[DAY 11] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Statement 1	Statement 2
Incorrect	Correct
Built by Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd or HAL, the aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Roles: ·       Maritime Surveillance ·       Pollution Prevention ·       Troop Transport ·       Aerial Survey ·       Search and Rescue ·       Commuter Transport ·       Calibration of airport NAV-COM Aids ·       Remote Sensing Applications ·       Causality Evacuation ·       Executive Transport ·       Cargo & Logistics Support Hence statement 1 is not true.	The 19 seater HAL – DO – 228 aircraft is a highly versatile multi-purpose light transport aircraft. It has been developed specifically to meet the manifold requirements of utility and commuter transport, third level services and air-taxi operations, coast guard duties and maritime surveillance. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Cruise missiles have short ranges of 300 to 1000 km. Hence, statement 1 is false.

They are easy to intercept because of high terminal speeds. Hence, statement 2 is true.

They have high precision due to the navigation system. Hence, statement 3 is false.

Solution (c)

• A drone or UAV (Unmanned Aerial Vehicle) is a remotely controlled flying device. Drones do not require much technical expertise to use.
• In India, the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) governs the use of all (manned or automated) aerial vehicles. Hence, statement 1 is true.
• In 2020, the Defense Research and Development Organization (DRDO) flight tested the Rustom-2 medium altitude long endurance indigenous prototype drone. It is a surveillance drone. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Solution (c)

A ballistic missile is generally a projectile shot up in the atmosphere. They are difficult to intercept due to high terminal speeds of 5000 m/s. Hence, statement 1 is true.

Prithvi-I is a short-range surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile. Hence, statement 2 is false.

Solution (d)

Ramjets operate at supersonic speeds, and Scramjets operate at hypersonic speeds. Hence, statement 1 is false.

In the chamber, the air mixes with the fuel to ignite a supersonic combustion but the cruiser’s flight will be at a hypersonic speed of Mach six to seven. Air from the atmosphere was then rammed into the scramjet engine’s combustion chamber at a supersonic speed. The air mixed with the atomized fuel, the fuel was ignited and the scramjet engine revved into action. Hence, statement 2 is true.

Solution (b)

• Taiwan recently decided to buy 400 U.S. land-launched Harpoon missiles in the face of rising threat from China.
• It is a S.-designed subsonic antiship cruise missile that has been in service since 1977. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Numerous variants have been produced since its inception, including air-, ship-, and sub-launched versions.
• It is currently in service with the armed forces of more than 30 countries including India.
• Features:
• It is an all-weather, over-the-horizon, anti-ship missile system. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• Propulsion: Turbojet, solid propellent.
• It has a low-level, sea-skimming cruise trajectory with active radar guidance.
• It is capable of executing both land-strike and anti-ship missions.
• This missile is fitted with a heavy 221-kilogram penetration blast warhead.
• It uses GPS-aided inertial navigation to hit a designated target aimpoint.
• Range: 90-240 km. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

• Anti-tank guided missile: HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third-generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH).
  • The system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armor as well as explosive reactive armor.
  • The HELINA missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode. (Hence 1^st pair is correct)
• Surface to air missile: THRISHUL is a short-range (500m to 9 km) quick reaction all-weather surface-to-air missile designed to counter a low-level attack developed by India.
  • It was developed by DRDO as a part of the Integrated Guided Missile Development Program. (Hence 2nd pair is correct)
• Air to air missile: ASTRA, India’s Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM), has been completely tested and is under induction.
  • It has a range of around 100 km. (Hence 3rd pair is incorrect)
• Air to ground missile: RUDRAM, a New Generation Anti-Radiation Missile (NGRAM). With a maximum range of around 200 km, the missile mainly targets communication, radar and surveillance systems of the adversary. (Hence 4th pair is incorrect).

Solution (b)

• INS Trishul is the second frigate of the Talwar class of the Indian Navy. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• These have been built in Russia under an Indo-Russian joint production.
• These missile frigates are modified Krivak III class frigates from Russia.
• It has a displacement capacity of 4,000 tons and a speed of 30 knots and is capable of accomplishing a wide variety of naval missions, primarily, finding and eliminating enemy submarines and large surface ships.
• Due to the use of stealth technologies and a special hull design, the resulting frigate features reduced radar cross section (RCS) as well as electromagnetic, acoustic and infrared signatures.

Agni V:

• Agni-5 is an ingeniously built advanced surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP). (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• It is a fire-and-forget missile, which cannot be stopped without an interceptor missile.
• The missile has the capability of hitting targets beyond the range of 5000 km and is crucial for India’s self-defense systems.
• The Agni missile class is the backbone of India’s nuclear launch capability, as are Prithvi short-range ballistic missiles, submarine-launched ballistic missiles, and fighter aircraft.
• Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

The BrahMos missile:

• The BrahMos missile, an Indo-Russian joint venture, has a range of 290 km and is the fastest cruise missile in the world with a top speed of Mach 2.8 (nearly three times the speed of sound). (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• BrahMos is named for the rivers Brahmaputra and Moskva.
• It is a two-stage (solid propellant engine in the first stage and liquid ramjet in second) missile.
• It is a multiplatform missile i.e., it can be launched from land, air, and sea and multi capability missile with pinpoint accuracy that works in both day and night irrespective of the weather conditions.
• It operates on the “Fire and Forgets” principle i.e it does not require further guidance after launch.

Solution (c)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

• Initiated in 1978 and achieved global coverage in 1995 and is owned by the United States government and operated by the United States Air Force.
• It consists of 24 to 32 medium Earth orbit satellites in six different orbital planes. (Hence first pair is correct)

Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)

• Operated by Roscosmos, a state corporation responsible for the space flight and cosmonautics program for the Russian Federation.
• It became operational in 1982 and achieved global coverage in 1996, and again in 2011 (after the system had fallen into disrepair).
• It has full global coverage with 24 satellites. (Hence second pair is correct)

GALILEO

• It was initiated in 2005 by the European Space Agency and projected to provide global coverage by 2020 with 30 satellites. (Hence third pair is incorrect)

BeiDou

• It is a satellite navigation system of China.
• Like any other navigation satellite system, BeiDou is made up of 35 satellites that orbit the Earth and transmit precise data all the time.
• The signal from the satellite travels from the satellite to the Earth’s ground stations and then to the receiver and vice versa. (Hence fourth pair is correct)

Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS)

• It is operated by the Japanese government.
• It is a four-satellite regional time transfer system and enhancement for GPS covering Japan and the Asia-Oceania regions.
• Its services have been available on a trial basis since January 2018.

Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) Technology

• An autonomous regional satellite navigation system, also known as Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), is developed by ISRO.
• It has been designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary.
• It will provide two types of services:
  • Standard Positioning Service (SPS): provided to all the users.
  • Restricted Service (RS): It is an encrypted service provided only to the authorized users.
• The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
• Presently, it consists of 7 active satellites located at a distance of approximately 36,000 Km.
  • 3 satellites are in Geostationary Orbit (GEO).
  • 4 satellites are in inclined Geosynchronous Orbit (GSO).

Solution (d)

• Leveraging drone’s potential for commercial operations: It will foster various new forms of air freight capabilities, allowing transport of temperature and time sensitive commodities like bodily organs, lifesaving medicines etc.
• They can also be used to discharge materials for supplementing agricultural irrigation, survey landscapes, actively monitor rail/road traffic, or survey/inspect agricultural land.
• Recent aerial attacks such as, on Saudi Arabian refineries and killing of Iran’s top military commander are few such instances where drones were used.

Solution (c)

• The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) had renamed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) Mark -III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III, mainly to identify its task of placing satellites into a variety of orbits.
• The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO (Geosynchronous Earth Orbit), MEO (Medium Earth Orbit), LEO (Low Earth Orbit), missions to the moon, sun.
• LVM3 is India’s heaviest rocket.
• The launch vehicle can carry up to 8 tonnes of payload to the lower earth orbits (LEO), which is about 200 km from the Earth’s surface.
• But when it comes to the geostationary transfer orbits (GTO), which lie much further ahead, up to about 35,000 km from the Earth, it can carry much less, only about four tonnes. LVM3 is essentially a three-stage launch vehicle, including two solid boosters (S200), the core liquid fuel-based stage (L110), and the cryogenic upper stage (C25).

Hence, statement 1, 2, 3 are correct.

Solution (a)

• The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) recently approved the capital acquisition of indigenously-developed military hardware worth Rs 70,584 crore.
• The DAC is the highest decision-making body of the defence Ministry on procurement.
• Its objective is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces.
• It was formed after the Group of Minister’s recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999).
• Composition:
  • The defence minister is the chairman of DAC.
  • Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.

Functions:

• Give in-principal approval of a 15 years Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
• Accord of acceptance of necessity to acquisition proposals.
• Categorization of the acquisition proposals relating to ‘Buy’, ‘Buy & Make’, and ‘Make’.
• Look into issues relating to single vendor clearance.
• Take decisions regarding ‘offset’ provisions in respect of acquisition proposals above Rs 300 crore.
• Take decisions regarding the Transfer of Technology under the ‘Buy and Make’ category of acquisition proposals.
• Field trial evaluation.

Hence statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

• Indian Air Force (IAF) recently developed an indigenous ‘Vayulink’ platform to enable jammer-proof communication with the base station. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Vayulink is an ad-hoc data link communication system that would help pilots deal with bad weather and provide jammer-proof uninterrupted communication with the base station.
• It is developed by the Indian Air Force (IAF). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• It uses the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) to send radio communication to the base station when the signals are low.
• Vayulink, when installed in an aircraft, gives the position of other aircraft close by and encrypted traffic data over a secure channel.

Uses:

• The platform helps to prevent fratricide or friendly fire, i.e., it helps us to know where the friendly forces are present.
• It provides better combat teaming.
• Helps plan real-time basis where multiple teams can get together and go towards the target coming from different areas.
• It can also give the pilots data on the weather.

Solution (c)

• Defense Minister Rajnath Singh RECENTLY commissioned INS Marmagao into the Indian Navy.
• It is a P15B stealth-guided missile destroyer. (Hence option c is correct)
• It is the second of the four ‘Visakhapatnam’ class destroyers that has been designed by the Indian Navy’s Warship Design Bureau.
• It has over 75% indigenous content and was built by the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited.
• It is equipped with surface-to-surface and surface-to-air missiles besides modern surveillance radar that provides target data to the weapon systems.
• The warship, measuring 163 meters by 17 meters, displacement of 7300 tonnes
• It is named after the historic port city of Mormugao in Goa.
• Propelled by four powerful gas turbines, the warship can achieve speeds of over 30 knots.
• It is said to feature state-of-the-art weapons, stealth features and sensors.
• It has a total atmospheric control system (TACS) that protects crew from nuclear, biological, and chemical threats.
• It undertook its first sea sortie in 2021, marking 60 years of Goa’s liberation from Portuguese rule.

Solution (a)

• Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in Dignity (SACRED) Portal was launched in 2021. It is a unique and innovative technology-driven employment marketplace that aims to devise ways to ensure senior citizens live healthy, happy, empowered, dignified, and self-reliant life.
• Senior Care Aging Growth Engine (SAGE) Portal was launched in 2021. It identifies, evaluates, verifies, aggregates, and delivers products, Solutions, and servicesdirectly to the stakeholders.
• Both SACRED Portal and SAGE Portal work under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• SAGE Portal helps to select, support, and create a “one-stop access” to elderly careproducts and services. It encourages the selected “startups” based on innovative products and services to address the services from health, housing, care centers, and technology access linked to needs ranging from finances, food, and wealth management to legal guidance. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• SACRED Portal brings together both job providers and job seekers on a transparent online portal. It will help private and public sector enterprises across sectors to share their demand for human resources and help senior experienced citizens get themselves registered for visibility of the emerging workplace demands, and apply for relevant job opportunities. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver.
• Acute Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that presents with sicknesses like jaundice, fever, and vomiting. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Chronic Hepatitis is the inflammation of the liver that lasts more than six months but essentially shows no symptoms. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The World Hepatitis Alliance, established in 2007, organized the first community-driven World Hepatitis Day in 2008 on July 28. This date was chosen to honour Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Dr. Baruch Samuel Blumberg was the American physician who discovered Hepatitis B in the 1960s.
• World Hepatitis Day serves as an occasion to strengthen national and international efforts against hepatitis, urging individuals, partners, and the public to take action.
• The theme for World Hepatitis Day 2023 was “One life, one liver”, focusing on creating awareness about viral hepatitis. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Vaccination is not available for all the five kinds of viral hepatitis.
• Vaccines are available for Hepatitis A (HAV) and Hepatitis B (HBV) whereas there are no vaccines for Hepatitis C (HCV) and Hepatitis E (HEV). Hepatitis D (HDV) can be prevented by preventing HBV infection through vaccination. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• Scrub Typhus is a bacterial disease caused by orientia tsutsugamushi. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is also known as bush typhus.
• Its common symptoms include fever, headache, body aches, rash, dry cough, skin rashes, red eyes, and mental changes ranging from confusion to coma.
• It is spread to people through bites of infected larval mites. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• No vaccine is available to prevent scrub typhus. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It can be treated with the antibiotic  Hence statement 4 is correct.
• Doxycycline is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used in the treatment of some bacterial and parasitic infections such as bacterial pneumonia, acne, chlamydia infections, Lyme disease, cholera, typhus, and syphilis.

Solution (d)

• Cell-free DNAs are short fragments of DNA released into the bloodstream through a natural process of cell death. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• During pregnancy, the mother’s blood contains cell-free DNA (cfDNA), both from her own tissue and from the fetus via the placenta.
• The cell degradation is influenced by multiple processes causing variations in the amount, size, and origin of cfDNA.
• The release of cfDNA could occur together with a variety of processes, including those required for normal development, those related to the development of certain cancers, and those associated with several other diseases.
• They help in screening foetuses for specific chromosomal abnormalities, an application known as non-invasive prenatal testing.
• They can help in the early detection, diagnosis, and treatment of cancers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They can help in understanding why a body is rejecting a transplanted organ. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• They can be used as a biomarker for neurological disorders like Alzheimer’s disease, neuronal tumours, stroke, and traumatic brain injury. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Akira is a type of ransomware that targets both Windows and Linux devices that spreads through spear phishing emails that contain malicious attachments in the form of archived content (zip/rar) files. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It gets its name due to its ability to modify the filenames of all encrypted files by appending them with the “.akira” extension.
• Windows Shadow Volume copies are instrumental in ensuring that organizations can back up data used in their applications for day-to-day functioning.
• It deletes Windows Shadow Volume copies and leaves a note with attack details and a link to the negotiation site. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The attackers then demand a ransom, threatening to publish the data on their dark web blog if the demands are not met.

Solution (d)

The following products have got the Geographical Indication Tag:

• Jaderi namakatti of Tamil Nadu
• Kashmir’s Mushqbudji rice
• Agra leather footwear
• Jammu Kashmir’s Rajouri Chikri Wood Craft
• Chedibutta saree of Tamil Nadu
• Kanniyakumari Matti banana
• Rajasthan’s Nathdwara Pichhwai Painting
• Bihar’s Marcha Rice
• Agsechi Vayingim (Agassaim Brinjal) of Goa
• Sat Shiro Bheno (Sat Shirancho Bhendo) of Goa

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was a Centrally Sponsored Scheme to fund States/UTs institutions, with the vision to attain higher levels of access, equity, and excellence in the State higher education system with greater efficiency, transparency, accountability, and responsiveness. The first phase of the scheme was launched in 2013 and the second phase was launched in 2018. Now, in the light of the National Education Policy, the RUSA scheme has been launched as Pradhan Mantri Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA). It covers government and government-aided institutions of the States and UTs. As the demand for higher education is increasing continuously over the years, there has been an unprecedented expansion in the number of institutions, universities, and volume of students in the country.

The features/objectives of PM-USHA are:

• To improve the overall quality of existing state higher educational institutions by ensuring their conformity to prescribed norms and standards and adoption of accreditation as a quality assurance framework;
• Usher transformative reforms in the State higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities, and improving governance in institutions;
• Implementation of recommendations of the NEP 2020 through funding support provided to State HEIs;
• Ensure governance, academic, and examination (and evaluation) reforms in the State higher educational institutions and establish backward and forward linkages with school education on one hand and employment market, on the other hand, to facilitate self-reliance and thus create an Atma-Nirbhar Bharat;
• Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research and innovations;
• Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by facilitating access to high-quality institutions in urban & semi‐urban areas, creating opportunities for students from rural areas to get access to better quality institutions, and setting up institutions in unserved & underserved areas;
• Developing infrastructure for ODL/Online/Digital mode of education in such States/UTs;
• Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities for higher education to socially deprived communities; promote inclusion of women, minorities, SC/ST/OBCs, and special-abled persons;
• To identify and fill up the existing gaps in higher education, by augmenting and supporting the State Governments’ efforts;
• Enhancing employability through skilling and vocationalization;
• Improving the accreditation status of accredited institutions and getting accreditation of non-accredited institutions;
• Providing better hostel facilities in remote areas;
• Focusing on low GER, Left Wing Extremism (LWE), border area districts, aspirational districts, and districts with higher SC/ ST population; Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Establishing New Model Degree Colleges in the districts where there are no Government and Government-aided institutions; Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Focus on multidisciplinary education, including STEM, commerce, and humanities fields of education.

Solution (c)

HE 1005-1439 is a carbon-enhanced metal-poor (CEMP) star. They are primarily characterized by diverse heavy elements and abundance patterns. They are formed from the ejected material of the first stars that formed after the Big Bang.

HE 1005-1439 defies previous classifications and challenges previous understanding of star formation processes and shows signs of having been formed through the combination of two different neutron-capture processes — the slow (s-) and intermediate (i-). Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

• Malayali tribes mean Malai meaning “hill” and yali meaning “people”.
• Malayali tribes are a tribal group from the Eastern Ghats in North Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They constructed huts with red clay on teak wood frames. It signifies the tribe’s connection to nature. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was initially used for living and later used for seed storage.
• The roof of their huts was made of dry bamboo leaves and cow dung. It prevented leaks during monsoons. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Currently, only one such hut remains on Yelagiri Hill in Tamil Nadu as a symbol of their transition from foraging to a more modern lifestyle.

Solution (c)

• India alone hosts over 60% of the worldwide wild elephant population.
• The elephant population within India is spread across the southern, northeastern, east-central, and northern parts of the country.
• Both male and female African elephants have tusks, while only male Asian elephants have tusks. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The elephant is a national heritage animal in India that is protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Indian elephants are listed as endangered in the IUCN List and Appendix I of the CITES.
• Gaj Soochna is a centralized database that includes physical and genetic information of every captive elephant individual in the country. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is being carried out in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India and will act as the ‘Adhaar card of captive elephants’.

Solution (a)

Let the height of Suresh is x and height of Ramesh is y.

Then, height of Ramesh = x – 20% of x

y = x – (20/100)x

y = x – (1/5)x = (4/5)x

x = (5/4)y

Now, height of Suresh – height of Ramesh

= (5/4)y – y = y/4

∴ Height of Suresh will be greater than that of Ramesh by ((y/4)/y)*100%

= y/(4*y)*100

= 100/4

= 25%

Solution (c)

The time taken by the green spot on all the three wheels to simultaneously touch the ground again will be equal to the LCM of the times taken by the three wheels to complete one revolution.

Since the time taken by the first wheel to complete 40 revolutions = 60 seconds (1 minute)

So, the time taken by the first wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/40 s = 3/2 s.

Also, time taken by the second wheel to complete 45 revolutions = 60 seconds

So, the time taken by the second wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/45s = 4/3 s.

Again, time taken by the third wheel to complete 50 revolutions = 60 seconds

So, the time taken by the third wheel to complete 1 revolution = 60/50 s = 6/5 s.

The LCM of 3/2, 4/3 and 6/5 = LCM (3, 4, 6)/HC F (2, 3, 5) = 12/1 = 12 sec.

So, after every 12 s, the green spots of the three wheels will touch the ground simultaneously.

Solution (d)

Let the total number of students = n.

Number of students to the left of Raman = 6.

Number of students to the right of Rohan = 13.

Number of students between Raman and Rohan = n/4.

Total number of students in the row = 6 + 13 + 2 + n/4 = n

So, 3n/4 = 21

Or n = 28.

Solution (b)

According to the question when ‘n’ is divided by 5, we will get the remainder 2

n/5 = remainder 2

On putting n =7, and on dividing it with 5 we will get remainder 2

So, n = 7, and n² = 49

n2/5 = 49/5 = remainder 4

Solution (b)

Let the total number of pages in the book be ‘n’.

Let page number ‘x’ be repeated.

Then, x +

⇒ x + n(n+1) /2 = 850

So, n(n+1)/2 ≤ 850

⇒ n2 + n ≤ 1700

The greatest possible value of n = 40.

Now, for n = 40, n(n+1)/2 = 40×41/2 = 820

So, x = 30.