[DAY 02] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Judicial intervention has ensured that the scope of Article 21 is not narrow and restricted. It has been widening by several landmark judgements. After Maneka Gandhi Case the scope of article 21 has been ever widening.

Statement Analysis:

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

RIGHT TO SHELTER

• In 2022, in Samarpal versus Union of India, the Delhi high court held that the right to shelter was a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution.
• Right to Shelter is a Fundamental Right and Even an Encroacher Can’t be Removed Without Adopting Procedure Establish by Law: Jharkhand HC. High Court stated that “in a country like India which professes high democratic values, the Constitution of India stands like a lighthouse illuminating life aspirations of the people of India that every State action must follow the procedure established by law. RMC being an instrumentality of the State under Article 12 of the Constitution of India is governed by the rule of law in a welfare State and cannot arrogate to itself a status beyond what is provided by the Constitution.”
• The fundamental right to shelter was declared by the court not as a ‘systemic right’ but as a ‘conditional right’. A claim under the right to shelter would stand conditional upon the existence of a particular policy/statute which must provide for the means to facilitate exercising the right.
• Allahabad HC also held that Right to shelter is a fundamental right, a right to all infrastructure necessary to live and develop as a human being in Rajesh Yadav v. State of UP.

 Right to Apply for Bail is an Individual Fundamental Right implicit in Articles 14, 21, and 19: Supreme Court.

The Kerala High Court has ruled that citizens have the fundamental right to not mention the name of their father in documents needed to prove identity.

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

• Essential religious practice test is a doctrine evolved by the supreme court (SC) to protect only such religious practices under fundamental rights, which are essential and integral to religion.
• The doctrine of “essentiality” was invented by a seven-judge Bench of the SC in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The court then took the responsibility of determining the essential practices of a religion upon itself.
• When the exercise of religious practices came in conflict with other fundamental rights guaranteed under the constitution. The doctrine of essentiality was utilized to decide on the constitutionality of such practices.

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

The Twenty-Fifth Amendment Act, 1971 –

1. Curtailed the fundamental right to property.
2. Inserted new Article 31C: Provided that any law made to give effect to the Directive Principles contained in Article 39 (b) or (c) cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of the rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 19 and 31.

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

In Minerva Mills case, 1980, the Supreme Court described that ‘The Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. To give absolute primacy to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the Constitution. This harmony and balance is an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.

Solution (b)

• The PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother Earth (PM-PRANAM) Scheme’s objective is to encourage the balanced use of fertilizers inconjunction with biofertilizers and organic fertilizers and to reduce the subsidy burden on chemical fertilizers, which was around Rs 2.25 lakh crores in 2022-2023. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It will be financed by the savings of existing fertilizer subsidiesunder schemes run by the Department of Fertilizers, Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Centre will provide 50% of the subsidy savings to the states as a grant. Out of the grant, 70% can be used to create assets related to the technological adoption of alternative fertilizers and production units at various levels. The remaining 30% can be used to reward and encourage farmers, panchayats, and other stakeholders involved in fertilizer reduction and awareness generation.
• The reduction in urea consumption by a state will be compared to its average consumption of urea over the previous three years. This calculation will determine the eligibility for subsidy savings and grants. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Note:

• Biofertilizer consists of a carrier medium rich in live microorganisms. When applied to seed, soil, or living plants, it increases soil nutrients or makes them biologically available.
• Biofertilizers contain different types of fungi, root bacteria, or other microorganisms. They form a mutually beneficial or symbiotic relationship with host plants as they grow in the soil.

Solution (d)

• Sickle cell disease (SCD) is a chronic single-gene disorder causing a debilitating systemic syndrome characterized by chronic anemia, acute painful episodes, organ infarction, and chronic organ damage and by a significant reduction in life expectancy.
• The National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission aims to improve the care of all sickle cell disease patients for a better future and to lower the prevalence of the disease through a multi-faced coordinated approach towards screening and awareness strategies.
• It aims to eliminate sickle cell disease as a public health problem in India by 2047. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is implemented in 17 high-focus states across the country, this program aims to improve the care and prospects of all sickle cell disease patients while reducing the prevalence of the disease.
• The 17 states are- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, Bihar, and Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Sanskrit is one of the oldest languages in the world. It belongs to the Indo-Aryan language group and was used to write Vedas.
• The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Part XVII, Articles 343 to 351 of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages.
• There are 22 scheduled languages in the Eighth Schedule. They are – Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and Dogri.
• The Sanskrit language is included in the eighth schedule of the Indian constitution. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Viswa Samskrita Dinam is an annual event celebrated on22nd August. Its objective is to promote the revival and maintenance of the Sanskrit language. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is celebrated for the first time in the year 1969. It is celebrated on Poornima day of the Shraavana monthin the Hindu calendar.
• Sudharma is the only Sanskrit newspaper in the world. It is published since 1970 from Mysore in Karnataka. It is also available in online mode. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Mattur, a village in the Shimoga district of Karnataka is believed to have preserved the Sanskrit language.

Solution (c)

The National Human Right Commission was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act (PHRA) of 1993.

A few major issues which are taken up by NHRC are:

• Custodial Torture
• Right to Work and Labour Rights
• Arbitrary Arrest and Detention
• Excessive Powers of the Armed Forces and the Police
• Sexual Violence
• Child Labour
• Violence and discrimination against Women, Children
• Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender Rights

Solution (c)

The Places of Worship Act of 1991 was enacted to prohibit conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th of August 1947.

Its major provisions are:

• Section 3 of the Act bars the conversion, in full or part, of a place of worship of any religious denomination into a place of worship of a different religious denomination, or even a different segment of the same religious denomination.
• Section 4(1) of the Act declares that the religious character of a place of worship shall continue to be the same as it existed on August 15, 1947. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Section 5 of the Act shall not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Section 6 of the Act prescribes a punishment of a maximum of three years imprisonment along with a fine for contravening the provisions of the Act. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Section 4(2) of the Act declares any suit or legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted.

Solution (b)

• 125th Birth Anniversary of Alluri Sitarama Raju.
• Alluri Sitarama Raju is considered as Manyam Veerudufor his bravery and sacrifice. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• He led a guerrilla campaign in the Eastern Ghats regionof Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• He opposed the British in response to the Madras Forest Act of 1882 in the backdrop of the Non-cooperation movement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Madras Forest Act of 1882 effectively restricted the free movement of Adivasis in their forest habitats and prevented them from practicing their traditional form of agriculture called ‘podu’, which threatened their very way of life. It led to the Rampa rebellion (1922-1924) in which Alluri Sitarama Raju played the major role as its leader.

Solution (b)

• National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is a statutory body formed in 1982 under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act of 1981. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is fully owned by the Government of India and is headquartered in Mumbai.
• It deals with the operations of giving credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is a refinancing agency for those institutions that provide investment and production credit for promoting several developmental programs for rural development.

Solution (c)

• Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) are assets in the digital worldthat can be bought and sold like any other piece of property. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They can be tweets, drawings, photos, videos, GIFs, music, in-game items, and selfies. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They are backed by blockchain technology and can have only one owner at a time. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• NFT owners can also digitally sign their artwork and store specific information in their NFTs’ metadata. This will be only viewable to the individual who bought the NFT.
• They can be bought by anyone who holds a cryptocurrency wallet. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex anti-smuggling agency of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• DRI enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, Arms Act, NDPS Act, COFEPOSA, Wildlife Act, Antiquities Act, etc. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• DRI undertakes the collection, collation, analysis, and dissemination of intelligence relating to smuggling, carries out investigations, adjudication of cases, and prosecution of the arrested persons.

Solution (b)

• Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2) is an odourless, acidic, and extremely corrosive gas. It is a highly reactive gas. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It causes air pollution, water pollution, and acid rain. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It occurs naturally and industrially. It forms from emissions from cars, trucks and buses, power plants, and off-road equipment. It is created by natural sources that include volcanoes and microbes. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

According to the question, every alternative letter of the English alphabet from B onwards (including B) is written in lower case and the remaining letters are capitalized.

A b C d E f G h I j K l M n O p Q r S t U v W x Y z

First month of second half of the year is July.

As per the given pattern it will be written as : jUlY

Hence, jUlY is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

In one hour without stopping, the bus would have travelled 54km.

Once stopping is factored in, the bus actually travels 45km.

So it travels 9km less far as a consequence.

Distance/Speed = Time 9km/54kmph = 0.16 hours 0.16 x 60 = 10 minutes

So the bus stops for 10 minutes in every hour on average.

Solution (d)

Product of two positive consecutive odd integers = (6 * sum of two positive consecutive odd integers ) – 1

Calculation

Let the two positive consecutive odd integers be x and (x+2)

Therefore, we have

x * (x+2) = [6*[x + x + 2]-1

x^2 + 2x = 12x + 12 -1

x^2-10x-11 = 0

x^2 + x – 11x – 11=0

x(x + 1) – 11(x + 1) = 0

x+1 = 0 or x-11 = 0

x – 11 = 0 , x = 11

Hence, positive integers are ( x, x+2) = (11,13)

13 is the answer

Solution (c)

On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern:

ODD SERIES   EVEN SERIES

3

3 + 4 =7                        6

7 + 6 =13                      6+4 = 10

13 + 8=21                     10+6 =16

21 +10=31                    16+8=24

31 +12=43                    24+10=34

34+12=46

On observing the given two series, we observe that the fifth term in EVEN SERIES should be replaced by 34.

Solution (c)

153, 146, 137, 126, 113, 98, 81, X

7         9     11     13    15  17  19 – > difference between the numbers

So ,subtracting 19 from 81 gives the answer, which is 62.