IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 30– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Methanogens are bacteria that produce methane by growing aerobically on cellulosic material.
- Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane.
- Methanogens play an important role in the nutrition of cattle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically (not aerobically) on cellulosic material. Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel. Methanogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Methanogens are microbes that produce methane by growing anaerobically (not aerobically) on cellulosic material. Biogas is a mixture of gases predominantly containing methane. It is produced by the microbial activity and may be used as fuel. Methanogens like Methanobacterium are present in the rumen of (a part of stomach) of cattle. A lot of cellulosic material present in the food of cattle is also present in the rumen. In rumen, these microbes help in the breakdown of cellulose and play an important role in the nutrition of cattle. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding bioremediation techniques:
- Bio-venting involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment.
- Bioaugmentation involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statement about the Oil spills:
- Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Oil spills at sea decreases the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Coalition of Epidemic Preparedness for Innovation (CEPI):
- It is a WHO subsidiary.
- It is a foundation that takes donations to finance independent research projects to develop vaccines against emerging infectious diseases (EID).
- It is focused on the WHO’s ‘blueprint priority diseases’.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct CEPI is neither a WHO subsidiary nor a UN body. The CEPI is a foundation that takes donations to finance independent research projects to develop vaccines against emerging infectious diseases (EID). It is focused on the WHO’s ‘blueprint priority diseases’. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct CEPI is neither a WHO subsidiary nor a UN body. The CEPI is a foundation that takes donations to finance independent research projects to develop vaccines against emerging infectious diseases (EID). It is focused on the WHO’s ‘blueprint priority diseases’. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Mission for Electric Mobility?
- NEMMP aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country.
- The government would provide fiscal and monetary incentives for this industry.
- The National Council for Electric Mobility (NCEM) is chaired by the Minister for Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct NEMMP aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. The government would provide fiscal and monetary incentives for this industry. The National Council for Electric Mobility (NCEM) is chaired by the Minister for Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct NEMMP aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. The government would provide fiscal and monetary incentives for this industry. The National Council for Electric Mobility (NCEM) is chaired by the Minister for Heavy Industries & Public Enterprises. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation. Which of the following are the impact(s) of the forest fire?
- It replenishes carbon sinks.
- There is loss of valuable timber resources.
- It leads to the ozone layer depletion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. Notes:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
- Loss of valuable timber resources.
- Depletion of carbon sinks.
- Degradation of water catchment areas resulting in loss of water.
- Loss of biodiversity and extinction of plants and animals.
- Loss of wildlife habitat and depletion of wildlife.
- Loss of natural regeneration and reduction in forest cover and production.
- Global warming resulting in rising temperature.
- Loss of carbon sink resource and an increase in the percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere.
- Change in the microclimate of the area making it unhealthy living conditions.
- Soil erosion affecting the productivity of soils and production.
- Ozone layer depletion.
- Health problems leading to diseases.
- Indirect effects on agricultural production leading to loss of livelihood.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. Notes:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
- Loss of valuable timber resources.
- Depletion of carbon sinks.
- Degradation of water catchment areas resulting in loss of water.
- Loss of biodiversity and extinction of plants and animals.
- Loss of wildlife habitat and depletion of wildlife.
- Loss of natural regeneration and reduction in forest cover and production.
- Global warming resulting in rising temperature.
- Loss of carbon sink resource and an increase in the percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere.
- Change in the microclimate of the area making it unhealthy living conditions.
- Soil erosion affecting the productivity of soils and production.
- Ozone layer depletion.
- Health problems leading to diseases.
- Indirect effects on agricultural production leading to loss of livelihood.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following organisations/policies provide guidelines for the resettlement and rehabilitation of displaced persons due to anthropogenic or natural disasters in India?
- United Nations Relief and Rehabilitation Administration.
- National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation -2003.
- World Commission on Dams.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct United Nations Relief and Rehabilitation Administration -1943. National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation -2003. 3. World Commission on Dams -2000. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct United Nations Relief and Rehabilitation Administration -1943. National Policy on Resettlement and Rehabilitation -2003. 3. World Commission on Dams -2000. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following is/are the possible reason/s of habitat destruction and deterioration?
- Agriculture expansion
- Livestock pressure
- Human conflicts and wars
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Clearing of forest areas for agricultural expansion causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. Clearing of forest areas because of livestock pressure causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. Critical natural habitat and its associated biodiversity are diminished in wars around the world. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Clearing of forest areas for agricultural expansion causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. Clearing of forest areas because of livestock pressure causes destruction and deterioration of habitats. Critical natural habitat and its associated biodiversity are diminished in wars around the world. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Pantanal Wetlands, world’s largest tropical wetland, has been in news due to its forest fires. It is located in
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Pantanal Wetlands:
- The number of forest fires in the Pantanal wetland, the world’s largest tropical wetlands, has tripled in 2020 compared to previous years, according to Brazil’s national space agency.
- Pantanal Wetlands have located in South America Region. The wetlands are located across Brazil, Paraguay, and Bolivia and are one of the most biodiverse areas in the world.
- It is the world’s largest tropical wetland. Wetlands like it are the Earth’s most effective carbon sinks, which absorb and store more carbon than they release. Thus, they play a key role in mitigating climate change.
- At roughly 200,000 square kilometers, the Pantanal comprises about 3% of the globe’s wetlands and plays a key role in the carbon cycle.
- When these carbon-rich ecosystems burn, vast amounts of heat-trapping gases are released back into the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Pantanal Wetlands:
- The number of forest fires in the Pantanal wetland, the world’s largest tropical wetlands, has tripled in 2020 compared to previous years, according to Brazil’s national space agency.
- Pantanal Wetlands have located in South America Region. The wetlands are located across Brazil, Paraguay, and Bolivia and are one of the most biodiverse areas in the world.
- It is the world’s largest tropical wetland. Wetlands like it are the Earth’s most effective carbon sinks, which absorb and store more carbon than they release. Thus, they play a key role in mitigating climate change.
- At roughly 200,000 square kilometers, the Pantanal comprises about 3% of the globe’s wetlands and plays a key role in the carbon cycle.
- When these carbon-rich ecosystems burn, vast amounts of heat-trapping gases are released back into the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Heatwaves occurring in the ocean are known as Marine Heatwaves (MHWs). Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Marine Heatwaves?
- They occur when sea surface temperatures rise and stay above the expected seasonal temperatures for at least five days in a row.
- They can occur both in summers and winters.
- They can be strengthened by the warm ocean currents.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is said to occur when sea surface temperatures in part of the ocean rise and stay above the expected seasonal temperatures for at least five days in a row. They can occur both in summers and winters. They can be strengthened by the warm ocean currents. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is said to occur when sea surface temperatures in part of the ocean rise and stay above the expected seasonal temperatures for at least five days in a row. They can occur both in summers and winters. They can be strengthened by the warm ocean currents. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
With reference to recently launched Green–Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity, consider the following statements:
- It is a platform for trading of electricity generated from renewable energy.
- It has been developed jointly by International Atomic Energy Agency and India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is a platform for short-term trading of electricity generated from renewable energy. Union Power Minister of India has recently launched Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is a platform for short-term trading of electricity generated from renewable energy. Union Power Minister of India has recently launched Green Term Ahead Market (GTAM) in electricity. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
With reference to the recently launched Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0, consider the following statements:
- It has been launched by NITI Aayog.
- It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has launched the Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0. It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs has launched the Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0. It intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban planning and development in India. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Energy Conservation Building Code:
- It has been launched by Energy Efficiency Services Limited
- It is applicable to both private residential as well as commercial buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings in India. Buildings intended for private residential purposes only are not covered by the Code. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bureau of Energy Efficiency had launched the Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) 2007 to establish minimum energy performance standards for buildings in India. Buildings intended for private residential purposes only are not covered by the Code. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to small-hydro energy projects in India:
- Hydropower plants of 200 MW or below capacity are classified as small hydropower projects.
- Karnataka leads in the production of energy from small-hydro power plants.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct In India, hydropower plants of 25 MW or below capacity are classified as small hydro, which have further been classified into micro (100kW or below), mini (101kW-2MW) and small hydro (2-25MW) segments. Karnataka leads in the production of energy from small-hydro power plants. Karnataka is the first state in the country to set up a professionally managed corporation to plan, construct operate and maintain power generation projects. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct In India, hydropower plants of 25 MW or below capacity are classified as small hydro, which have further been classified into micro (100kW or below), mini (101kW-2MW) and small hydro (2-25MW) segments. Karnataka leads in the production of energy from small-hydro power plants. Karnataka is the first state in the country to set up a professionally managed corporation to plan, construct operate and maintain power generation projects. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
With reference to the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), consider the following statements:
- It is a multi-stakeholder organization encouraging academia and corporates in the field of renewable energy.
- It facilitates technology transfer to provide clean, sustainable energy for the world’s growing population.
- India is a founding member of IRENA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The International Renewable Energy Agency is an intergovernmental organisation. It is mandated to facilitate cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy, for the world’s growing population. India is one of the Founding Members of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The International Renewable Energy Agency is an intergovernmental organisation. It is mandated to facilitate cooperation, advance knowledge, and promote the adoption and sustainable use of renewable energy, for the world’s growing population. India is one of the Founding Members of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA). -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
With reference to ‘Solar City’, consider the following statements:
- They are cities that aim at ten per cent reduction in projected demand of conventional energy.
- It includes only metro cities having a population above 10 million.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Solar City aims at a minimum of 10% reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years, through a combination of enhancing supply from renewable energy sources in the city and energy efficiency measures. The cities may have a population between 0.50 lakh to 50 lakh, however, relaxation could be considered for special category States including the North-Eastern States and hilly States, Islands and Union Territories. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Solar City aims at a minimum of 10% reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years, through a combination of enhancing supply from renewable energy sources in the city and energy efficiency measures. The cities may have a population between 0.50 lakh to 50 lakh, however, relaxation could be considered for special category States including the North-Eastern States and hilly States, Islands and Union Territories. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following are the causes of the Forest fire?
- Lightning
- Volcanic eruption
- Sparks from wheels of trains
- Clearing of uncultivated land
- Fires caused by recreational and tourist activities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Correct Correct Correct Lightning Volcanic eruption Sparks from wheels of trains Clearing of uncultivated land Fires caused by recreational and tourist activities Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Correct Correct Correct Lightning Volcanic eruption Sparks from wheels of trains Clearing of uncultivated land Fires caused by recreational and tourist activities -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements-
- Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India.
- It was conceived by Bureau of Indian Standard and developed with Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It is mandatory to get GRIHA for all the commercial establishments in metropolitan cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India. It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of new and Renewable Energy. It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment (GRIHA) is a national rating system for green buildings in India. It was conceived by TERI and developed with Ministry of new and Renewable Energy. It is not mandatory to get GRIHA rating for any of the establishments in India. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following are criteria for Heat Waves as given by Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)?
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains.
- When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared.
- Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 35°C for Hilly regions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains. 2. When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C for Hilly regions. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C for Plains. 2. When the actual maximum temperature remains 45°C or more irrespective of normal maximum temperature, heat waves should be declared. Heat Wave need not be considered till the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C for Hilly regions. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bioremediation:
- Bioaugmentation is an Ex-situ bioremediation technique to enhance degradation process.
- Bioreactor is an In-situ bioremediation technique to process the contaminated solid material.
- The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Bioaugmentation is an In-situ bioremediation technique in which microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process. Bioreactors is an Ex-situ bioremediation technique which involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system. The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Bioaugmentation is an In-situ bioremediation technique in which microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process. Bioreactors is an Ex-situ bioremediation technique which involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system. The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
- Operation Freefly – Illegal trade of live birds
- Operation Wetmark – Curb illegal trade in wild cat and wild bird species
- Operation Birbil – Prohibition of sale of meat of wild animals
Select the correct code:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect WCCB conducted “Operation Freefly” on illegal trade of live birds and “Operation Wetmark” was conducted to ensure prohibition of sale of meat of wild animals in wet markets across the country. WCCB conducted “Operation Birbil” to curb illegal trade in wild cat and wild bird species Context – According to the recent data by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) and State Forest and Police Authorities, in the past three years (2018-2020), about 2054 cases were registered for killing or illegal trafficking of wild animals in India.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect WCCB conducted “Operation Freefly” on illegal trade of live birds and “Operation Wetmark” was conducted to ensure prohibition of sale of meat of wild animals in wet markets across the country. WCCB conducted “Operation Birbil” to curb illegal trade in wild cat and wild bird species Context – According to the recent data by the Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) and State Forest and Police Authorities, in the past three years (2018-2020), about 2054 cases were registered for killing or illegal trafficking of wild animals in India.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Magnetars:
- They have masses more than that of the Sun.
- They are more luminous than the Sun.
- Their rotation period is lesser than the Sun.
Choose the correct statements using the code given below
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Massive stars with masses around10-25 times the mass of the sun eventually collapse and shrink to form very compact objects called neutron stars.A subset of these neutron stars become Magnetars. Magnetars have high magnetic fields and they emit energy in the range of 10^37-10^40 joules per second. Compare this to the luminosity of the sun which is in the order of 10^26 joules per second They have breathtakingly high rotation speeds that can be just 0.3 to 12 seconds Context – Study of magnetar revealed facets of exotic star.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Massive stars with masses around10-25 times the mass of the sun eventually collapse and shrink to form very compact objects called neutron stars.A subset of these neutron stars become Magnetars. Magnetars have high magnetic fields and they emit energy in the range of 10^37-10^40 joules per second. Compare this to the luminosity of the sun which is in the order of 10^26 joules per second They have breathtakingly high rotation speeds that can be just 0.3 to 12 seconds Context – Study of magnetar revealed facets of exotic star.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘NITI Aayog Health Index’:
- It is part of report commissioned by NITI Aayog, the World Health Organization and Union Health and Family Welfare Ministry.
- The Health Index score is prepared based on the States’ performance across a large set of indicators that are divided into five broad domains.
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is part of a report commissioned by the NITI Aayog,the World Bank and Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare The Health Index score is prepared based on the States’ performance across a large set of indicators that are divided into three broad domains- health outcomes, governance and information, key inputs and processes. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is part of a report commissioned by the NITI Aayog,the World Bank and Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare The Health Index score is prepared based on the States’ performance across a large set of indicators that are divided into three broad domains- health outcomes, governance and information, key inputs and processes. -
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Aurobindo Ghose’:
- He developed a spiritual practice he called Integral Yoga
- He was a journalist who edited newspapers such as ‘Kaal’
- He was appointed the first principal of the National College in Calcutta, started to impart national education to Indian youth
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct At Pondicherry, Sri Aurobindo developed a spiritual practice he called Integral Yoga. The central theme of his vision was the evolution of human life into a divine life in divine body. He believed in a spiritual realisation that not only liberated but transformed human nature, enabling a divine life on earth Sri Aurobindo (born Aurobindo Ghose) was an Indian philosopher, yoga guru, maharishi, poet, and Indian nationalist. He was also a journalist, editing newspapers such as Bande Mataram In 1906, Aurobindo was appointed the first principal of the National College in Calcutta, started to impart national education to Indian youth. He resigned from this position in August 1907, due to his increased political activity. Context – Prime Minister Narendra Modi is heading an extensive 53-member committee that has been set up to mark the 150th birth anniversary of spiritual leader Sri Aurobindo.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct At Pondicherry, Sri Aurobindo developed a spiritual practice he called Integral Yoga. The central theme of his vision was the evolution of human life into a divine life in divine body. He believed in a spiritual realisation that not only liberated but transformed human nature, enabling a divine life on earth Sri Aurobindo (born Aurobindo Ghose) was an Indian philosopher, yoga guru, maharishi, poet, and Indian nationalist. He was also a journalist, editing newspapers such as Bande Mataram In 1906, Aurobindo was appointed the first principal of the National College in Calcutta, started to impart national education to Indian youth. He resigned from this position in August 1907, due to his increased political activity. Context – Prime Minister Narendra Modi is heading an extensive 53-member committee that has been set up to mark the 150th birth anniversary of spiritual leader Sri Aurobindo.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
’Emergency Use Listing’ is used in the context of
Correct
Solution (c)
Covovax is produced by the Serum Institute of India under license from Novovax, a US based biotechnology company. The vaccine has been approved by the World Health Organization(WHO) under its Emergency Use Listing.
Context – Corbevax and covovax was approved for emergency use listing.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Covovax is produced by the Serum Institute of India under license from Novovax, a US based biotechnology company. The vaccine has been approved by the World Health Organization(WHO) under its Emergency Use Listing.
Context – Corbevax and covovax was approved for emergency use listing.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The probability of getting a number greater than 2 by throwing a fair dice is
Correct
Solution (b)
Possible outcomes = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6 } = 6
Possibility of a number greater than 2 = {3, 4 ,5, 6} = 4
Therefore, Required probability = 4/6 = 2/3
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Possible outcomes = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5,6 } = 6
Possibility of a number greater than 2 = {3, 4 ,5, 6} = 4
Therefore, Required probability = 4/6 = 2/3
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A pair of dices are rolled together till a sum of 5 or 7 is obtained, The probability that a 5 comes before 7 is
Correct
Solution (a)
5 can be obtained by the following combinations = {1,4 }, {2,3}
Hence, the probability of 5 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6)+ (1/6)*(1/6))= 1/9
Similarly, 7 can be obtained from the following combinations = {1,6}, {2,5}, {3,4}
Hence, the probability of 7 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6)) = 1/6
Probability that neither sum occurs = 1 – P(7) – P(5) = 1 – 1/6 – 1/9 = 13/18
Hence, the probability that A occurs before B is
P(a) + P(c)P(a) + P(c2)P(a)
= 1/9 + (13/18)(1/9) + (13/18)2(1/9)+ …..
=(1/9)/1 – 13/18 = 2/5
Incorrect
Solution (a)
5 can be obtained by the following combinations = {1,4 }, {2,3}
Hence, the probability of 5 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6)+ (1/6)*(1/6))= 1/9
Similarly, 7 can be obtained from the following combinations = {1,6}, {2,5}, {3,4}
Hence, the probability of 7 = 2 * ((1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6) + (1/6)*(1/6)) = 1/6
Probability that neither sum occurs = 1 – P(7) – P(5) = 1 – 1/6 – 1/9 = 13/18
Hence, the probability that A occurs before B is
P(a) + P(c)P(a) + P(c2)P(a)
= 1/9 + (13/18)(1/9) + (13/18)2(1/9)+ …..
=(1/9)/1 – 13/18 = 2/5
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Two dice are thrown, what is the probability that both the dices are not having the same number.
Correct
Solution (d)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown together = 36
Outcomes when both the numbers can be same = ( (1,1), (2,2) , (3,3) , (4,4) , (5,5) , (6,6))= 6
Therefore, the probability of getting the same number = 6/36 = 1/6
The probability of not getting the same number = 1- 1/6 = 5/6
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown together = 36
Outcomes when both the numbers can be same = ( (1,1), (2,2) , (3,3) , (4,4) , (5,5) , (6,6))= 6
Therefore, the probability of getting the same number = 6/36 = 1/6
The probability of not getting the same number = 1- 1/6 = 5/6
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
two dices are thrown simultaneously, what is the probability that sum of these scores is a perfect square or an even number.
Correct
Solution (c)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown = 62 = 36
Two dices can form any number between 2 and 12.
In this range, there are three perfect squares: 4, 9 = 2
Number of even numbers between 2 and 12 are 2, 6, 8, 10, 12= 7
Ways to form 2 = (1,1) = 1 way
Ways to form 4 = (1,3) , (2,2) , (3,1) = 3 ways
Ways to form 6 = (1,5) , (2,4) , (3,3) , (4,2) , (5,1) = 5 ways
Ways to form 8 = (2,6) , ( 3,5), (4,4), (5,3) , (6,2) = 5 ways
Ways to form 9 = (3,6) , (4,5) , ( 5,4) , (6,3) = 4 ways
Ways to form 10 = (4,6) , (5,5) , (6,4) = 3 ways
Ways to form 12 = ( 6,6) = 1 way
Therefore, in all there are 22 ways out of 36 total outcomes = 22/36 = 11/18.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Total possible outcomes when two dices are thrown = 62 = 36
Two dices can form any number between 2 and 12.
In this range, there are three perfect squares: 4, 9 = 2
Number of even numbers between 2 and 12 are 2, 6, 8, 10, 12= 7
Ways to form 2 = (1,1) = 1 way
Ways to form 4 = (1,3) , (2,2) , (3,1) = 3 ways
Ways to form 6 = (1,5) , (2,4) , (3,3) , (4,2) , (5,1) = 5 ways
Ways to form 8 = (2,6) , ( 3,5), (4,4), (5,3) , (6,2) = 5 ways
Ways to form 9 = (3,6) , (4,5) , ( 5,4) , (6,3) = 4 ways
Ways to form 10 = (4,6) , (5,5) , (6,4) = 3 ways
Ways to form 12 = ( 6,6) = 1 way
Therefore, in all there are 22 ways out of 36 total outcomes = 22/36 = 11/18.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
Journalism may never have been as public-spirited an enterprise as editors and writers liked to think it was. Yet the myth mattered. It pushed journalism to challenge power; it made journalists loath to bend to the whims of their audience; it provided a crucial sense of detachment. The new generation of media giants that dominates journalism today has no patience for the old ethos of detachment. It’s not that these companies don’t have aspirations toward journalistic greatness. Buzz Feed, Vice, and the Huffington Post invest in excellent reporting and employ first-rate journalists—and they have produced some of the most memorable pieces of investigative journalism in this century. But in the pursuit of audience, they have allowed the endless feedback loop of the web to shape their editorial sensibility and determine their editorial investments.
Q.30) Which of the following is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct
Solution (c)
The paragraph given argues that though journalism may have never been as public-spirited as it believed itself to be, the myth of detachment mattered, as it encouraged journalistic ideals such as standing up to power and not bending to the whims of the audience. In contrast, the guiding ethos of media giants that dominate journalism today is not detachment or editorial sensibility, but the relentless pursuit of the audience.
Option c sums up the main idea of the paragraph the best.
Option a talks of ‘editorial insight’ being engineered with the help of audience feedback loops. The paragraph, on the other hand talks of editorial sensibility/discernment, and expresses concern that media giants, in their single-minded focus on audience, have dashed the crucial myth of detachment that shaped journalism earlier. Option a does not touch upon this.
Option b is close, but incorrect, as it refers to social-consciousness that journalism exhibited earlier. The paragraph categorically states that journalism was never as public-spirited as it imagined itself to be.
Option d talks of a drop in the quality of journalism. The paragraph actually states the contrary. It only holds that editorial sensibility has been compromised.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The paragraph given argues that though journalism may have never been as public-spirited as it believed itself to be, the myth of detachment mattered, as it encouraged journalistic ideals such as standing up to power and not bending to the whims of the audience. In contrast, the guiding ethos of media giants that dominate journalism today is not detachment or editorial sensibility, but the relentless pursuit of the audience.
Option c sums up the main idea of the paragraph the best.
Option a talks of ‘editorial insight’ being engineered with the help of audience feedback loops. The paragraph, on the other hand talks of editorial sensibility/discernment, and expresses concern that media giants, in their single-minded focus on audience, have dashed the crucial myth of detachment that shaped journalism earlier. Option a does not touch upon this.
Option b is close, but incorrect, as it refers to social-consciousness that journalism exhibited earlier. The paragraph categorically states that journalism was never as public-spirited as it imagined itself to be.
Option d talks of a drop in the quality of journalism. The paragraph actually states the contrary. It only holds that editorial sensibility has been compromised.
All the Best
IASbaba