[DAY 19] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Convectional Rainfall –

• This kind of rainfall is caused when the Sun’s energy heats the surface which causes water to evaporate to form water vapour.
• It is heavy but of short duration which is highly localised.
• It is associated with minimum amount of cloudiness.
• It occurs mainly during summer and is common over equatorial doldrums in the Congo basin, the Amazon basin and the islands of south-east Asia.

Solution (b)

The conditions required to form a Dew are –

• The clear sky with calm air.
• The high relative humidity.
• The cold and long nights.
• The dew point should be above the freezing point.

Note:

Dew – When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew.

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

Note:

The pre-monsoon showers during the end of the summer in Kerala and the coastal areas of Karnataka which helps in the ripening of the mangoes are called as Mango Showers.

The showers which helps in blossoming of coffee flowers in Kerala and nearby areas are called as Blossom Showers.

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Factors that significantly influence Global wind patterns are:

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

The low-pressure storm systems developing in the mid and high latitudes (35° latitude and 65° latitude in both hemispheres), beyond the tropics, are called the middle latitude or extratropical cyclones, or frontal cyclones. The passage of the front causes abrupt changes in the weather conditions over the area in the middle and high latitudes. Extratropical cyclones form along the polar front. Initially, the front is stationary. In the northern hemisphere, warm air blows from the south and cold air from the north of the front. When the pressure drops along the front, the warm air moves northwards and the cold air moves towards the south setting in motion an anticlockwise cyclonic circulation. The cyclonic circulation leads to a well-developed extratropical cyclone, with a warm front and a cold front.

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

• The modern prison in India originated with the suggestions of TB Macaulay in 1835. A committee namely the Prison Discipline Committee, was appointed, which submitted its report in 1838. The committee recommended increased rigorousness of treatment while rejecting all humanitarian needs and reforms for the prisoners. Following the recommendations of the Macaulay Committee between 1836 and 1838, Central Prisons were constructed from 1846.
• In 1980, the Government of India set up a Committee on Jail Reform, under the chairmanship of Justice A. N. Mulla. The basic objective of the Committee was to review the laws, rules, and regulations keeping in view the overall objective of protecting society and rehabilitating offenders. The Mulla Committee submitted its report in 1983.
• Justice Amitava Roy Committee was established by the Supreme Court in 2018 to study jail reforms nationwide and give suggestions on a variety of issues, including prison overpopulation. It suggested that special fast-track courts be established to handle only minor offences that had been outstanding for more than five years.
• The Justice Krishna Iyer Committee was established by the Indian government in 1987 to evaluate the conditions of women prisoners.

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

• Toto is a Sino-Tibetan language and is currently written in the Bengali script. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is spoken by barely 1,600 people living in parts of West Bengal bordering Bhutan.
• Toto Shabda Sangraha is a dictionary compiled by Bhakta Toto to preserve the Toto language. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Toto is listed as a critically endangered language by UNESCO. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• According to the criteria adopted by  UNESCO, a language becomes extinct when nobody speaks or remembers the language. UNESCO has categorized languages based on endangerment as – vulnerable, definitely endangered, severely endangered, and critically endangered.
• UNESCO has recognised 42 Indian languages as Critically Endangered.

Note: The Toto is a primitive and isolated tribal group residing only in a small enclave called Totopara in the Jalpaiguri of West Bengal, India. The Totos are considered Mongoloid people and are generally endogamous and marry within their tribe.

Solution (a)

• The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) is a statutory body established on 1st October 2016 following the provisions of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (Code).
• It is a unique regulator as it regulates a profession as well as processes.
• It has regulatory oversight over the Insolvency Professionals, Insolvency Professional Agencies, Insolvency Professional Entities, and Information Utilities.
• It has also been designated as the ‘Authority’ under the Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation Rules), 2017 for regulation and development of the profession of valuers in the country.
• It writes and enforces rules for processes, namely, corporate insolvency resolution , corporate liquidation, individual insolvency resolution , and individual bankruptcy under the Code. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is governed by a Governing Board constituted by the Central Government. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Governing Board consists of:
• Chairperson;
• Three members from amongst the officers of the Central Government not below the rank of Joint Secretary or equivalent, one each representing the Ministry of Finance, Ministry of Corporate Affairs, and Ministry of Law & Justice;
• One member nominated by the Reserve Bank of India;
• Three whole-time members; and
• Two part-time members.

Solution (b)

• Habitat rights are granted to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)  under Section 3(1)(e) of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006(also known as FRA). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The recognition of Habitat rights grants PVTGs possession over their customary territory, encompassing habitation, economic and livelihood means, and biodiversity knowledge.
• Odisha has the highest number of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Ministry of Tribal Affairs has identified 75 PVGTs in 18 states and one union territory.
• TheDhebar Commission of 1973 created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• PVTGs are identified based on criteria such astechnological backwardness, stagnant or declining population growth, low literacy levels, subsistence economy, and challenging living conditions.

Solution (c)

• Kawar Lake is the largest freshwater oxbow lake in Asia formed by the changing course of the River Gandak. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is one of the most important wetlands for waterfowl in the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
• It supports huge numbers of migratory ducks and Coot through the winter, as well as large concentrations of resident species such as Ruficollis and Asian Openbill.
• It was declared a notified area under the Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• To check the poaching of birds, it was declared a protected zone by the Bihar state government in 1986 and the government of India declared it a bird sanctuary in 1989.
• It is also known as Kabartal Wetland which is the only designated Ramsar Site in Bihar. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 Note: Karnataka is the only state in India which does not have a Ramsar Site. Tamil Nadu has the most number of Ramsar Sites.

Solution (c)

• The findings of the Global Hunger Index 2023:
• India topped the list of countries with the highest child-wasting rate in the world at 18.7 percent, reflecting acute undernutrition. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India’s child wasting rate is higher than that of conflict-ridden Yemen (at 14.4 percent) and Sudan at (13.7 percent), which hold the second and third positions, respectively.
• India has been ranked at the 111th position out of 124 countries, with neighbouring Pakistan (102nd), Bangladesh (81st), Nepal (69th), and Sri Lanka (60th) faring better than it in the index.
• Pakistan and Bangladesh have beesn ranked in a better position than India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators:

• Undernourishment: the share of the population with insufficient caloric intake.
• Child stunting: the share of children under age five who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition.
• Child wasting: the share of children under age five who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition.
• Child mortality: the share of children who die before their fifth birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments.

• Based on the values of the four indicators, a GHI score is calculated on a 100-point scale.
• The scale reflects the severity of hunger, where 0 is the best possible score (no hunger) and 100 is the worst.
• Global Hunger Index 2023 is published annually by Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Colombo Security Conclave(CSC) is a trilateral maritime security grouping formed in 2011 by India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. Later Mauritius joined as the fourth member. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It aims to provide a forum for greater maritime security cooperation and to address concerns such as human smuggling, narco-trafficking, piracy, terrorism, and extremism.
• Its Secretariat is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its pillars of cooperation include countering terrorism and radicalization, combating trafficking and transnational organized crime, maritime safety and security, cyber security, protection of critical infrastructure and technology, and humanitarian assistance and disaster relief. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Bangladesh and Seychelles have observer status in the CSC. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

An attosecond is an astonishingly short unit of time, equivalent to one quintillionth of a second, or 10 to the power of 18 seconds. These pulses are used to unravel dynamical processes in matter with unprecedented time resolution .

Attosecond science is a branch of physics that deals with light-matter interaction phenomena, the production of extremely short light pulses, and using them to study superfast processes.

The applications of attophysics:

• It can provide a real-time view of electron movement during chemical reactions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It plays a vital role in imaging ultrafast processes at the atomic and molecular scale. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It helps in understanding how electrons move and transmit energy to create more efficient electronic gadgets. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• They allow scientists to observe the quantum mechanical nature of electrons and the intricate dance they perform when interacting with one another and with atomic nuclei.

Solution (a)

• Recently, the Supreme Court held that the Enforcement Directorate (ED) must provide a copy of the grounds of arrest to the accused in money laundering cases instead of just verbal information. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the constitutional right of a person under Article 22(1) to be informed of the grounds of arrest. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Article 22(1) of the Constitution says, “No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice”.

Solution (d)

Al-Hilal was an Urdu-language newspaper founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. It was used as a tool for opposing the British Raj in India. It also supported the Indian freedom movement’s cause and encouraged Indian Muslims to join the movement. It had been shut down under the 1914 Press Act. “Al-Hilal” (The Crescent) was published in Calcutta, started a new chapter in Urdu journalism, and appealed to Muslims in the city immediately. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (a)

Divisibility of 11:

(sum of digits in odd places) – (sum of digits in even places) = 0 or multiple of 11, then the number is divisible by. [usually looked from right to left]

22 – (8+*) = 0 or multiple of 11

14 – * = 0 or multiple of 11

Here multiple of ’11’ is the best option which is ’11’ itself 14 – * = 11

Hence * = 3

Hence ‘3’ is the smallest number that should replace * so that the number 97215*6 is divisible by 11.

Solution (c)

Total percent of failed students = 52+42-17=77

Formula: n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B)

Therefore, percentage of passed students = 100-77=23%.

Solution (c)

Value of Rs. 5 note = 3/15 × 225 × 5 = Rs. 225

Value of Rs. 10 note = 7/15 × 225 × 10 = Rs. 1050

Value of Rs. 50 note = 5/15 × 225 × 50 = Rs. 3750

Total money = Rs. 5025 Money remaining = Rs. 5025 – 25 = Rs. 5000

No. of Rs. 500 notes = Rs.5000 /Rs.500 = 10

Solution (c)

From 1 to 201 we have Single digits 1 to 9 – No such repeated digit number

Therefore,required Number = 0

Double digit is 10 to 99 ->Number of numbers with repeated digits 11, 22, 33, 44, 55, 66, 77, 88, 99

Therefore, Required Number = 9

Triple digit i.e. 100 to 200 Number of numbers with repeated digits are: 100, 101, 110, 111, 112, 113, 114, 115, 116, 117, 118, 119, 121, 122, 131, 133, 141, 144, 151, 155, 161, 166, 171, 177, 181, 188, 191, 199, 200.

Therefore, Required Number = 29.

Hence, total number = 9 + 29 =38

Solution (b)

Out of the appointments of the 2 Judges of the Supreme Court, one can be appointed in 2C1 = 2 ways.

Out of the remaining 5 Judges identified by the Collegium, 2 Judges to the Supreme Court can be appointed in 5C2 ways = (5 x 4)/2 = 10 ways Hence, number of possible combination of appointees = 2 x 10 = 20 ways.