IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 54– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following is provided to plants by their roots?
- Nitrogen
- Water
- Sulphur
- Potassium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Nitrogen Water Sulphur Potassium Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Nitrogen Water Sulphur Potassium -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following statements regarding the adaptation is/are correct?
- Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalayas have a higher red blood cell count, is an example of the physiological adaptation.
- The effects of adaptations pass onto the next generations.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalayas have a higher red blood cell count, is an example of the physiological adaptation. According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection, the organisms adapt to their environment so that they could persist and pass their genes onto the next generation. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalayas have a higher red blood cell count, is an example of the physiological adaptation. According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection, the organisms adapt to their environment so that they could persist and pass their genes onto the next generation. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
In which of the following ways disposal of Phosphorous affect the trophic food web of a lake?
- It will cause an algal bloom.
- Big zooplankton would increase because a lot of phytoplankton would be available.
- It will increase turbidity in water.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It will cause an algal bloom. Big zooplankton would increase because a lot of phytoplankton would be available. It will increase turbidity in water. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It will cause an algal bloom. Big zooplankton would increase because a lot of phytoplankton would be available. It will increase turbidity in water. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
In the context of forests of India, Deorais, Kavus and Dervara Kadus are:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Sacred Grove:
- A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. In India, the introduction of Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002, provides government protection to these lands.
- The groves in Maharashtra are called deorais or devrais and are concentrated in Pune, Ratnagiri, Raigad and Kolhapur.
- Kerala is home to 240 sacred groves known as kavus.
- Devara kadu is the sacred grove in Karnataka.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Sacred Grove:
- A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world. In India, the introduction of Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002, provides government protection to these lands.
- The groves in Maharashtra are called deorais or devrais and are concentrated in Pune, Ratnagiri, Raigad and Kolhapur.
- Kerala is home to 240 sacred groves known as kavus.
- Devara kadu is the sacred grove in Karnataka.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
With reference to ecological pyramids, consider the following statements:
- In an aquatic ecosystem, the pyramid of biomass is always upright.
- In all ecosystems of the world, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
- In a terrestrial ecosystem, the pyramid of energy is always inverted.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Recently, scientists have witnessed Noctiluca Scintillans, along the sea coast of Karnataka. What is Noctiluca Scintillans?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Noctiluca Scintillans:
- It is a free-living, marine-dwelling species of dinoflagellate that exhibits bioluminescence when disturbed (popularly known as mareel).
- Scintillans grazes on other micro-organisms such as larvae, fish eggs, and diatoms and thus affect the marine food system. Also, the unicellular phytoplankton that lives inside it can photosynthesize, turning sunlight into energy. They help their host cell survive even when food was scarce. Thus, N. Scintillans acts as both a plant and an animal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The toxic blooms of N. Scintillans are being linked to massive fish and marine invertebrate kills.
- Though the species does not produce a toxin, it was found to accumulate toxic levels of ammonia, which is then excreted into the surrounding waters, possibly acting as the killing agent in blooms.
Bioluminescence:
- It is the production and emission of light by a living organism.
- The light emitted by a bioluminescent organism is produced by energy released from chemical reactions occurring inside (or ejected by) the organism.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Noctiluca Scintillans:
- It is a free-living, marine-dwelling species of dinoflagellate that exhibits bioluminescence when disturbed (popularly known as mareel).
- Scintillans grazes on other micro-organisms such as larvae, fish eggs, and diatoms and thus affect the marine food system. Also, the unicellular phytoplankton that lives inside it can photosynthesize, turning sunlight into energy. They help their host cell survive even when food was scarce. Thus, N. Scintillans acts as both a plant and an animal. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The toxic blooms of N. Scintillans are being linked to massive fish and marine invertebrate kills.
- Though the species does not produce a toxin, it was found to accumulate toxic levels of ammonia, which is then excreted into the surrounding waters, possibly acting as the killing agent in blooms.
Bioluminescence:
- It is the production and emission of light by a living organism.
- The light emitted by a bioluminescent organism is produced by energy released from chemical reactions occurring inside (or ejected by) the organism.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to photochemical smog:
- The primary components are ozone, nitric oxide, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN).
- It occurs in a warm, humid and sunny climate.
- Plants like Pinus, Juniperus, Quercus help in preventing its formation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The primary components are ozone, nitric oxide, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. Certain plants e.g., Pinus, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus and Vitis can metabolise nitrogen oxide and therefore, their plantation could help in preventing its formation. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The primary components are ozone, nitric oxide, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. Certain plants e.g., Pinus, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus and Vitis can metabolise nitrogen oxide and therefore, their plantation could help in preventing its formation. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol?
- It aims to completely eliminate the use of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) by 2045.
- The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities.
- The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force in 2019.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Overall, the agreement is expected to reduce HFC use by 85 per cent by 2045. The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities. The agreement recognises the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force on 1 January 2019. The threshold for the agreement to enter into force was met on 17 November 2017, when it was ratified by 20 parties. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Overall, the agreement is expected to reduce HFC use by 85 per cent by 2045. The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities. The agreement recognises the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force on 1 January 2019. The threshold for the agreement to enter into force was met on 17 November 2017, when it was ratified by 20 parties. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Fly Ash’:
- Fly ash is the by-product of burning pulverized coal in power generating plants and it is an important constituent of gaseous pollutants.
- Fly ash is generally devoid of any toxic heavy metal such as Lead and Arsenic.
- Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction and as a replacement for some of the Portland cement.
- Coal ministry has launched ASH TRACK Mobile App to monitor fly ash generation and utilization.
Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Incorrect Fly ash is a type of Suspended Particulate Matter, not a gaseous pollutant. Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of Si, Al and Ca. Heavy toxic elements like Arsenic, Boron, Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentration. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction and as a replacement for some of the Portland cement. Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
Power ministry has launched ASH TRACK Mobile App to monitor fly ash generation and utilization. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Incorrect Fly ash is a type of Suspended Particulate Matter, not a gaseous pollutant. Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of Si, Al and Ca. Heavy toxic elements like Arsenic, Boron, Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentration. Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction and as a replacement for some of the Portland cement. Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability.
Power ministry has launched ASH TRACK Mobile App to monitor fly ash generation and utilization. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding carbon sequestration:
- Carbon Disclosure Project aims to assess the levels of carbon sequestration required to meet global targets under the Paris Agreement.
- Tropical rainforests have highest carbon sequestration rate among all the ecosystems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Carbon disclosure project examines carbon reduction activities. Coastal ecosystems have the highest carbon sequestration rate. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Carbon disclosure project examines carbon reduction activities. Coastal ecosystems have the highest carbon sequestration rate. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
- It is expressed as a factor of Carbon Dioxide
- The Global Warming Potential of Carbon Dioxide is standardized to 1.
- A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval of 20, 100, or 500 years.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct GWP is expressed as a factor of carbon dioxide. The Global Warming Potential of Carbon Dioxide is standardized to 1. A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval of 20, 100, or 500 years. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct GWP is expressed as a factor of carbon dioxide. The Global Warming Potential of Carbon Dioxide is standardized to 1. A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval of 20, 100, or 500 years. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements:
- United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the only legally binding international framework to address desertification.
- UNCCD is concerned with the management of only desert ecosystems.
- UNGA has declared 2010-2020 as the United Nations Decade for Deserts.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the only legally binding international framework to address desertification. UNCCD analyses desertification holistically and does not restrict itself with only desert ecosystems. UNGA has declared 2010-2020 as the United Nations Decade for Deserts. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the only legally binding international framework to address desertification. UNCCD analyses desertification holistically and does not restrict itself with only desert ecosystems. UNGA has declared 2010-2020 as the United Nations Decade for Deserts. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Convention on Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS):
- It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- It is the only global convention that specializes in the conservation of migratory species.
- The 2020 conference of CMS was held in India.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme. It is the only global convention that specializes in the conservation of migratory species. India, in February (2020), hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP13), in Gujarat. The theme of the conference was ‘Migratory species connect the planet and together we welcome them home’. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme. It is the only global convention that specializes in the conservation of migratory species. India, in February (2020), hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP13), in Gujarat. The theme of the conference was ‘Migratory species connect the planet and together we welcome them home’. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Rotterdam Convention?
- It is built on the voluntary Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1999.
- The parties of the Convention have ensured to share responsibilities and cooperative efforts while trading certain hazardous chemicals internationally.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It built on the voluntary Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989. The parties of the Convention have ensured to share responsibilities and cooperative efforts while trading certain hazardous chemicals internationally. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It built on the voluntary Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989. The parties of the Convention have ensured to share responsibilities and cooperative efforts while trading certain hazardous chemicals internationally. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements about the National Wild Life Action Plan for 2017-2031:
- This is the first time that an action plan on wildlife is recognizing the impact of climate change on wildlife.
- This is second National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) released by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
- Plan also suggests private sector participation in the wildlife conservation process.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct This is the first time that an action plan on wildlife is recognizing the impact of climate change on wildlife. This is third National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) released by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Plan also suggests private sector participation in the wildlife conservation process. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct This is the first time that an action plan on wildlife is recognizing the impact of climate change on wildlife. This is third National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) released by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). Plan also suggests private sector participation in the wildlife conservation process. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Wastelands Development Board:
- It was established in 1985 under the Ministry of Rural Development.
- During the Seventh Five Year Plan, the strategy adopted by it emphasised more on tree planting activities rather than Community Participation for wasteland development.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct National Wasteland Development Board was established in 1985 under the Ministry of Forests and Environment. During the Seventh Five Year Plan, the strategy adopted by it emphasised more on tree planting activities rather than Community Participation for wasteland development. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct National Wasteland Development Board was established in 1985 under the Ministry of Forests and Environment. During the Seventh Five Year Plan, the strategy adopted by it emphasised more on tree planting activities rather than Community Participation for wasteland development. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements about Wild Life Protection Act 1972:
- It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
- The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act.
- The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act. The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act. The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the given statements is/are correct regarding Environment Protection Act 1986?
- In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986.
- The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment of 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986. The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment of 1972. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986. The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment of 1972. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016:
- The Rules aim at promoting use of plastic waste for road construction.
- The Rules do not mention plastic material for packaging gutkha, pan masala and tobacco.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Rules aim at promoting use of plastic waste for road construction. The Rules do not mention plastic material for packaging gutkha, pan masala and tobacco. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Rules aim at promoting use of plastic waste for road construction. The Rules do not mention plastic material for packaging gutkha, pan masala and tobacco. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Which of the following are associated with Kyoto protocol?
- Clean Development Mechanism
- Adaptation Fund
- International Emissions Trading
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Clean Development Mechanism Adaptation Fund International Emissions Trading Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Clean Development Mechanism Adaptation Fund International Emissions Trading -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Geomagnetic Storms’
- The frequency of geomagnetic storms increases and decreases with the sunspot cycle
- They cause aurorae to appear at much lower latitudes than normal
Select the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The frequency of geomagnetic storms increases and decreases with the sunspot cycle. During solar maximum, geomagnetic storms occur more often, with the majority driven by CMEs(Coronal Mass Ejections). Several space weather phenomena tend to be associated with or are caused by a geomagnetic storm. These include solar energetic particle (SEP) events, geomagnetically induced currents (GIC), ionospheric disturbances that cause radio and radar scintillation, disruption of navigation by magnetic compass and auroral displays at much lower latitudes than normal Context – Earth was hit by a geomagnetic storm
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The frequency of geomagnetic storms increases and decreases with the sunspot cycle. During solar maximum, geomagnetic storms occur more often, with the majority driven by CMEs(Coronal Mass Ejections). Several space weather phenomena tend to be associated with or are caused by a geomagnetic storm. These include solar energetic particle (SEP) events, geomagnetically induced currents (GIC), ionospheric disturbances that cause radio and radar scintillation, disruption of navigation by magnetic compass and auroral displays at much lower latitudes than normal Context – Earth was hit by a geomagnetic storm
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance(RAMP) Programme’:
- It is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme
- The scheme will provide long term interest free loans to MSME’s
Select the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme. It has been launched to support various Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME). The programme aims at improving access to market and credit, strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. But there is no mention of interest free long term loans anywhere. Context – The Union Cabinet approved a USD 808 million or Rs 6,062.45 crore, World Bank assisted programme on “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme. It has been launched to support various Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME). The programme aims at improving access to market and credit, strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. But there is no mention of interest free long term loans anywhere. Context – The Union Cabinet approved a USD 808 million or Rs 6,062.45 crore, World Bank assisted programme on “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
With reference to ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi Program’
- It is a special micro-credit facility plan to provide affordable loan of up to ₹10,000 to more than 50 lakh street vendors
- It is launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and implemented by respective lead banks
Select the correct statement(s):
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The program aims to provide social security benefits to street vendors for their holistic development and socioeconomic upliftment. It is an additional program of PMSVANidhi launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Under the program, socio-economic profiling of PMSVANidhi beneficiaries and their families is conducted to assess their eligibility for 8 Government of India’s welfare schemes and facilitate sanctions of eligible schemes. These schemes include Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PM Suraksha Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Registration under Building and other Constructions Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act (BOCW), Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana, National Food Security Act (NFSA) portability benefit – One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC), Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY). Quality Council of India (QCI) is the implementing partner for the programme. Context – The Union Government has launched the ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The program aims to provide social security benefits to street vendors for their holistic development and socioeconomic upliftment. It is an additional program of PMSVANidhi launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Under the program, socio-economic profiling of PMSVANidhi beneficiaries and their families is conducted to assess their eligibility for 8 Government of India’s welfare schemes and facilitate sanctions of eligible schemes. These schemes include Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PM Suraksha Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Registration under Building and other Constructions Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act (BOCW), Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana, National Food Security Act (NFSA) portability benefit – One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC), Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY). Quality Council of India (QCI) is the implementing partner for the programme. Context – The Union Government has launched the ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Veto Power of UN Security Council Permanent Members’
- Power of Veto is specifically mentioned in the Article 27 of the UN Charter
- A permanent member that abstains or is absent from the vote will not block a resolution from being passed
- Decisions of the UNSC on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members including the concurring votes of the permanent members
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Although the “power of veto” is not mentioned by name in the UN Charter, Article 27 requires concurring votes from the permanent members. For this reason, the “power of veto” is also referred to as the principle of “great power unanimity” and the veto itself is sometimes referred to as the “great power veto” A permanent member that abstains or is absent from the vote will not block a resolution from being passed. Decisions of the UNSC on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members. Decisions of the UNSC on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members. Context – Liechtenstein is convening the UN General Assembly to debate a draft resolution — backed by the US — requiring the five permanent members of the UN Security Council to justify their use of the veto.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Although the “power of veto” is not mentioned by name in the UN Charter, Article 27 requires concurring votes from the permanent members. For this reason, the “power of veto” is also referred to as the principle of “great power unanimity” and the veto itself is sometimes referred to as the “great power veto” A permanent member that abstains or is absent from the vote will not block a resolution from being passed. Decisions of the UNSC on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members. Decisions of the UNSC on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members. Context – Liechtenstein is convening the UN General Assembly to debate a draft resolution — backed by the US — requiring the five permanent members of the UN Security Council to justify their use of the veto.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is being implemented by
Correct
Solution (a)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched ‘PM-DAKSH’ (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Portal and ‘PM-DAKSH’ Mobile App to make the skill development schemes accessible to the target groups – Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Safai Karamcharis. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment from the year 2020-21
Context –The scheme was in news
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched ‘PM-DAKSH’ (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Portal and ‘PM-DAKSH’ Mobile App to make the skill development schemes accessible to the target groups – Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Safai Karamcharis. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment from the year 2020-21
Context –The scheme was in news
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Akarsh and Bobby started a business with Rs. 1500 and Rs. 2500 and got a profit of Rs. 800. Half of the profit is shared equally the remaining is shared according to their investment. Find their profits respectively.
Correct
Solution (d)
The ratio of investment of Akarsh and Bobby = 1500: 2500
⇒ 15: 25
⇒ 3: 5
According to the question, Profit shared equally = 800/2 = Rs. 400
Share of Akarsh and Bobby = Rs. 200 and Rs. 200
Remaining profit = 800 – 400 = Rs. 400
Share of profit of Akarsh according to investment = 400 × (3/8) ⇒ Rs. 150
Share of profit of Bobby according to investment = 400 × (5/8) ⇒ Rs. 250
Total share of Akarsh = 200 + 150 = Rs. 350
Total share of Bobby = 200 + 250 = Rs. 450
∴ The profit of Akarsh and Bobby are Rs. 350 and Rs. 450 respectively.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The ratio of investment of Akarsh and Bobby = 1500: 2500
⇒ 15: 25
⇒ 3: 5
According to the question, Profit shared equally = 800/2 = Rs. 400
Share of Akarsh and Bobby = Rs. 200 and Rs. 200
Remaining profit = 800 – 400 = Rs. 400
Share of profit of Akarsh according to investment = 400 × (3/8) ⇒ Rs. 150
Share of profit of Bobby according to investment = 400 × (5/8) ⇒ Rs. 250
Total share of Akarsh = 200 + 150 = Rs. 350
Total share of Bobby = 200 + 250 = Rs. 450
∴ The profit of Akarsh and Bobby are Rs. 350 and Rs. 450 respectively.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
If a sales man gets successive gain of 15% and 20% then his actual gain?
Correct
Solution (b)
We have Gain 1 = 15% and gain 2 = 20%.
Then to find the overall gain
We need to use the formula for successive gains as Total gain = a + b + ab/100
Hence, total gain = 20 + 15 + 15 × 20/100
⇒ 20 + 15 + 3
⇒ 38
Incorrect
Solution (b)
We have Gain 1 = 15% and gain 2 = 20%.
Then to find the overall gain
We need to use the formula for successive gains as Total gain = a + b + ab/100
Hence, total gain = 20 + 15 + 15 × 20/100
⇒ 20 + 15 + 3
⇒ 38
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
On an Rs.10, 000 payment order, a person has a choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees)
Correct
Solution (c)
Given there are successive discounts, second discount is to be applied on first discounted amount and third discount on second discounted amount and so on.
Solving first choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 90 % of 10000 (10% is the discount) = 0.90 × 10000 = Rs.9000 Amount after second discount = 90% of 9000 (10% discount and 9000 is amount after first discount) = 0.90 × 9000 = Rs.8100
Amount after third discount = 70% of 8100 (30% discount and 8100 is amount after second discount) = 0.70 × 8100 = Rs.5670
Total savings = 10000 – 5670 = Rs.4330
Solving second choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 60 % of 10000 (40% is the discount) = 0.60 × 10000 = Rs.6000 Amount after second discount = 95% of 6000 (5% discount and 6000 is amount after first discount) = 0.95 × 6000 = Rs.5700
Amount after third discount = 95% of 5700 (5% discount and 5700 is amount after second discount) = 0.95 × 5700 = Rs.5415
Total savings = 10000 – 5415 = Rs.4585
Maximum amount can be saved by second choice i.e. Rs.4585
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Given there are successive discounts, second discount is to be applied on first discounted amount and third discount on second discounted amount and so on.
Solving first choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 90 % of 10000 (10% is the discount) = 0.90 × 10000 = Rs.9000 Amount after second discount = 90% of 9000 (10% discount and 9000 is amount after first discount) = 0.90 × 9000 = Rs.8100
Amount after third discount = 70% of 8100 (30% discount and 8100 is amount after second discount) = 0.70 × 8100 = Rs.5670
Total savings = 10000 – 5670 = Rs.4330
Solving second choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 60 % of 10000 (40% is the discount) = 0.60 × 10000 = Rs.6000 Amount after second discount = 95% of 6000 (5% discount and 6000 is amount after first discount) = 0.95 × 6000 = Rs.5700
Amount after third discount = 95% of 5700 (5% discount and 5700 is amount after second discount) = 0.95 × 5700 = Rs.5415
Total savings = 10000 – 5415 = Rs.4585
Maximum amount can be saved by second choice i.e. Rs.4585
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A fuel dealer mixes two brands of fuel which cost in the ratio 2 : 3. A solution containing 30% brand A and remaining brand B yields profit of 10% when sold at Rs. 297. What is cost of brand B?
Correct
Solution (b)
Ratio of cost of brand A and brand B fuel = 2 : 3
Percentage of brand A in new solution = 30%
Percentage of brand B in new solution = (100 – 30)% = 70%
Concept used: CP = SP × [(100)/(100 + profit%)]
Individual cost × Quantity = Total cost
Calculation:
CP of of solution = Rs. 297 × 100/(100+10)
⇒ Rs. 297 × (100/110) ⇒ Rs. 270
Let the cost of brand A and brand B be 2y and 3y respectively
So, 2y × 30% + 3y × 70% = 270
⇒ 0.6y + 2.1y = 270
⇒ 2.7y = 270
⇒ y = 100
Cost of Brand B = 3 × 100 ⇒ Rs. 300
∴ Cost of brand B is Rs. 300
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Ratio of cost of brand A and brand B fuel = 2 : 3
Percentage of brand A in new solution = 30%
Percentage of brand B in new solution = (100 – 30)% = 70%
Concept used: CP = SP × [(100)/(100 + profit%)]
Individual cost × Quantity = Total cost
Calculation:
CP of of solution = Rs. 297 × 100/(100+10)
⇒ Rs. 297 × (100/110) ⇒ Rs. 270
Let the cost of brand A and brand B be 2y and 3y respectively
So, 2y × 30% + 3y × 70% = 270
⇒ 0.6y + 2.1y = 270
⇒ 2.7y = 270
⇒ y = 100
Cost of Brand B = 3 × 100 ⇒ Rs. 300
∴ Cost of brand B is Rs. 300
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
Around the world, capital cities are disgorging bureaucrats. In the post-colonial fervor of the 20th century, coastal capitals picked by trade-focused empires were spurned for “regionally neutral” new ones. But decamping wholesale is costly and unpopular; governments these days prefer piecemeal dispersal. The trend reflects how the world has changed. In past eras, when information travelled at a snail’s pace, civil servants had to cluster together. But now desk-workers can ping emails and video-chat around the world. Travel for face-to-face meetings may be unavoidable, but transport links, too, have improved.
Proponents of moving civil servants around promise countless benefits. It disperses the risk that a terrorist attack or natural disaster will cripple an entire government. Wonks in the sticks will be inspired by new ideas that walled-off capitals cannot conjure up. Autonomous regulators perform best far from the pressure and lobbying of the big city. Some even hail a cure for ascendant cynicism and populism. The unloved bureaucrats of faraway capitals will become as popular as firefighters once they mix with regular folk.
Beyond these sunny visions, dispersing central-government functions usually has three specific aims: to improve the lives of both civil servants and those living in clogged capitals; to save money; and to redress regional imbalances. The trouble is that these goals are not always realised.
The first aim—improving living conditions has a long pedigree. After the Second World War Britain moved thousands of civil servants to “agreeable English country towns” as London was rebuilt. But swapping the capital for somewhere smaller is not always agreeable. Attrition rates can exceed 80%. The second reason to pack bureaucrats off is to save money. Office space costs far more in capitals. Agencies that are moved elsewhere can often recruit better workers on lower salaries than in capitals, where well-paying multinationals mop up talent.
The third reason to shift is to rebalance regional inequality. Norway treats federal jobs as a resource every region deserves to enjoy, like profits from oil. Where government jobs go, private ones follow. Sometimes the aim is to fulfill the potential of a country’s second-tier cities. Unlike poor, remote places, bigger cities can make the most of relocated government agencies, linking them to local universities and businesses and supplying a better-educated workforce. The decision in 1946 to set up America’s Centres for Disease Control in Atlanta rather than Washington D.C. has transformed the city into a hub for health-sector research and business.
The dilemma is obvious. Pick small, poor towns, and areas of high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; opt for larger cities with infrastructure and better-qualified residents, and the country’s most deprived areas see little benefit. Others contend that decentralisation begets corruption by making government agencies less accountable. A study in America found that state-government corruption is worse when the state capital is isolated—journalists, who tend to live in the bigger cities, become less watchful of those in power.
The “dilemma” mentioned in the passage refers to:
Correct
Solution (d)
Paragraph 6 explains the dilemma. Small, poor towns = new jobs in areas of high employment, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; Larger cities = infrastructure and better-qualified residents, but deprived areas do not benefit.
Option d simply paraphrases this.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Paragraph 6 explains the dilemma. Small, poor towns = new jobs in areas of high employment, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; Larger cities = infrastructure and better-qualified residents, but deprived areas do not benefit.
Option d simply paraphrases this.
All the Best
IASbaba