IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 26– CLICK HERE
Note –
- Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
- It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
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- (3) New Learning from the Test
[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2022 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT; Test Series, Videos & Notes!
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Office of the Governor:
- The Governor is indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college like the president.
- It is a constitutional office under the Central government.
- He should belong from the state where he is appointed.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president.
He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government.
It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
Two conventions have developed over qualification for the appointment of the Governor.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The governor is neither directly elected by the people nor indirectly elected by a specially constituted electoral college as is the case with the president.
He is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal.
In a way, he is a nominee of the Central government. But, as held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an employment under the Central government.
It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of or subordinate to the Central government.
Two conventions have developed over qualification for the appointment of the Governor.
- First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed, so that he is free from the local politics.
- Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the chief minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court.
- A governor holds office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office .
- The Constitution lays grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
- He can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the Chief Minister.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.
A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
He can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.
The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
The President may transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest of the term.
Further, a Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.
A governor can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. The underlying idea is that there must be a governor in the state and there cannot be an interregnum.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state high court and in his absence, the senior-most judge of that court available.
A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President.
He can resign at any time by addressing a resignation letter to the President.
The Constitution does not lay down any grounds upon which a governor may be removed by the President.
The President may transfer a Governor appointed to one state to another state for the rest of the term.
Further, a Governor whose term has expired may be reappointed in the same state or any other state.
A governor can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. The underlying idea is that there must be a governor in the state and there cannot be an interregnum.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following Legislative powers of the Governor:
- He nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative assembly from amongst persons having special knowledge.
- He can nominate one member to the state legislative council from the Anglo-Indian community.
- The ordinances promulgated by him must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks from its reassembly.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
He nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative council from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
He can nominate one member to the state legislature assembly from the Anglo-Indian Community.
He decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.
He can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance anytime.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
He nominates one-sixth of the members of the state legislative council from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
He can nominate one member to the state legislature assembly from the Anglo-Indian Community.
He decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.
He can promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the state legislature within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance anytime.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
In which of the following circumstances can the Governor reserve a bill for consideration by the President:
- Ultra-vires to the Constitution.
- If the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
- Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
- Give his assent to the bill
- Withhold his assent to the bill
- Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill.
- Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
In addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
- Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
- Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- Against the larger interest of the country.
- Of grave national importance.
- Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
When a bill is sent to the governor after it is passed by state legislature, he can:
- Give his assent to the bill
- Withhold his assent to the bill
- Return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the state legislature. However, if the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments, the governor has to give his assent to the bill.
- Reserve the bill for the consideration of the president. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state high court.
In addition, the governor can also reserve the bill if it is of the following nature:
- Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the Constitution.
- Opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
- Against the larger interest of the country.
- Of grave national importance.
- Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Office of the Chief Minister:
- Article 164 contains specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
- A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months.
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
he Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister
But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister
In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
he Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister
But, when no party has a clear majority in the assembly, then the governor may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister
In such a situation, the governor usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the assembly as the Chief Minister and ask him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
A person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed as Chief Minister for six months, within which time, he should be elected to the state legislature, failing which he ceases to be the Chief Minister.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Chief Minister of state is not allowed to vote in Presidential election if he/she is the member of the state legislative council.
Following can vote in the Presidential election:
- Elected members of both the House of Parliament.
- Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the state.
- Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Following are not eligible to vote in the Presidential election:
- Nominated members of both the House of Parliament.
- Nominated members of the legislative assemblies of the state.
- The members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative council (in case of the bicameral legislature).
- Nominated members of the legislative assemblies of the Delhi and Puducherry.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Chief Minister of state is not allowed to vote in Presidential election if he/she is the member of the state legislative council.
Following can vote in the Presidential election:
- Elected members of both the House of Parliament.
- Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the state.
- Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
Following are not eligible to vote in the Presidential election:
- Nominated members of both the House of Parliament.
- Nominated members of the legislative assemblies of the state.
- The members (both elected and nominated) of the state legislative council (in case of the bicameral legislature).
- Nominated members of the legislative assemblies of the Delhi and Puducherry.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding creation/abolition of State Councils:
- As per article 169, the power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in Legislative Assembly of the State.
- The state legislative assembly must pass a resolution with simple majority to start
the process of creation/abolition of State Council.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Creation/ Abolition of State Legislative Councils:
The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in Parliament of India as per article 169. But again, to create or to abolish a state legislative council, the
state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by majority of the strength of the house and 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting (Absolute + Special Majority).When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill. (Article 169). The resolution to create and abolish a state legislative council is to be assented by the President also.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Creation/ Abolition of State Legislative Councils:
The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in Parliament of India as per article 169. But again, to create or to abolish a state legislative council, the
state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by majority of the strength of the house and 2/3rd majority of the members present and voting (Absolute + Special Majority).When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, such type of law is not considered a Constitution Amendment Bill. (Article 169). The resolution to create and abolish a state legislative council is to be assented by the President also.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
With reference to Union Territories with assemblies, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Special Provision for Delhi:
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, and redesignated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated
the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.The chief minister is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor). The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the
assembly.Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Special Provision for Delhi:
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, and redesignated it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated
the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.The chief minister is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor). The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the
assembly. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
The powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly in which of the following cases?
- Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
- Selection of ministers including the chief minister.
- In case of disagreement between the two Houses of ordinary bills.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The following are the other matters where the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
2. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
3. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
4. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission.In case of introduction and passage of ordinary bills, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council. Hence, statement (3) is wrong.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The following are the other matters where the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly:
1. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
2. Selection of ministers including the chief minister. Under the Constitution the, ministers including the chief minister can be members of either House of the state legislature. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the assembly.
3. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like State Finance Commission, state public service commission and Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
4. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the state public service commission.In case of introduction and passage of ordinary bills, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly. However, in case of disagreement between the two Houses, the will of the assembly prevails over that of the council. Hence, statement (3) is wrong.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
With respect to the composition of legislative assemblies in states, consider the following statements:
- The minimum strength of any state assembly does not go below 60 as prescribed by the constitution.
- All the representatives of the legislative assembly are directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.
However, in other cases either members are directly elected or nominated (i.e. Anglo-Indians)
Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state.
However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
Further, some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are also elected indirectly.
However, in other cases either members are directly elected or nominated (i.e. Anglo-Indians)
Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60. It means that its strength varies from 60 to 500 depending on the population size of the state.
However, in case of Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Goa, the minimum number is fixed at 30 and in case of Mizoram and Nagaland, it is 40 and 46 respectively.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Stand Up India Scheme:
- The objective of this scheme is to facilitate bank loans between Rs. 5 lakh and Rs.1 crore to at least one SC or ST borrower and at least one woman borrower.
- Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
- The offices of SIDBI and NABARD are designated Stand-Up Connect Centres.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
It was launched by Ministry of Finance in April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level focusing on economic empowerment and job creation.
It aims to leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs and Women Entrepreneurs.
The objective of this scheme is to facilitate bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.1 crore to at least one SC or ST borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch of Scheduled Commercial Banks for setting up a Greenfield enterprise.
Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
In case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either an SC/ST or Woman entrepreneur.
Borrower should not be in default to any bank or financial institution.
The offices of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) and NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) are designated Stand-Up Connect Centres (SUCC).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
It was launched by Ministry of Finance in April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the grass-root level focusing on economic empowerment and job creation.
It aims to leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to the underserved sector of people such as SCs, STs and Women Entrepreneurs.
The objective of this scheme is to facilitate bank loans between Rs.10 lakh and Rs.1 crore to at least one SC or ST borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch of Scheduled Commercial Banks for setting up a Greenfield enterprise.
Loans under the scheme are available for only Greenfield projects.
In case of non-individual enterprises, at least 51% of the shareholding and controlling stake should be held by either an SC/ST or Woman entrepreneur.
Borrower should not be in default to any bank or financial institution.
The offices of SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India) and NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) are designated Stand-Up Connect Centres (SUCC).
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):
- The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- AIM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.
The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:
- Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.
- Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
The intended targets that will be achieved by AIM are:
- Establishing 10000 Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs),
- Establishing 101 Atal Incubation Centers (AICs),
- Establishing 50 Atal Community Innovation Centers (ACICs) and
- Supporting 200 startups via the Atal New India Challenges.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog in 2016 to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.
AlM’s objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.
The Atal Innovation Mission has following two core functions:
- Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs.
- Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
The intended targets that will be achieved by AIM are:
- Establishing 10000 Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs),
- Establishing 101 Atal Incubation Centers (AICs),
- Establishing 50 Atal Community Innovation Centers (ACICs) and
- Supporting 200 startups via the Atal New India Challenges.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Union Territories:
- Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
- The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists for the union territories.
- The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of state like a governor.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.
The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him. An administrator of a union territory is an agent of the President and not head of state like a governor.
The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.
The Parliament can establish a high court for a union territory or put it under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state. Delhi is the only union territory that has a high court of its own (since 1966).
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following special provisions for Delhi
- The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi.
- The State Legislative Assembly of Delhi can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List.
- The President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.
It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi. Previously, Delhi had a metropolitan council and an executive council.
The strength of the assembly is fixed at 70 members, directly elected by the people. The elections are conducted by the election commission of India.
The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. But, the laws of Parliament prevail over those made by the Assembly.
The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the assembly, that is, seven—one chief minister and six other ministers.
The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advise the lt. governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. In the case of difference of opinion between the lt. governor and his ministers, the lt. governor is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.
In case of failure of constitutional machinery, the president can impose his rule in the
territory. This can be done on the report of the lt. governor or otherwise. This provision resembles Article 356 which deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in the states.
The lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly.Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi, and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated the administrator of Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor.
It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for Delhi. Previously, Delhi had a metropolitan council and an executive council.
The strength of the assembly is fixed at 70 members, directly elected by the people. The elections are conducted by the election commission of India.
The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police and land. But, the laws of Parliament prevail over those made by the Assembly.
The strength of the council of ministers is fixed at ten per cent of the total strength of the assembly, that is, seven—one chief minister and six other ministers.
The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advise the lt. governor in the exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion. In the case of difference of opinion between the lt. governor and his ministers, the lt. governor is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.
In case of failure of constitutional machinery, the president can impose his rule in the
territory. This can be done on the report of the lt. governor or otherwise. This provision resembles Article 356 which deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in the states.
The lt. governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly. An ordinance has the same force as an act of the assembly.Every such ordinance must be approved by the assembly within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. But, he cannot promulgate an ordinance when the assembly is dissolved or suspended. Further, no such ordinance can be promulgated or withdrawn without the prior permission of the President.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
With reference to Delhi assembly, if there is difference of opinion between the Lt. Governor and his ministers, what action does he chose?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advice the lt. governor in the
exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion.In the case of difference of opinion between the lt. governor and his ministers, the lt. governor
is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The council of ministers headed by the chief minister aid and advice the lt. governor in the
exercise of his functions except in so far as he is required to act in his discretion.In the case of difference of opinion between the lt. governor and his ministers, the lt. governor
is to refer the matter to the president for decision and act accordingly. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following with reference to the Chairman of the Legislative Council of a
State:- The Chairman of Legislative Council is nominated by the Governor on the recommendation of the Council of Ministers.
- His salary is not subject to the annual vote of the state legislature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members
As a presiding officer, the powers and functions of the Chairman in the council are similar to those of the Speaker in the assembly. However, the Speaker has one special power which is not enjoyed by the Chairman. The Speaker decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
As in the case of the Speaker, the salaries and allowances of the Chairman are also fixed
by the state legislature. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State and thus
are not subject to the annual vote of the state legislature.He resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the council.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Chairman is elected by the council itself from amongst its members
As a presiding officer, the powers and functions of the Chairman in the council are similar to those of the Speaker in the assembly. However, the Speaker has one special power which is not enjoyed by the Chairman. The Speaker decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
As in the case of the Speaker, the salaries and allowances of the Chairman are also fixed
by the state legislature. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State and thus
are not subject to the annual vote of the state legislature.He resigns by writing to the Deputy Chairman. He can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the council.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Out of total number of members in the Legislative Council, which of the following is true?
- 1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards.
- 1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state
- 1/4 are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Of the total number of members of a legislative council:
1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,
1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,
1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard
than secondary school,1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and
The remainder (1/6) are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Thus, 5/6 of the total numbers of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected
and 1/6 are nominated by the governor.The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by
means of a single transferable vote.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Of the total number of members of a legislative council:
1/3 are elected by the members of local bodies in the state like municipalities, district boards, etc.,
1/12 are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state,
1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard
than secondary school,1/3 are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly, and
The remainder (1/6) are nominated by the governor from amongst persons who have a special knowledge or practical experience of literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.
Thus, 5/6 of the total numbers of members of a legislative council are indirectly elected
and 1/6 are nominated by the governor.The members are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by
means of a single transferable vote. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements about the legislative process in the states:
- There is no provision of joint sitting in case of a disagreement between the two
houses in the states. - The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the
second time.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the
state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the
second time.When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the
state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the
second time.When a bill is passed by the assembly for the second time and transmitted to the legislative council, if the legislative council rejects the bill again, or proposes amendments that are not acceptable to the legislative assembly, or does not pass the bill within one month, then the bill is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses in the form in which it was passed by the legislative assembly for the second time.
- There is no provision of joint sitting in case of a disagreement between the two
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The National Health Mission seeks to ensure the achievement of which of the following indicators?
- Reduce Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 1/1000 live births
- Reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 25/1000 live births
- Reduce Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1
- Less than 1 per cent microfilaria prevalence in all districts
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
National Health Mission was launched by the government of India in 2013 subsuming the National Rural Health Mission (Launched in 2005) and the National Urban Health Mission (Launched in 2013).
The main programmatic components include Health System Strengthening in rural and urban areas for Reproductive-Maternal- Neonatal-Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A), and Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases.
The NHM envisages achievement of universal access to equitable, affordable & quality health care services that are accountable and responsive to people’s needs.
The mission seeks to ensure the achievement of the following indicators:
- Reduce Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 1/1000 live births
- Reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 25/1000 live births
- Reduce Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1
- Prevention and reduction of anemia in women aged 15–49 years
- Prevent and reduce mortality & morbidity from communicable, non-communicable; injuries and emerging diseases
- Reduce household out-of-pocket expenditure on total health care expenditure
- Reduce annual incidence and mortality from Tuberculosis by half
- Reduce prevalence of Leprosy to <1/10000 population and incidence to zero in all districts
- Annual Malaria Incidence to be <1/1000
- Less than 1 per cent microfilaria prevalence in all districts
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
National Health Mission was launched by the government of India in 2013 subsuming the National Rural Health Mission (Launched in 2005) and the National Urban Health Mission (Launched in 2013).
The main programmatic components include Health System Strengthening in rural and urban areas for Reproductive-Maternal- Neonatal-Child and Adolescent Health (RMNCH+A), and Communicable and Non-Communicable Diseases.
The NHM envisages achievement of universal access to equitable, affordable & quality health care services that are accountable and responsive to people’s needs.
The mission seeks to ensure the achievement of the following indicators:
- Reduce Maternal Mortality Rate (MMR) to 1/1000 live births
- Reduce Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) to 25/1000 live births
- Reduce Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to 2.1
- Prevention and reduction of anemia in women aged 15–49 years
- Prevent and reduce mortality & morbidity from communicable, non-communicable; injuries and emerging diseases
- Reduce household out-of-pocket expenditure on total health care expenditure
- Reduce annual incidence and mortality from Tuberculosis by half
- Reduce prevalence of Leprosy to <1/10000 population and incidence to zero in all districts
- Annual Malaria Incidence to be <1/1000
- Less than 1 per cent microfilaria prevalence in all districts
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PM-BJP):
- It is a campaign launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- All the districts of the country have been covered under the scheme.
- Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India is the implementing agency.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PM-BJP):
It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
Implementing agency: BPPI (Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India) – re-named as the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI)
Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) are running Jan Aushadhi Kendras as a part of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana. These are the centers from where quality generic medicines are made available to all.
All the districts of the country have been covered under the scheme.
Effective IT-enabled logistics and supply-chain systems for ensuring real-time distribution of medicines at all outlets have also been introduced.
Key features of the scheme:
- Ensure access to quality medicines.
- Extend coverage of quality generic medicines so as to reduce the out of pocket expenditure on medicines and thereby redefine the unit cost of treatment per person.
- Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high price.
- A public programme involving Government, PSUs, Private Sector, NGO, Societies, Co-operative Bodies and other Institutions.
- Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PM-BJP):
It is a campaign launched by the Department of Pharmaceuticals of the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
It seeks to provide quality medicines at affordable prices to the masses through special kendra’s known as Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra.
Implementing agency: BPPI (Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India) – re-named as the Pharmaceuticals & Medical Devices Bureau of India (PMBI)
Bureau of Pharma PSUs in India (BPPI) are running Jan Aushadhi Kendras as a part of Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana. These are the centers from where quality generic medicines are made available to all.
All the districts of the country have been covered under the scheme.
Effective IT-enabled logistics and supply-chain systems for ensuring real-time distribution of medicines at all outlets have also been introduced.
Key features of the scheme:
- Ensure access to quality medicines.
- Extend coverage of quality generic medicines so as to reduce the out of pocket expenditure on medicines and thereby redefine the unit cost of treatment per person.
- Create awareness about generic medicines through education and publicity so that quality is not synonymous with only high price.
- A public programme involving Government, PSUs, Private Sector, NGO, Societies, Co-operative Bodies and other Institutions.
- Create demand for generic medicines by improving access to better healthcare through low treatment cost and easy availability wherever needed in all therapeutic categories.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Default Bail’
- Default bail is a right that accrues when police fail to lodge a First Information Report(FIR) within a specified period
- It is enshrined in the Indian Penal Code
Choose the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Default or statutory bail is a right (regardless of the nature of crime) to bail that accrues when police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody It is enshrined in Code of Criminal Procedure. Context – Sudha Bharadwaj was granted Default Bail by Bombay High Court.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Default or statutory bail is a right (regardless of the nature of crime) to bail that accrues when police fail to complete investigation within a specified period in respect of a person in judicial custody It is enshrined in Code of Criminal Procedure. Context – Sudha Bharadwaj was granted Default Bail by Bombay High Court.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Observer status at UN General Assembly’
- It grants the observer entity the right to speak in debates, to submit proposals and amendments by default
- International organizations can also be granted observer status
- Observer status may be granted by a United Nations General Assembly resolution as per the provisions for it in the United Nations Charter
Which of the following statement(s) mentioned above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The General Assembly determines the privileges it will grant to each observer, beyond those laid down in a 1986 Conference on treaties between states and international organizations. Exceptionally, the European Union (EU) was in 2011 granted the right to speak in debates, to submit proposals and amendments, the right of reply, to raise points of order and to circulate documents, etc. As of May 2011, the EU was the only international organization to hold these enhanced rights, which has been likened to the rights of full membership, short of the right to vote The United Nations General Assembly has granted observer status to international organizations, entities, and non-member states, to enable them to participate in the work of the United Nations General Assembly, though with limitations Observer status may be granted by a United Nations General Assembly resolution. The status of a permanent observer is based purely on practice of the General Assembly, and there are no provisions for it in the United Nations Charter. Context – International Solar Alliance(ISA) was conferred observer status by United Nations General Assembly.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The General Assembly determines the privileges it will grant to each observer, beyond those laid down in a 1986 Conference on treaties between states and international organizations. Exceptionally, the European Union (EU) was in 2011 granted the right to speak in debates, to submit proposals and amendments, the right of reply, to raise points of order and to circulate documents, etc. As of May 2011, the EU was the only international organization to hold these enhanced rights, which has been likened to the rights of full membership, short of the right to vote The United Nations General Assembly has granted observer status to international organizations, entities, and non-member states, to enable them to participate in the work of the United Nations General Assembly, though with limitations Observer status may be granted by a United Nations General Assembly resolution. The status of a permanent observer is based purely on practice of the General Assembly, and there are no provisions for it in the United Nations Charter. Context – International Solar Alliance(ISA) was conferred observer status by United Nations General Assembly.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
With reference to ‘Scheduled Banks’, consider the following statements:
- They are mentioned in the First Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934
- They are eligible for refinancing facility from the RBI at the bank rate and get access to currency storage facility.
- It automatically confers a scheduled bank the membership of clearing house
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Scheduled Banks in India refer to those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They are eligible for refinancing facility from the RBI at the bank rate and get access to currency storage facility Every Scheduled bank enjoys two types of principal facilities: 1. It becomes eligible for debts/loans at the bank rate from the RBI
2. It automatically acquires the membership of clearing house
Context – Paytm Payments Bank was accorded scheduled bank status by the Reserve Bank of India.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Scheduled Banks in India refer to those banks which have been included in the Second Schedule of Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They are eligible for refinancing facility from the RBI at the bank rate and get access to currency storage facility Every Scheduled bank enjoys two types of principal facilities: 1. It becomes eligible for debts/loans at the bank rate from the RBI
2. It automatically acquires the membership of clearing house
Context – Paytm Payments Bank was accorded scheduled bank status by the Reserve Bank of India.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
‘Nairobi Declaration’ is used in the context of
Correct
Solution (b)
Nairobi Declaration outlines how Africa aims to implement Sendai Framework on the continent. Declaration underlined the need to deliver commitments on the Programme of Action (PoA) for implementing the Sendai Framework in Africa.
Context – Nairobi declaration was adopted by African ministers and heads of delegations.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Nairobi Declaration outlines how Africa aims to implement Sendai Framework on the continent. Declaration underlined the need to deliver commitments on the Programme of Action (PoA) for implementing the Sendai Framework in Africa.
Context – Nairobi declaration was adopted by African ministers and heads of delegations.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Green Hydrogen Micro-grid Project’:
- It is an initiative of National Thermal Power Corporation and is the country’s first Green Hydrogen Energy Storage Project
- The system works in standalone mode round the clock and can produce up to 1 GW of electricity
Choose the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect NTPC has awarded a project of “Standalone Fuel-Cell based Micro-grid with hydrogen production using electrolyser in NTPC Guest House at Simhadri (near Visakhapatnam)”. It is India’s first Green Hydrogen based Energy Storage Project The hydrogen would be produced using the advanced 240 kW Solid Oxide Electrolyser by taking input power from the nearby Floating Solar project. The hydrogen produced during sunshine hours would be stored at high pressure and would be electrified using a 50 kW Solid Oxide Fuel Cell. The system would work in standalone mode from 5PM in the evening to 7AM in the morning. Context – India’s first; and one of world’s largest Green Hydrogen Microgrid Projects to be set up at Simhadri
Study the bar chart and answer the questions based on it
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect NTPC has awarded a project of “Standalone Fuel-Cell based Micro-grid with hydrogen production using electrolyser in NTPC Guest House at Simhadri (near Visakhapatnam)”. It is India’s first Green Hydrogen based Energy Storage Project The hydrogen would be produced using the advanced 240 kW Solid Oxide Electrolyser by taking input power from the nearby Floating Solar project. The hydrogen produced during sunshine hours would be stored at high pressure and would be electrified using a 50 kW Solid Oxide Fuel Cell. The system would work in standalone mode from 5PM in the evening to 7AM in the morning. Context – India’s first; and one of world’s largest Green Hydrogen Microgrid Projects to be set up at Simhadri
Study the bar chart and answer the questions based on it
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?
Correct
Solution (d)
Required percentage = ((45-60)/60) = 25%
Therefore, there is a decline of 25% from 1997 to 1998.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Required percentage = ((45-60)/60) = 25%
Therefore, there is a decline of 25% from 1997 to 1998.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of the given years?
Correct
Solution (c)
Average production over the given years
= 1/8( 25+ 40+ 60 + 45 + 65 + 50 + 75 + 80) = 55
Therefore, the production has exceeded the average during 1997, 1999, 2001, 2002. So, the answer is four times.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Average production over the given years
= 1/8( 25+ 40+ 60 + 45 + 65 + 50 + 75 + 80) = 55
Therefore, the production has exceeded the average during 1997, 1999, 2001, 2002. So, the answer is four times.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The average production of 1996 and 1997 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of years?
Correct
Solution (d)
Average production (in 10000 tonnes) of 1996 and 1997= (40 + 60)/2= 50
We shall find the average production (in 10000 tonnes) for each of the given alternative pairs:
2000 and 2001 = (50 + 75)/2 = 62.5
1999 and 2000 = (65 + 50)/2 = 57.5
1998 and 2000 = (45 + 50)/2 = 47.5
1995 and 1999 = (25 + 65)/2 = 45
1995 and 2001 = (25 + 75)/2 = 50
Therefore ,the average production of 1996 and 1997 is equal to the average production of 1995 and 2001.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Average production (in 10000 tonnes) of 1996 and 1997= (40 + 60)/2= 50
We shall find the average production (in 10000 tonnes) for each of the given alternative pairs:
2000 and 2001 = (50 + 75)/2 = 62.5
1999 and 2000 = (65 + 50)/2 = 57.5
1998 and 2000 = (45 + 50)/2 = 47.5
1995 and 1999 = (25 + 65)/2 = 45
1995 and 2001 = (25 + 75)/2 = 50
Therefore ,the average production of 1996 and 1997 is equal to the average production of 1995 and 2001.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
What was the percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2002 compared to that in 1995?
Correct
Solution (c)
Required percentage = ((80-25)/25)% = 220%
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Required percentage = ((80-25)/25)% = 220%
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
Ever since the Centre and the States passed the landmark legislation in 2016 adopting a single countrywide Goods and Services Tax (GST), the federal council that is tasked with overseeing all the regulatory aspects of the indirect tax has had its hands full. From recommending the rates that could apply to various products and services, to deciding on what could be tax exempted, the GST Council has had the onerous task of laying out the policy framework for administering the tax in a manner that benefits all stakeholders – the governments, the consumers and the suppliers along the value chain. Given the complexity of the legacy taxes that GST subsumed and replaced and the teething troubles of operating a new tax system, ensuring optimal outcomes has proved an abiding challenge. A significant concern relates to the loopholes that unscrupulous operators have sought to exploit, whereby revenue that ought to have accrued to the Centre and the States has leaked while allowing these elements to derive illicit profits. And the scale of some has been breath-taking. Earlier this month, the Directorate General of GST Intelligence and the Directorate General of Revenue Intelligence conducted a pan-India joint operation, which saw about 1,200 officers simultaneously conducting searches at 336 different locations. In the process they unearthed a network of exporters and their suppliers who had connived to claim fraudulent refunds of Integrated GST, with more than ₹470 crore of input tax credit availed being based on non-existent entities or suppliers with fictitious addresses. A further ₹450 crore of IGST refund is also under review.
It is against the backdrop of such cases, and the fact that frauds totalling up to a staggering ₹45,682 crore have been detected since the roll-out of the tax in July 2017, that the GST Council has decided “in principle” to recommend linking Aadhaar with registration of taxpayers. In its 37th meeting in Goa on Friday, the council also agreed to appraise the possibility of making the biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds. Already the GST Network — the information technology backbone on which the whole tax system runs — has made it mandatory for new dealers registering under the composition scheme for small businesses to either authenticate their Aadhaar or submit to physical verification of their business, starting January 2020. The council too needs to follow the network’s lead and move swiftly to recommend mandatory linking for refunds, especially since that has proved to be the main source of most frauds. In a becalmed economy, neither the Centre nor States can afford to forego even a rupee of revenue that is due to the public coffers.
Q.30) According to the passage what remedial actions are suggested to avoid fraudulent activities?
Correct
Solution (d)
Refer to the passage below:
‘…to appraise the possibility of making the biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds. Already the GST Network …has made it mandatory for new dealers registering under the composition scheme for small businesses to either authenticate their Aadhaar or submit to physical verification of their business, …’
On reading the passage carefully, we see all the above remedial measures listed as recommendations to reduce fraudulent activities.
Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Refer to the passage below:
‘…to appraise the possibility of making the biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds. Already the GST Network …has made it mandatory for new dealers registering under the composition scheme for small businesses to either authenticate their Aadhaar or submit to physical verification of their business, …’
On reading the passage carefully, we see all the above remedial measures listed as recommendations to reduce fraudulent activities.
Hence, option d is the correct answer.
All the Best
IASbaba