[DAY 49] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The act provides for a three-tier system of Panchayati raj in every state, that is, panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels. Thus, the act brings about uniformity in the structure of Panchayati Raj throughout the country.

Statement 2 is correct: A state having a population not exceeding 20 lakhs may not constitute panchayats at the intermediate level.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Balwant Rai Mehta committee recommendations:

1. Three-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zila Parishad.
2. Directly elected representatives constitute the gram panchayat and indirectly elected representatives constitute the Panchayat Samiti and Zila Parishad.
3. Planning and development are the primary objectives of the Panchayati Raj system.
4. Panchayat Samiti should be the executive body and Zila Parishad will be the advisory and supervisory body.
5. District Collector to be made the chairman of the Zila Parishad.
6. It also requested provisioning resources to help them discharge their duties and responsibilities.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 243V (1) (b), the minimum age for election as a member of a Municipality is 21 years.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A cantonment Board is a body under the cantonment act, 2006 responsible for monitoring civic administration. Though it is under the control of the Ministry of Defense it is set up under the provisions of the cantonment act,2006 which was enacted by the central government.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• As per Part IX of the constitution, all questions of disqualifications shall be referred to such authority as the state legislature determines. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the panchayats shall be vested in the state election commission. It consists of a state election commissioner to be appointed by the governor. His conditions of service and tenure of office shall also be determined by the governor. He shall not be removed from the office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the state high court. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Features of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 related to Election of Members and Chairpersons:
• All the members of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels shall be elected directly by the people. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels shall be elected indirectly—by and from amongst the elected members thereof. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• However, the chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the state legislature determines. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The institutions of urban local government originated and developed in modern India during the period of British rule. The major events in this context are as follows:
• In 1687-88, the first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• In 1726, the municipal corporations were set up in Bombay and Calcutta.
• Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 on financial decentralization visualized the development of local self-government institutions.
• Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. He is called the father of local-self-government in India.
• The Royal Commission on decentralization was appointed in 1907 and it submitted its report in 1909. Its chairman was Hobhouse.
• Under the dyarchy scheme introduced in Provinces by the Government of India Act of 1919, local self-government became a transferred subject under the charge of a responsible Indian minister.
• Under the provincial autonomy scheme introduced by the Government of India Act of 1935, local self-government was declared a provincial subject. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The three-tier system should be replaced with a two-tier system: Zila Parishad (district level) and the Mandal Panchayat (a group of villages).

Statement 2 is correct:  Zila Parishad should be the executive body and responsible for planning at the district level.

Statement 3 is correct: The institutions (Zila Parishad and the Mandal Panchayat) have compulsory taxation powers to mobilize their financial resources.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Some of the committees related to PRI and their date of formation:
• The Committee to review the existing Administrative Arrangements for Rural Development and Poverty Alleviation Programmes under the chairmanship of G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985.
• In 1986, the Rajiv Gandhi government appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on ‘Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development’ under the chairmanship of L M Singhvi.
• In December 1977, the Janata Government appointed a committee on Panchayati Raj institutions under the chairmanship of Ashoka Mehta. The committee submitted its report in August 1978 and made 132 recommendations to revive and strengthen the declining Panchayati Raj system in the country.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Local government got a fillip after the 73rd and 74th Constitution amendment acts. But even before that some efforts were taken in the direction of developing local self-government first in line the Community Development Programme in 1952 was the first in line that sought people’s participation in local development in a range of activities.

Statement 2 is correct: After 1987, a thorough review of the functioning of local government institutions was initiated. In 1989 P.K.Thungon Committee recommended constitutional recognition for the local government bodies.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Rajya Sabha Forum on Panchayati Raj: The Hon’ble Chairman, Rajya Sabha constituted the Rajya Sabha Forum on Panchayati Raj on 6th February 2016 with the Hon’ble Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha, as the ex-officio President of the Forum and the Minister of Panchayati Raj as the ex-officio Vice-President of the Forum. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• The Forum shall consist of not more than 15 members of Rajya Sabha, to be nominated by the Hon’ble Chairman, Rajya Sabha, from amongst members who have special knowledge or keen interest in the subject. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The term of the members in the Forum shall be co-terminus with their membership of the Rajya Sabha. Besides, experts in the field of Panchayati Raj may be associated as Special Invitees who may share their views/present papers during the meetings of the Forum.
• Objectives of the Rajya Sabha Forum on Panchayati Raj: The Forum shall
• identify problems and have focused deliberations relating to Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs);
• discuss strategies to strengthen PRIs; and
• Provide a platform to Parliamentarians for exchange of ideas, views, experiences, expertise and best practices in relation to functioning and strengthening of PRIs.
• The Forum will not interfere with or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Ministry/Department or Department related Parliamentary Standing Committee.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Urban Local Government’ in India signifies the governance of an urban area by the people through their elected representatives. The system of urban government was constitutionalized through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
• There are five sources of income of the urban local bodies. These are as follows:
• Tax Revenue: The revenue from the local taxes include property tax, entertainment tax, taxes on advertisements, professional tax, water tax, tax on animals, lighting tax, pilgrim tax, market tax, the toll on new bridges, octroi and so on. In addition, the municipal bodies impose various cesses like library cess, education cess, and beggary cess and so on. Octroi (i.e., taxes on the entry of goods into a local area for consumption, use or sale therein) has been abolished in most of the states. Property tax is the most important tax revenue.
• Non-Tax Revenue: This source includes rent on municipal properties, fees and fines, royalty, profits and dividends, interest, user charges and miscellaneous receipts. The user charges (i.e., payment for public utilities) include water charges, sanitation charges, and sewerage charges and so on.
• Grants: These include the various grants given to municipal bodies by the Central and State Governments for several development programmes, infrastructure schemes, and urban reform initiatives and so on.
• Devolution: This consists of the transfer of funds to the urban local bodies from the state government. This devolution is made on the basis of the recommendations of the state finance commission. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Loans: The urban local bodies raise loans from the state government as well as financial institutions to meet their capital expenditure. They can borrow from the financial institutions or other bodies only with the approval of the state government. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: the 73rd and 74th amendments act provided that the panchayat and municipality can be dissolved earlier than its term by the procedure prescribed by state law. But in the case of the municipality before the dissolution, a reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given to the municipality.

Statement 2 is incorrect: A panchayat reconstituted after a premature dissolution does not enjoy the full period of five years but remains in the office only for the remainder of the period.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• A Town Area Committee is set up for the administration of a small town. It is a semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a limited number of civic functions like drainage, roads, street lighting, and conservancy. It is created by a separate act of a state legislature. Its composition, functions and other matters are governed by the act. It may be wholly elected or wholly nominated by the state government or partly elected and partly nominated. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• Notified Area Committee: A notified area committee is created for the administration of two types of areas- a fast developing town due to industrialization, and a town which does not yet fulfill all the conditions necessary for the constitution of a municipality, but which otherwise is considered important by the state government. It is called so because it is created by notification and unlike the municipality, it is an entirely nominated body, i.e. all members, including the Chairman, are nominated by the state government. Thus, it is neither a statutory body (created by law) nor an elected body.
• Township: This type of urban government is established by the large public enterprises to provide civic amenities to its staff and workers who live in the housing colonies built near the plant. The enterprise appoints a town administrator to look after the administration of the township. It has no elected members.
• Port Trust: The port trusts are established in the port areas like Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai and so on for two purposes: (a) to manage and protect the ports; and (b) to provide civic amenities. A port trust is created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both elected and nominated members. Its chairman is an official. Its civic functions are more or less similar to those of a municipality.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Central Council of Local Government was set up in 1954. It was constituted under Article 263 of the Constitution of India by an order of the President of India. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• Originally, it was known as the Central Council of Local Self-Government. However, the term ‘self- government’ was found to be superfluous and hence was replaced by the term ‘government’ in the 1980s. Till 1958, it dealt with both urban as well as rural local governments, but after 1958 it has been dealing with matters of urban local government only. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• The Council is an advisory body. It consists of the Minister for Urban Development in the Government of India and the ministers for local self-government in states. The Union Minister of Urban Development acts as the chairman of the council. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Twelfth Schedule: It contains the following 18 functional items placed within the purview of municipalities:
• Urban planning including town planning. Hence option 1 correct.
• Regulation of land use and construction of buildings;
• Planning for economic and social development;
• Roads and bridges
• Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial purposes;
• Public health, sanitation, conservancy and solid waste management. Hence option 4 correct.
• Fire services;
• Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects;
• Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded;
• Slum improvement and up-gradation;
• Urban poverty alleviation;
• Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens, playgrounds;
• Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic aspects;
• Burials and burial grounds, cremations and cremation grounds and electric crematoriums;
• Cattle ponds, prevention of cruelty to animals;
• Vital statistics including registration of births and deaths;
• Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public conveniences; and
• Regulation of slaughterhouses and tanneries.
• Traffic management is recommended by 2nd ARC report but still not included in 12th Schedule. Hence option 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: Chief Minister is the chairman of the metropolitan planning Committee.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The act requires that two-thirds of the members of a metropolitan planning committee be elected from among themselves by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the metropolitan area.

Solution (d)

Explanation: Eight types of urban local governments function in India. They are Municipal corporations, Municipality, Notified area committee, Town area committees, Cantonment boards, Township, Port trust, and Special purpose agencies.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Compulsory provisions of Part IX of the constitution:
• The organization of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
• Establishment of panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
• Direct elections to all seats in panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
• Indirect elections to the post of chairperson of panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
• 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for SCs and STs in panchayats at all the three levels.
• Reservation of one-third seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at all the three levels. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Fixing tenure of five years for panchayats at all levels and holding fresh elections within six months in the event of supersession of any panchayat.
• Establishment of a State Election Commission for conducting elections to the panchayats.
• Constitution of a State Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats.

• Voluntary Provisions of Part IX of the constitution:
• Giving representation to members of the Parliament (both the Houses) and the state legislature (both the Houses) in the panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
• Providing reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for backward classes in panchayats at any level.
• Granting powers and authority to the panchayats to enable them to function as institutions of self- government (in brief, making the autonomous bodies).
• Devolution of powers and responsibilities upon panchayats to prepare plans for economic development and social justice; and to perform some or all of the 29 functions listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution.
• Granting financial powers to the panchayats, that is, authorizing them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does not specify the strength of the Commission but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor. The Governor of State is empowered by the Constitution of India to determine the conditions of service of the Chairman and other members of the State Public Service Commission

Statement 2 is incorrect: A member of the SPSC shall hold office for a term of six years or till the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 317 says that the members of both public service commissions can be removed by the President before the expiry of their term if any of the following four circumstances exist:

• The member of the commission goes insolvent.
• The member of the commission engages in any paid employment outside the official duties.
• The member of the commission becomes mentally or bodily infirm.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• With the lapsing of the “The National Commission for Safai Karamcharis Act, 1993”, the Commission is acting as a Non-Statutory body of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The Commission’s tenure is extended from time to time through Government Resolutions. Statement 1 is correct
• The mandate of the Commission lays down that it has the power to investigate specific grievances and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to non-implementation of: – programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis decisions, and take up such matters with the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments. But it does have the power as are vested in civil courts. Statement 2 is incorrect
• With the enactment of “The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and Their Rehabilitation Act, 2013”, the mandate and scope of the Commission has also been enlarged. The Commission shall perform the following functions, namely:- To monitor the implementation of the Act, to enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the provisions of the Act, and to convey its findings to the concerned authorities with recommendations requiring further action. Statement 3 is correct

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• CE-20 cryogenic engine will power the Cryogenic Upper Stage of the LVM3 launch vehicle for the Chandrayaan-3 mission. The high thrust cryogenic engine is the most powerful upper stage cryogenic engine in operational service. Statement 1 is correct
• It has been designed and developed by the Liquid Propulsion Systems Centre (LPSC) , a subsidiary of ISRO. It is the first Indian cryogenic engine to feature a gas-generator cycle. Statement 2 is correct

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• It is a quasi-judicial body which adjudicates the complaints either against the Press for violation of journalistic ethics or by the Press for interference with its freedom. The council shall have the same powers throughout India as are vested in a Civil court while trying a suit under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Statement 1 is correct
• The PCI consists of a chairman and 28 other members. The Chairman is selected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and a member elected by the PCI. The members consist of members of the three Lok Sabha members, two members of the Rajya Sabha , six editors of newspapers, seven working journalists other than editors of newspapers,  six persons in the business of managing newspapers, one person who is engaged in the business of managing news agencies, and three persons with special knowledge of public life. Statement 2 is incorrect

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Proton therapy is a type of radiation therapy — a treatment that uses high-powered energy to treat cancer and some noncancerous tumors. Radiation therapy using X-rays has long been used to treat these conditions. Proton therapy is a newer type of radiation therapy that uses energy from positively charged particles (protons). Statement 1 is incorrect
• Unlike traditional radiation therapy, which uses X-rays, PBT can precisely target the tumour while minimising radiation exposure to surrounding healthy tissue. A proton beam delivers some radiation to healthy tissue in reaching the tumour but very little radiation beyond the edge of the tumour being treated. This means PBT is able to treat cancers just as effectively but delivers less radiation to other healthy parts of the body which surround the tumour. Statement 2 is correct
• Proton therapy is a type of external beam radiotherapy, and shares risks and side effects of other forms of radiation therapy. The dose outside of the treatment region can be significantly less for deep-tissue tumors than X-ray therapy, because proton therapy takes full advantage of the Bragg peak. Statement 3 is incorrect

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Gorata village in Bidar district of Karnataka was then a part of the Nizam-ruled Hyderabad State. The Hyderabad rulers opposed the erstwhile princely state’s unification with India after India’s independence. Razakar commander Shamshuddin had attacked Gorata village where the locals had hoisted a 2.5-ft tall National Flag. The villagers had retaliated and killed Shamshuddin. Following this, on May 9, 1948 at Gorata village more than 200 people have been massacred by the Razakars of Nizam. The Hyderabad state was liberated from Nizam’s rule on September 17, 1948.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

C.P. of a Fridge = Rs 8000

The shopkeeper made a loss of 4 % on Fridge.

This means if C.P. is Rs 100, then S.P. is Rs 96.

When C.P. is Rs 8000, S.P. = Rs (96/100)*8000 = Rs 7680

C.P. of a Home theatre set = Rs 8000

The shopkeeper made a profit of 8 % on Home theatre set.

This means that if C.P. is Rs 100, then S.P. is Rs 108.

When C.P. is Rs 8000, S.P. = Rs (108/100)*8000 = Rs 8640

Total S.P. = Rs 7680 + Rs 8640 = Rs 16320

Total C.P. = Rs 8000 + Rs 8000 = Rs 16000

Since total S.P >  total C.P., there was a profit.

Profit = Rs 16320 − Rs 16000 = Rs 320

Profit % = (Profit/CP)*100

= (320/16000)*100 = 2%

Therefore, the shopkeeper had a gain of 2% on the whole transaction.

Solution (c)

Ratio of profit = Capital of Sandeep*time/capital of Dhanu*time

Let Deepak’s investment be for x months.

Then, 8/3 = (36,000*12) / (27,000*X)

On solving X = 6 months

Solution (d)

The amount on the first investment of Anmol = 12,000 * (1.08) = 12,960

So the Interest on this investment is 12,960 – 12,000 = 960.

The amount on the second investment of Anmol = 10,000 * (1.03) 2 = 10,609

So the Interest on this investment is 10,609 – 10,000 = 609.

So the total interest on these returns = 960 + 609 = 1,569.

Bimal has to get this as Simple interst by investing X rupees at 7.5%

That means, X * 0.075 = 1,569

X = 20,920

So, Bimal has to invest 20,920 rupees.

Solution (c)

X = (Y*NR)/100;  Y = (Z*NR)/100

X/Y = NR/100 ; Y/Z = NR/100

X/Y = Y/Z

Y^2  = XZ

Solution (c)

Option a is ruled out as the meaning is twisted from what is written in the line 4 of passage.

Option b is ruled out because as the second line of the first paragraph states that “Nothing

could be farther from the truth”.

Option c is the correct choice because 2nd line of the first paragraph states that: Literature

preserves the ideals of a people; and ideals–love, faith, duty, friendship, freedom, reverence are the part of human life most worthy of preservation.