a moral duty to pass on our biological legacy in good order to future generations. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct The narrowly utilitarian arguments to conserve biodiversity are obvious; humans derive countless direct economic benefits from nature. The broadly utilitarian argument says that nature provides various ecosystem services and other intangible benefits. The ethical argument says that we have a moral duty to pass on our biological legacy in good order to future generations. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘PM Poshan Shakti Nirman Scheme’:
- There is a provision for supplementary nutrition for children in aspirational districts and North-East India
- States are given a free hand to decide diet taking local factors into consideration
- Food norms under this scheme contains 250 grams and 150 grams of foodgrains for upper primary and primary class students
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Supplementary nutrition: There is a provision for supplementary nutrition for children in aspirational districts and those with high prevalence of anaemia States to decide diet: It essentially does away with the restriction on the part of the Centre to provide funds only for wheat, rice, pulses and vegetables. Currently, if a state decides to add any component like milk or eggs to the menu, the Centre does not bear the additional cost. Now that restriction has been lifted. The food intake per meal by the children of primary classes, as provided by MHRD is 100 grams of food grains, 20 grams of pulses, 50 grams of vegetables and 5 grams of oils and fats. For the children of upper-primary schools, the mandated breakup is 150 grams of food grains, 30 grams of pulses, 75 grams of vegetables and 7.5 grams of oils and fats Context – The existing Mid-Day Meal scheme, which provides hot meals to students, has been renamed as the National Scheme for PM Poshan Shakti Nirman.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Supplementary nutrition: There is a provision for supplementary nutrition for children in aspirational districts and those with high prevalence of anaemia States to decide diet: It essentially does away with the restriction on the part of the Centre to provide funds only for wheat, rice, pulses and vegetables. Currently, if a state decides to add any component like milk or eggs to the menu, the Centre does not bear the additional cost. Now that restriction has been lifted. The food intake per meal by the children of primary classes, as provided by MHRD is 100 grams of food grains, 20 grams of pulses, 50 grams of vegetables and 5 grams of oils and fats. For the children of upper-primary schools, the mandated breakup is 150 grams of food grains, 30 grams of pulses, 75 grams of vegetables and 7.5 grams of oils and fats Context – The existing Mid-Day Meal scheme, which provides hot meals to students, has been renamed as the National Scheme for PM Poshan Shakti Nirman.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements:
- A notable property is the alkaline pH that develops around the dissolving granule
- The fertiliser has to be sprinkled at the time of sowing crops like mustard and wheat
- It’s commonly added to wine to sustain yeast fermentation and to milk to produce cheese cultures.
With reference to Di-Ammonium Phosphate, which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct DAP fertilizer is an excellent source of Phosphorus and nitrogen (N) for plant nutrition. It’s highly soluble and thus dissolves quickly in soil to release plant-available phosphate and ammonium. A notable property of DAP is the alkaline pH that develops around the dissolving granule Being a basic nutrient for Rabi crops, the DAP fertiliser has to be sprinkled at the time of sowing crops like mustard and wheat. Any delay in its supply could adversely impact the sowing of crops DAP also acts as a fire retardant. DAP is used in various industrial processes, too, such as metal finishing. It’s commonly added to wine to sustain yeast fermentation and to milk to produce cheese cultures Context – An acute shortage of di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) in Haryana had seen desperate farmers pelting stones at the police, blocking roads in protest.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct DAP fertilizer is an excellent source of Phosphorus and nitrogen (N) for plant nutrition. It’s highly soluble and thus dissolves quickly in soil to release plant-available phosphate and ammonium. A notable property of DAP is the alkaline pH that develops around the dissolving granule Being a basic nutrient for Rabi crops, the DAP fertiliser has to be sprinkled at the time of sowing crops like mustard and wheat. Any delay in its supply could adversely impact the sowing of crops DAP also acts as a fire retardant. DAP is used in various industrial processes, too, such as metal finishing. It’s commonly added to wine to sustain yeast fermentation and to milk to produce cheese cultures Context – An acute shortage of di-ammonium phosphate (DAP) in Haryana had seen desperate farmers pelting stones at the police, blocking roads in protest.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Under the Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP), which of the following can be used as raw materials
- Maize
- Surplus rice with FCI
- Sugarcane
Select the appropriate code
Correct
Solution (d)
Current regulations in the country allow production of ethanol from sugarcane, sugar, molasses, maize and damaged food grains unfit for human consumption. Further, surplus rice with FCI is also allowed.
Context – Almost two million tonnes (MT) of sugar were diverted for ethanol production during the last sugar season (October 2020 to September 2021)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Current regulations in the country allow production of ethanol from sugarcane, sugar, molasses, maize and damaged food grains unfit for human consumption. Further, surplus rice with FCI is also allowed.
Context – Almost two million tonnes (MT) of sugar were diverted for ethanol production during the last sugar season (October 2020 to September 2021)
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
‘CRISP-M tool’ seen in news recently is related to
Correct
Solution (b)
CRISP-M tool was launched for integration of climate information in Geographic Information System (GIS) based watershed planning . Also to open up new possibilities for our rural communities to deal with the issues of climate change – to cope with climate change and protecting them from weather related disasters.
Context – Govt. of India launched Climate Resilience Information System and Planning (CRISP-M) tool under Mahatma Gandhi NREGA.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
CRISP-M tool was launched for integration of climate information in Geographic Information System (GIS) based watershed planning . Also to open up new possibilities for our rural communities to deal with the issues of climate change – to cope with climate change and protecting them from weather related disasters.
Context – Govt. of India launched Climate Resilience Information System and Planning (CRISP-M) tool under Mahatma Gandhi NREGA.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee’:
- It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research
- Regulatory Framework for approval of GM crops is covered under the Environment protection Act 1986
Choose the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. Regulatory Framework for approval of GM crops is covered under the Environment protection Act 1986 Context – The Central government is yet to decide on a research proposal from Scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) which would allow plants to be genetically modified without the need for conventional transgenic technology.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). As per Rules, 1989, it is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. Regulatory Framework for approval of GM crops is covered under the Environment protection Act 1986 Context – The Central government is yet to decide on a research proposal from Scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) which would allow plants to be genetically modified without the need for conventional transgenic technology.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
How many triangles are there in the following figure?
Correct
Solution (d)
Number of smaller triangles = 12
Number of triangles formed with 2 triangles = 4
Number of larger triangles (combining triangles at the centre) = 4
Therefore, total triangles = 12 + 4 + 4 = 20
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Number of smaller triangles = 12
Number of triangles formed with 2 triangles = 4
Number of larger triangles (combining triangles at the centre) = 4
Therefore, total triangles = 12 + 4 + 4 = 20
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
How many triangles are there in the given figure below
Correct
Solution (b)
Number of larger triangles = 3
Number of triangles formed with color combination (blue+red) , (red) and (red+yellow) = 3
Therefore, total triangles = 3 + 3 = 6
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Number of larger triangles = 3
Number of triangles formed with color combination (blue+red) , (red) and (red+yellow) = 3
Therefore, total triangles = 3 + 3 = 6
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
How many squares are present in the figure given below?
Correct
Solution (a)
The squares composed of two components each are BKIJ,DLIK, FMIL and HJIM
The squares composed of four components each are ABIH,BCDI, DEFI and GHIF
The squares composed of eight components each is BDFH
The squares composed of sixteen components each is ABEG
Therefore, Total number of squares =4+4+1+1=10
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The squares composed of two components each are BKIJ,DLIK, FMIL and HJIM
The squares composed of four components each are ABIH,BCDI, DEFI and GHIF
The squares composed of eight components each is BDFH
The squares composed of sixteen components each is ABEG
Therefore, Total number of squares =4+4+1+1=10
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Find the number of squares in the given figure below:
Correct
Solution (c)
The simplest squares are QUYX, URVY, YVSW and XYWT i.e. 4 in number.
The squares composed of two components each are IMYP, MJNY, YNKO and PYOL i.e. 4 in number.
The squares composed of three components each are AEYH, EBFY, YFCG and HYGD i.e. 4 in number.
There is only one square i.e. QRST composed of four components.
There is only one square i.e. IJKL composed of eight components.
There is only one square i.e. ABCD composed of twelve components.
Total number of squares in the given figure =4+4+4+1+1+1=15.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The simplest squares are QUYX, URVY, YVSW and XYWT i.e. 4 in number.
The squares composed of two components each are IMYP, MJNY, YNKO and PYOL i.e. 4 in number.
The squares composed of three components each are AEYH, EBFY, YFCG and HYGD i.e. 4 in number.
There is only one square i.e. QRST composed of four components.
There is only one square i.e. IJKL composed of eight components.
There is only one square i.e. ABCD composed of twelve components.
Total number of squares in the given figure =4+4+4+1+1+1=15.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has kicked off the process to set new standards to measure quality of services offered to consumers across different sectors, including telecom, aviation, e-commerce and healthcare. The BIS, which sets the quality regulations for various products from gold to bottled water, on Friday called a meeting of industry bodies to “persuade them to be part of the process and give their inputs.”
“Service sector is one of the key sectors of the Indian economy with a huge potential to grow into one of the largest markets of the world. Standards can play a major facilitative role in this regard. It is important that the standardization needs and priorities of the sector are determined,” a senior official said.
During the meeting, the BIS pointed out that the initial focus will be the 12 champion services sectors identified by the government. These include IT, tourism and hospitality, transport and logistics, accounting and finance services, legal services, communication services and construction. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) standards are set to formulate a framework for quality services that should be provided to consumers and also talk about the benchmarks to deal with consumer complaints or after sales service in an effort to ensure quality in the services sector.
At a meeting with industry bodies on Friday, it has been decided that the BIS will set up a separate ‘divisional council’ for services in a month’s time. Under this, different technical committees will be set up — one for each service. The committees will have various stakeholders such as government officials, experts and industry representatives. The process was initiated after concerns over lack of standardization, particularly with regards to after-sales service, in their feedback to the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
In a poll, online community network local circles found that in the absence of defined customer service standards in the country, a majority of consumers were not happy with after-sales services. As per the poll, 43% feel that mobile handset and computer manufacturers are the worst in after-sales services, followed by white goods firms (38%) and automobile companies (11%). About 93% of respondents said brands should at least acknowledge complaints from users within 72 hours. “Many consumers complained that customer service numbers of many companies do not work,” according to local circles.
Q.30) Which among the following is the main reason of initiating the standardization drive of the Bureau of Indian Standards for the services sector?
Correct
Solution (b)
Refer to, “Service sector is one of the key sectors of the Indian economy with a huge potential to grow into one of the largest markets of the world. Standards can play a major facilitative role in this regard. It is important that the standardization needs and priorities of the sector are determined,” a senior official said.”
It is very clear from the above lines that the government is of the view that there should be standardization in the sector so that this fastest growing sector can be developed properly in the country. Among the given options, statement A may be true but only because a sector is contributing to GDP cannot be considered for the sole ground for initiating standardization drive in this sector. Statements c and d are irrelevant in the context of the passage
Hence, option b is the right choice among the given options.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Refer to, “Service sector is one of the key sectors of the Indian economy with a huge potential to grow into one of the largest markets of the world. Standards can play a major facilitative role in this regard. It is important that the standardization needs and priorities of the sector are determined,” a senior official said.”
It is very clear from the above lines that the government is of the view that there should be standardization in the sector so that this fastest growing sector can be developed properly in the country. Among the given options, statement A may be true but only because a sector is contributing to GDP cannot be considered for the sole ground for initiating standardization drive in this sector. Statements c and d are irrelevant in the context of the passage
Hence, option b is the right choice among the given options.
All the Best
IASbaba