IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 41– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Vision Defect Correction Lens
- Myopia Bifocal lens
- Hypermetropia Convex lens
- Presbyopia Concave lens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Myopia – Concave Lens Hypermetropia – Convex Lens Presbyopia – Bifocal Lenses Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Myopia – Concave Lens Hypermetropia – Convex Lens Presbyopia – Bifocal Lenses -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which among the following could be considered as examples of Refraction of light?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The twinkling of a star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight. The starlight, on entering the earth’s atmosphere, undergoes refraction continuously before it reaches the earth. The Sun is visible to us about 2 minutes before the actual sunrise, and about 2 minutes after the actual sunset because of atmospheric refraction. By actual sunrise, we mean the actual crossing of the horizon by the Sun. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding image formation by eye:
- The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris.
- The lens focuses light on a layer called retina.
- The impression of an image vanishes immediately from the retina.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect In the iris, there is a small opening called the pupil. The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris. The lens focuses light on the back of the eye, on a layer called retina. The retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve. The impression of an image does not vanish immediately from the retina. It persists there for about 1/16th of a second. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect In the iris, there is a small opening called the pupil. The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris. The lens focuses light on the back of the eye, on a layer called retina. The retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve. The impression of an image does not vanish immediately from the retina. It persists there for about 1/16th of a second. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Even when an electric heater is allowed to run for a long time, its temperature does not increase infinitely. This is because:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Even when an electric heater is allowed to run for a long time, its temperature does not increase infinitely. This is because the heat generated is dissipated to the surrounding medium.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Even when an electric heater is allowed to run for a long time, its temperature does not increase infinitely. This is because the heat generated is dissipated to the surrounding medium.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
The rocket’s action is to push down on the ground with the force of its powerful engines, and the reaction is that the ground pushes the rocket upwards with an equal force. This is an example of which of the following?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The phenomenon mentioned above is an example of Newton’s third law of motion.
Newton’s Third Law of Motion:
- For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. The statement means that in every interaction, there is a pair of forces acting on the two interacting objects.
- The size of the forces on the first object equals the size of the force on the second object. The direction of the force on the first object is opposite to the direction of the force on the second object. Forces always come in pairs – equal and opposite action-reaction force pairs.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The phenomenon mentioned above is an example of Newton’s third law of motion.
Newton’s Third Law of Motion:
- For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. The statement means that in every interaction, there is a pair of forces acting on the two interacting objects.
- The size of the forces on the first object equals the size of the force on the second object. The direction of the force on the first object is opposite to the direction of the force on the second object. Forces always come in pairs – equal and opposite action-reaction force pairs.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
With reference to nuclear fission, consider the following statements:
- It is an exothermic reaction releasing huge amount of energy as gamma rays.
- Spontaneous fission is a type of radioactive decay.
- The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled fission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Fission of heavy elements is an exothermic reaction and can release substantial amounts of useful energy both as gamma rays and as kinetic energy of the fragments (heating the bulk material where fission takes place). In nuclear physics, nuclear fission is either a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process. The case of decay process is called spontaneous fission and it is very rare process that is found only in very heavy chemical elements. The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled fission. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Fission of heavy elements is an exothermic reaction and can release substantial amounts of useful energy both as gamma rays and as kinetic energy of the fragments (heating the bulk material where fission takes place). In nuclear physics, nuclear fission is either a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process. The case of decay process is called spontaneous fission and it is very rare process that is found only in very heavy chemical elements. The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled fission. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding radioactive emissions:
- The alpha particle is actually an electron created in the nucleus during beta decay without any relationship to the orbital electron cloud of the atom.
- The beta particle is actually the nucleus of a helium-4 atom, with two positive charges 4/2He.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The alpha particle is actually the nucleus of a helium-4 atom, with two positive charges 4/2He. Such charged atoms are called ions. The beta minus [β−] particle is actually an electron created in the nucleus during beta decay without any relationship to the orbital electron cloud of the atom. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The alpha particle is actually the nucleus of a helium-4 atom, with two positive charges 4/2He. Such charged atoms are called ions. The beta minus [β−] particle is actually an electron created in the nucleus during beta decay without any relationship to the orbital electron cloud of the atom. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding applications of radioisotopes:
- Iodine-131 is used to treat thyroid disorders. (Graves’s disease).
- Iron-55 is used to analyze electroplating solutions and to detect the presence of sulphur in the air.
- Radium-226 makes lighting rods more effective.
- Strontium-85 is used to study bone formation and metabolism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Iodine-131 is used to treat thyroid disorders. (Graves’s disease). Iron-55 is used to analyze electroplating solutions and to detect the presence of sulphur in the air. Radium-226 makes lighting rods more effective. Strontium-85 is used to study bone formation and metabolism. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Iodine-131 is used to treat thyroid disorders. (Graves’s disease). Iron-55 is used to analyze electroplating solutions and to detect the presence of sulphur in the air. Radium-226 makes lighting rods more effective. Strontium-85 is used to study bone formation and metabolism. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following are properties of superconductivity?
- Zero resistance to electrical current.
- Diamagnetism
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Superconductivity is a state in which a material shows absolutely zero electrical resistance. Diamagnetism is a property opposite to normal magnetism that we are used to. A diamagnetic substance repels an external magnetic field, in sharp contrast to normal magnetism, or ferromagnetism, under which a substance is attracted by an external magnetic field. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Superconductivity is a state in which a material shows absolutely zero electrical resistance. Diamagnetism is a property opposite to normal magnetism that we are used to. A diamagnetic substance repels an external magnetic field, in sharp contrast to normal magnetism, or ferromagnetism, under which a substance is attracted by an external magnetic field. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding NANOGrav:
- NANOGrav stands for North American Nanohertz Observatory for Gravitational Waves.
- NANOGrav members are drawn from across the United States and Canada.
- NANOGrav uses the Galaxy itself to detect gravitational waves with the help of objects called pulsars.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct NANOGrav stands for North American Nanohertz Observatory for Gravitational Waves. NANOGrav members are drawn from across the United States and Canada. NANOGrav uses the Galaxy itself to detect gravitational waves with the help of objects called pulsars. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct NANOGrav stands for North American Nanohertz Observatory for Gravitational Waves. NANOGrav members are drawn from across the United States and Canada. NANOGrav uses the Galaxy itself to detect gravitational waves with the help of objects called pulsars. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding National Atomic Timescale:
- It is a timescale used for measuring the time within the range of a nanosecond with an accuracy level of 28 Nanosecond.
- Atomic Time measures the actual length of a second.
- Cesium-133 is used as an indicator to measure atomic time.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct It is a timescale used for measuring the time within the range of a nanosecond with an accuracy level of 2.8 Nanosecond. Atomic Time measures the actual length of a second. Cesium-133 is used as an indicator to measure atomic time. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct It is a timescale used for measuring the time within the range of a nanosecond with an accuracy level of 2.8 Nanosecond. Atomic Time measures the actual length of a second. Cesium-133 is used as an indicator to measure atomic time. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Raman effect’:
- Raman effect is process of scattering of light particles by molecules of a medium due to a change in the wavelength of light as it enters the medium.
- National Science Day is celebrated every year to commemorate the announcement of the discovery of Raman effect.
- V Raman won the Nobel Prize in Physics for Raman effect.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Raman effect is process of scattering of light particles by molecules of a medium due to a change in the wavelength of light as it enters the medium. In 1986, the Government of India designated February 28 as National Science Day. National Science Day is celebrated every year to commemorate the announcement of the discovery of Raman effect. C.V Raman won the Nobel Prize in Physics for Raman effect in 1930. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Raman effect is process of scattering of light particles by molecules of a medium due to a change in the wavelength of light as it enters the medium. In 1986, the Government of India designated February 28 as National Science Day. National Science Day is celebrated every year to commemorate the announcement of the discovery of Raman effect. C.V Raman won the Nobel Prize in Physics for Raman effect in 1930. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
With reference to Electromagnetic waves, consider the following statements:
- Electromagnetic waves are produced when an electric field comes in contact with the magnetic field.
- Electromagnetic waves differ from mechanical waves in that they always need a medium to propagate.
- They are classified according to their frequency or according to their wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Electromagnetic waves are the composition of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. Electromagnetic waves are solutions of Maxwell’s equations, which are the fundamental equations of electrodynamics. Electromagnetic waves are produced when an electric field comes in contact with the magnetic field. Electromagnetic waves differ from mechanical waves in that they do not need a medium to propagate. Hence, they are also present in the space. They are classified according to their frequency or according to their wavelength. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Electromagnetic waves are the composition of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. Electromagnetic waves are solutions of Maxwell’s equations, which are the fundamental equations of electrodynamics. Electromagnetic waves are produced when an electric field comes in contact with the magnetic field. Electromagnetic waves differ from mechanical waves in that they do not need a medium to propagate. Hence, they are also present in the space. They are classified according to their frequency or according to their wavelength. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With reference to conducting property of materials, consider the following statements:
- The conductivity of the semiconductor increases with the decrease in temperature.
- Superconductors are materials that carry electrical current with zero or negligible electrical resistance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The conductivity of the semiconductor increases with the increase in temperature. Semiconductors are materials which have a conductivity between conductors (generally metals) and nonconductors or insulators (such as most ceramics). Semiconductors can be pure elements, such as silicon or germanium, or compounds such as gallium arsenide or cadmium selenide. A superconductor is a material that can conduct electricity or transport electrons from one atom to another with no resistance. This means no heat, sound or any other form of energy would be released from the material when it has reached “critical temperature” (Tc), or the temperature at which the material becomes superconductive. Most materials must be in an extremely low energy state (very cold) in order to become superconductive. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The conductivity of the semiconductor increases with the increase in temperature. Semiconductors are materials which have a conductivity between conductors (generally metals) and nonconductors or insulators (such as most ceramics). Semiconductors can be pure elements, such as silicon or germanium, or compounds such as gallium arsenide or cadmium selenide. A superconductor is a material that can conduct electricity or transport electrons from one atom to another with no resistance. This means no heat, sound or any other form of energy would be released from the material when it has reached “critical temperature” (Tc), or the temperature at which the material becomes superconductive. Most materials must be in an extremely low energy state (very cold) in order to become superconductive. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
With reference to proton therapy, consider the following statements:
- It is a type of radiation therapy which uses protons to treat cancer.
- In this therapy, protons do not exit the target tumor and the healthy tissue stays unaffected.
- The positive charge on a proton is equal in magnitude to the negative charge on an electron.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Proton therapy, also called proton beam therapy, is a type of radiation therapy. It uses protons rather than x-rays to treat cancer. 2. In this therapy, protons do not exit the target tumor and the healthy tissue stays unaffected. Proton, a stable subatomic particle that has a positive charge equal in magnitude to a unit of electron charge and a rest mass of 1.67262 × 10−27 kg, which is 1,836 times the mass of an electron. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Proton therapy, also called proton beam therapy, is a type of radiation therapy. It uses protons rather than x-rays to treat cancer. 2. In this therapy, protons do not exit the target tumor and the healthy tissue stays unaffected. Proton, a stable subatomic particle that has a positive charge equal in magnitude to a unit of electron charge and a rest mass of 1.67262 × 10−27 kg, which is 1,836 times the mass of an electron. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Helium is an odorless and non-toxic noble gas.
- The liquified Helium is obtained by cooling the gas to -270 degrees Celsius.
- It is used in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan and semiconductors manufacturing.
- India is a net exporter of helium gas with abundant resource at Aravalli hill region.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Helium is an odorless and non-toxic noble gas. The liquified Helium is obtained by cooling the gas to -270 degrees Celsius. It is used in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan and semiconductors manufacturing. India imports helium for its needs. Every year, India imports helium worth Rs 55,000 crores from the U.S. to meet its needs. India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Helium is an odorless and non-toxic noble gas. The liquified Helium is obtained by cooling the gas to -270 degrees Celsius. It is used in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan and semiconductors manufacturing. India imports helium for its needs. Every year, India imports helium worth Rs 55,000 crores from the U.S. to meet its needs. India’s Rajmahal volcanic basin in Jharkhand is the storehouse of helium trapped for billions of years. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
With reference to the to ‘Ultrasound’, consider the following statements:
- Frequencies higher than 20 kHz are called ultrasonic sound.
- Dolphins and Bats produce ultrasound.
- Ultrasonic waves are used in echocardiography (ECG).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Frequencies higher than 20 kHz are called ultrasonic sound. Ultrasound is produced by dolphins, bats and porpoises. Moths of certain families have very sensitive hearing equipment. These moths can hear the high frequency squeaks of the bat and know when a bat is flying nearby, and are able to escape capture. Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image of the heart. This technique is called ‘echocardiography’ (ECG). Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Frequencies higher than 20 kHz are called ultrasonic sound. Ultrasound is produced by dolphins, bats and porpoises. Moths of certain families have very sensitive hearing equipment. These moths can hear the high frequency squeaks of the bat and know when a bat is flying nearby, and are able to escape capture. Ultrasonic waves are made to reflect from various parts of the heart and form the image of the heart. This technique is called ‘echocardiography’ (ECG). -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
With reference to the ‘Electromagnetic Induction’, consider the following statements:
- It is the production of induced current in a region where the magnetic field changes with time.
- The direction of the induced current is given by the Ohm’s law.
- A generator works on the basis of electromagnetic induction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is the production of induced current in a region where the magnetic field changes with time. The direction of the induced current is given by the Fleming’s Right Hand Rule. An AC generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It works on the basis of electromagnetic induction. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is the production of induced current in a region where the magnetic field changes with time. The direction of the induced current is given by the Fleming’s Right Hand Rule. An AC generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. It works on the basis of electromagnetic induction. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics went to a trio who created weather system models and found ways to spot patterns, and make predictions about weather and climate. Who among the following was not a member of this trio?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
2021 Nobel Prize in Physics:
- The 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics went to a trio who created weather system models and found ways to spot patterns, and make predictions about weather and climate.
- Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann were awarded half the prize money ‘for the physical modelling of Earth’s climate, quantifying variability and reliably predicting global warming’.
- The other half went to Giorgio Parisi ‘for the discovery of the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems from atomic to planetary scales’.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
2021 Nobel Prize in Physics:
- The 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics went to a trio who created weather system models and found ways to spot patterns, and make predictions about weather and climate.
- Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann were awarded half the prize money ‘for the physical modelling of Earth’s climate, quantifying variability and reliably predicting global warming’.
- The other half went to Giorgio Parisi ‘for the discovery of the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems from atomic to planetary scales’.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following applications in the Indian context:
- High precision flood risk mapping even up to the accuracy of nanometres.
- Detecting track faults in the railway’s lines.
- Conducting oil and gas exploration surveys.
- Determining the 3D structure of the forests.
Which of the following surveillance system(s) is best suited for above mentioned applications?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
RADAR SONAR LIDAR Incorrect Incorrect Correct Radar is a detection system that uses radio waves to determine the range, angle, or velocity of objects. It can be used to detect aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles, motor vehicles, weather formations, and terrain. It is not used in the above applications. Sonar (sound navigation and ranging) is a technique that uses sound propagation (usually underwater, as in submarine navigation) to navigate, communicate with or detect objects on or under the surface of the water, such as other vessels. It is not used in the above applications. Lidar is a method for measuring distances (ranging) by illuminating the target with laser light and measuring the reflection with a sensor. Differences in laser return times and wavelengths can then be used to make digital 3-D representations of the target. It can be used in the above applications. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
RADAR SONAR LIDAR Incorrect Incorrect Correct Radar is a detection system that uses radio waves to determine the range, angle, or velocity of objects. It can be used to detect aircraft, ships, spacecraft, guided missiles, motor vehicles, weather formations, and terrain. It is not used in the above applications. Sonar (sound navigation and ranging) is a technique that uses sound propagation (usually underwater, as in submarine navigation) to navigate, communicate with or detect objects on or under the surface of the water, such as other vessels. It is not used in the above applications. Lidar is a method for measuring distances (ranging) by illuminating the target with laser light and measuring the reflection with a sensor. Differences in laser return times and wavelengths can then be used to make digital 3-D representations of the target. It can be used in the above applications. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Inter-operable Criminal Justice Project (ICJS)’
- Ministry of Law and Justice has approved implementation of ICJS project Phase II as a Central Sector Scheme
- Phase-I was built on the principle of ‘one data one entry’ whereby data is entered only once in one pillar and same is available on all other pillars
- E-Committee of the Supreme Court will be responsible for the implementation of ICJS in association with National Informatics Center
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ministry of Home Affairs has approved implementation of ICJS project Phase II during 2022-23 to 2025-26 as a Central Sector Scheme. Phase-II is built on the principle of ‘one data one entry’ whereby data is entered only once in one pillar and the same is then available in all other pillars. Under Phase-I, individual IT systems have been implemented and stabilized. National Crime Records Bureau will be responsible for the implementation of ICJS in association with National Informatics Center, in collaboration with States and UTs. Context – The project was recently approved.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Ministry of Home Affairs has approved implementation of ICJS project Phase II during 2022-23 to 2025-26 as a Central Sector Scheme. Phase-II is built on the principle of ‘one data one entry’ whereby data is entered only once in one pillar and the same is then available in all other pillars. Under Phase-I, individual IT systems have been implemented and stabilized. National Crime Records Bureau will be responsible for the implementation of ICJS in association with National Informatics Center, in collaboration with States and UTs. Context – The project was recently approved.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
With respect to the latest guidelines regarding ‘Extended Producer Responsibility’, consider the following statements
- The guidelines allow for the sale and purchase of surplus extended producer responsibility certificates
- The producers, importers and brand-owners (PIBO) have to provide the details of recycling certificates from registered recyclers only
- They were notified under the provisions of Environment Protection Act,1986
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The guidelines allow for the sale and purchase of surplus extended producer responsibility certificates. Thus, setting up a market mechanism for plastic waste management The producers, importers and brand-owners (PIBO) have to provide the details of recycling certificates only from registered recyclers along with the details of quantity sent for end-of-life disposal, of next financial year while filing annual returns on the online portal. In exercise of the powers conferred by sections 3, 6, and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (29 of 1986), the Central Government made the following rules further to amend the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. These rules may be called the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022 Context – Guidelines on Extended Producer Responsibility for Plastic Packaging was announced.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The guidelines allow for the sale and purchase of surplus extended producer responsibility certificates. Thus, setting up a market mechanism for plastic waste management The producers, importers and brand-owners (PIBO) have to provide the details of recycling certificates only from registered recyclers along with the details of quantity sent for end-of-life disposal, of next financial year while filing annual returns on the online portal. In exercise of the powers conferred by sections 3, 6, and 25 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 (29 of 1986), the Central Government made the following rules further to amend the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. These rules may be called the Plastic Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2022 Context – Guidelines on Extended Producer Responsibility for Plastic Packaging was announced.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements
- The term ‘virtual digital assets’ is defined in the Income Tax Act
- Finance Act proposed to tax any income from transfer of any virtual digital asset at 25%
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Under clause 47A of the Section 2 of Income Tax Act the virtual digital assets means any information or code or number or token (not being Indian currency or foreign currency), generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, by whatever name called, providing a digital representation of value exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value, or functions as a store of value or a unit of account including its use in any financial transaction or investment, but not limited to investment scheme; and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically Under Section 115BBH of the Income Tax Act, any income from transfer of any virtual digital asset shall be taxed at the rate of 30%. Context – The budget proposed to tax income obtained through virtual digital assets.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Under clause 47A of the Section 2 of Income Tax Act the virtual digital assets means any information or code or number or token (not being Indian currency or foreign currency), generated through cryptographic means or otherwise, by whatever name called, providing a digital representation of value exchanged with or without consideration, with the promise or representation of having inherent value, or functions as a store of value or a unit of account including its use in any financial transaction or investment, but not limited to investment scheme; and can be transferred, stored or traded electronically Under Section 115BBH of the Income Tax Act, any income from transfer of any virtual digital asset shall be taxed at the rate of 30%. Context – The budget proposed to tax income obtained through virtual digital assets.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
‘White Cheeked Macaque’ is found in
Correct
Solution (b)
Scientists from Zoological Survey of India have recorded presence of White-Cheeked Macaque (Macaca leucogenys) from central Arunachal Pradesh in India. The species was first discovered in 2015 in China and its existence was not known in India before this.
Context – The presence of this species was recently recorded in India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Scientists from Zoological Survey of India have recorded presence of White-Cheeked Macaque (Macaca leucogenys) from central Arunachal Pradesh in India. The species was first discovered in 2015 in China and its existence was not known in India before this.
Context – The presence of this species was recently recorded in India.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Official Secrets Act (1923)’
- The act defines ‘official secrets’ and lays down the procedure for prosecution
- Right to Information Act (RTI) may supersede official secrets act in some circumstances
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Official Secrets Act by itself does not say what a “secret” document is. It is the government’s discretion to decide what falls under the ambit of a “secret” document to be charged under OSA. Section 22 of the RTI Act provides for its primacy vis-a-vis provisions of other laws, including OSA. So if there is any inconsistency in OSA with regard to furnishing of information, it will be superseded by the RTI Act. However, under Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act, the government can refuse information Context – The act was in the news.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Official Secrets Act by itself does not say what a “secret” document is. It is the government’s discretion to decide what falls under the ambit of a “secret” document to be charged under OSA. Section 22 of the RTI Act provides for its primacy vis-a-vis provisions of other laws, including OSA. So if there is any inconsistency in OSA with regard to furnishing of information, it will be superseded by the RTI Act. However, under Sections 8 and 9 of the RTI Act, the government can refuse information Context – The act was in the news.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Vani who is the sister-in-law of Ashwin, is the daughter-in-law of Kavya. Dheeraj is the father of Sudhir who is the only brother of Ashwin. How Kavya is related to Ashwin?
Correct
Solution (d)
Ashwin is the only brother of Sudhir and Vani is the sister-in-law of Ashwin. Hence Vani is the wife of Sudhir. Kavya is the mother-in-law of Vani. Kavya is the mother of Ashwin.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Ashwin is the only brother of Sudhir and Vani is the sister-in-law of Ashwin. Hence Vani is the wife of Sudhir. Kavya is the mother-in-law of Vani. Kavya is the mother of Ashwin.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
B and C are siblings. M has two children and he is son of E, who is father-in-law of H. H has only one son. C is not granddaughter of E. How is B related to E
Correct
Solution (a)
E+
H– M+
B– C+
Incorrect
Solution (a)
E+
H– M+
B– C+
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In a family of 8 members, there are only two married couples and only married couples have children. Shanvi is the elder sister of Sam, who is married to Sita. Charvi is the only daughter of Suman, who is the nephew of Shanvi. Sourav is the brother-in-law of Shri, who does not belong to the first generation. It is to be assumed that wife is younger than his husband. Sita is the grandmother of Sana. Who among the following belongs to first generation?
- Sana
- Charvi
- Sahil
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution (d)
{ Shanvi ( Sam } Sita ) { -> siblings , ( -> couple
Sourav Suman Shri
Charvi Sana
Incorrect
Solution (d)
{ Shanvi ( Sam } Sita ) { -> siblings , ( -> couple
Sourav Suman Shri
Charvi Sana
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Abhishek said – “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother”. How is Abhishek related to the girl?
Correct
Solution (c)
The girl is the wife of grandson of Abhishek’s mother i.e., the girl is the wife of son of Abhishek. Hence, Abhishek is the father-in-law of the girl.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The girl is the wife of grandson of Abhishek’s mother i.e., the girl is the wife of son of Abhishek. Hence, Abhishek is the father-in-law of the girl.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
Over the last few days, Delhi residents have been protesting against the government’s approval for felling over 14,000 trees in south Delhi. Faced with severe criticism, the National Buildings Construction Corporation, tasked with redeveloping half a dozen south Delhi colonies, assured the Delhi High Court that no trees would be cut for the project till July 4, which is temporary relief. Many of the trees proposed to be felled are mature, local, fruit-bearing ones that provide clean air, shade and water recharge to humans and are homes to many birds. These areas of Delhi have served as the “lungs” of the city. However, the project reports overlook these qualities.
Large constructions have been difficult to manage in India. The sector has systematically lobbied to be excluded from the environmental norms of the country and has been successful in carving out special privileges for itself in the environment clearance process. From 2006, most construction projects have been approved based on an application form instead of detailed assessment reports. In 2014, schools, colleges and hostels for educational institutions were exempted from taking environment clearances as long as they followed specific sustainability parameters. In 2016, projects with areas of less than 20,000 sq m were permitted to proceed as long as they submitted a self-declaration ensuring adherence to environmental norms. As a result of these privileges, construction projects contribute significantly to urban air and noise pollution and high water consumption in cities. Compensatory afforestation taken up in lieu of trees felled by projects is a failure due to poor survival rates of saplings and no monitoring. Yet all regulatory bodies treat large constructions with kid gloves.
The Minister for Urban Development has stated that this public campaign is misinformed. But that is far from the truth. In a literate, urban society that has high access to the Internet, the lack of official information on urban development and its impacts can only be understood as an indirect form of public silencing. There are no public hearings held for urban construction projects, and governments assume that citizens have nothing to say about them. Since Delhi is ruled by so many agencies, you can run from pillar to post and still not have a clue about who is in charge of what. The residents are now appealing to the government to embrace inclusive ways of redesigning the city. The governments could join hands by committing to review these projects.
Q.30) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the claim that compensatory afforestation has been a failure?
- Saplings planted have a poor survival rate.
- There is inadequate monitoring of the afforestation done.
- The funds provided are adequate to cover the areas as well as look after them.
Choose the correct code
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 3 is opposite of what is needed.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct and indicate reasons for compensatory afforestation failing.
Hence, option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 3 is opposite of what is needed.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct and indicate reasons for compensatory afforestation failing.
Hence, option b is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba