[DAY 31] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – GEOGRAPHY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Alluvial soil

This soil is well-drained and poorly drained with an immature profile in undulating areas. This soil has a phosphorous deficiency and is rich in potash and lime. It is present in Lower Ganga valley. The colour of soil varies from light grey to ash grey. This soil is suited for Rice, maize, wheat, sugarcane, oilseeds, etc.

Solution (d)

Laterite Soil

• They are formed as the result of intense leaching due to tropical rains. It is well developed in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.
• They are poor in organic matter, nitrogen, phosphate and calcium.
• They are rich in potash and iron oxide.
• They are widely used for bricks making which is used for house construction.
• The humus content is removed by bacteria.
• With the application of manures and fertilizers it can be made use for cultivation.

Solution (b)

Alluvial soils are by far the largest and the most important soil group of India. Covering about 15 lakh sq km or about 45.6 per cent of the total land area of the country.

Black soils are spread over 5.46 lakh sq km i.e. 16.6 per cent of the total geographical area of the country.

Laterite and lateritic soils are widely spread in India and cover an area of 2.48 lakh sq km.

Solution (d)

Solution (d)

Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau and the upper reaches of the Godavari and the Krishna. It is also known as Regur Soil or Black Cotton Soil. It is clayey, deep and impermeable. It swells and becomes sticky when wet and shrink when dried. It has characteristics of ‘self-ploughing’. The soil retains the moisture for a very long time. They are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.

Solution (a)

A (topsoil): Mostly minerals from parent material with organic matter incorporated. A good material for plants and other organisms to live.

E (eluviated): Leached of clay, minerals, and organic matter, leaving a concentration of sand and silt particles of quartz or other resistant materials – missing in some soils but often found in older soils and forest soils.

B (subsoil): Rich in minerals that leached (moved down) from the A or E horizons and accumulated here.

C (parent material): The deposit at Earth’s surface from which the soil developed.

R (bedrock): A mass of rock such as granite, basalt, quartzite, limestone or sandstone that forms the parent material for some soils – if the bedrock is close enough to the surface to weather. This is not soil and is located under the C horizon.

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

The Mahadayi/Mandovi River also known as Mahadayi or Mhadei river, is described as the lifeline of the Indian state of Goa. The river has a length of 77 kilometres (48 miles), 29 kilometres (18 miles) in Karnataka and 52 kilometres (32 miles) in Goa. It originates from a cluster of 30 springs at Bhimgad in the Western Ghats in the Belagavi district of Karnataka

Dudhsagar falls and Vajrpoha falls located on this river. The Kalasa-Banduri Nala is a project undertaken by the Government of Karnataka.

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

The Seonath, the Hasdeo, the Mand and the Ib joins Mahanadi from left.

The Ong, the Tel and the Jonk joins it from right.

Solution (c)

River Yamuna passes through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Haryana, Delhi.

Solution (c)

The five confluences, known as the Panch Prayag, are all along the Alaknanda. They are, in downstream order:

Vishnuprayag, where the Dhauliganga joins the Alaknanda;

Nandprayag, where the Nandakini joins;

Karnaprayag, where the Pindar joins,

Rudraprayag, where the Mandakini joins;

Devprayag, where the Bhagirathi joins the Alaknanda to form the Ganges River proper.

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

• Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF), also referred to as bio-jet fuel, is created using domestically developed methods using cooking oil and oil-rich seeds from plants.
• Scaling up the production and use of SAF in India can bring several benefits, including reducing GHG emissions, improving air quality, enhancing energy security, creating jobs in the renewable energy sector, and promoting sustainable development.
• The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) has established the Carbon Offsetting and Reduction Scheme for International Aviation (CORSIA) to address aviation emissions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The World Economic Forum has launched the Clean Skies for Tomorrow initiative, which aims to accelerate the production and use of Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF). Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Hence option b is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) are areas that are unique, ecologically fragile
  ecosystems that have a rich biodiversity. BHS must comprise any one or more of the following components – species richness, high endemism, presence of rare, endemic, and threatened species, keystone species, species of evolutionary significance, wild ancestors of domestic/cultivated species, etc.
• They are recognised under Section 37 of the Biological Diversity Act, of 2002. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The creation of BHS may not put any restriction on the prevailing practices and usages of the local communities, other than those voluntarily decided by them. The purpose is to enhance the quality of life of the local communities through conservation measures.
• They are notified by the State Government in consultation with the local bodies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Nallur Tamarind Grove in Bengaluru, Karnataka was the first Biodiversity Heritage Site of India, declared in 2007.

Solution (b)

• The Arsenic and Metal Removal by Indian Technology (AMRIT) is a water purifier developed for the removal of arsenic and metal ions from water. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The technology uses nano-scale iron oxy-hydroxide which selectively removes arsenic when water is passed through it.
• It can be used for both domestic and community levels. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was developed by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Kawal Tiger Reserve forms part of the Deccan peninsula-central highlands. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is located in the north-eastern part of Telangana, with the Godavari River on one side and the Maharashtra border on the other.
• It has the catchment for the rivers Godavari and Kadam, which flow towards the south of the sanctuary. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It has connectivity to the Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve of Maharashtra in the North and to the Indravati Tiger Reserve of Chhattisgarh towards its north-eastern side. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has diverse habitats, comprising dense forests, grasslands, open areas, rivers, streams, and water bodies.
• Its vegetation includes southern tropical dry deciduous forests. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Project Q* refers to a new artificial intelligence model being developed the OpenAI. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It demonstrates advanced reasoning capabilities similar to humans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Virtual assistants and spam filters are examples of narrow artificial intelligence. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Self-driving cars and advanced chatbots are examples of general artificial intelligence. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The Cyber Surakshit Bharat Initiative is an initiative of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was launched in cooperation with the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and various industry partners in India.
• It is an initiative to fortify the cyber security system in India with regard to the Government’s vision of a Digital India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can be entitled as the first public-private enterprise of its kind.
• The partners involved in the origination of this scheme include chief IT companies like Intel, Microsoft, etc.
• It will be operated on three principles – education, awareness, and enablement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It will comprise a program of awareness on the importance of cybersecurity.
• The scheme will also include a number of workshops on the best enablement and practices of the officials with cybersecurity health tool kits for the management and mitigation of cyber threats.

Solution (c)

• Stonehenge is a massive stone circle monument located on Salisbury Plain in southern England. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Work started on this super stone circle around 5,000 years ago in the late Neolithic Age, but it took over 1,000 years to build in four long stages.
• Archaeologists believe the final changes were made around 1,500 BC, in the early Bronze Age.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site of outstanding universal value in 1986. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Though there is no definite evidence as to the intended purpose of Stonehenge, it was presumably a religious site and an expression of the power and wealth of the chieftains, aristocrats, and priests who had it built.

Solution (c)

The following products have obtained Geographical Indication from Meghalaya

• Lakadong Turmeric
• Garo Dakmanda
• Larnai Pottery
• Garo Chubitchi

Tawlhlohpuan – Mizoram

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Painganga River originates in the Ajantha ranges in Maharashtra. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It provides irrigation to the Washim and Yavatmal districts in Maharashtra.
• It is a major tributary of the Wardha River. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Wardha River flows into the Wain Ganga River to form the Pranhita River, which finally joins the Godavari River.
• Its major tributaries include the Adan, Kas, Kayadhu, Pus, and Arunavati. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Two dams are being constructed on the river, namely Upper Painganga and Lower Painganga. This dam is also known as the Isapur Dam.

Solution (c)

Currently, the ratio of their ages is 4: 3. Suppose, their ages are: 4x and 3x.

Adam’s age 4 years ago = 4x – 4

Eve’s age after 4 years = 3x + 4

The ratio of Adam’s age 4 years ago and Eve’s age after 4 years is 1: 1

Therefore, = 4x−4/(3x+4) = 1/1

Solving, we get x = 8

We are required to find the ratio between Adam’s age 4 years hence and Eve’s age 4 years ago.

Adam’s age: (4x + 4)

Eve’s age: (3x – 4)

Putting the value of x, we get: = 4x+4/ (3x−4) = [(4×8)+4] [(3×8)−4] = 9/5

So, the required ratio is 9: 5

Solution (c)

The sample space is defined by two mutually-exclusive events – it rains or it does not rain. Additionally, a third event occurs when the weatherman predicts rain. Notation for these events appears below.

Event A1 It rains on Dhyanchand’s Hockey match.

Event A2 It does not rain on Dhyanchand’s Hockey match

Event B The weatherman predicts rain.

In terms of probabilities, we know the following: P (A1) = 73/365 = 0.2 [It rains 73 days out of the year.]

P (A2) = 292/365 = 0.8 [It does not rain 292 days out of the year.]

P (B|A1) = 0.8 [When it rains, the weatherman predicts rain 80% of the time.]

P (B|A2) = 0.2 [When it does not rain, the weatherman predicts rain 20% of the time.]

We want to know P (A1 |B), the probability it will rain on the day of Dhyanchand’s Hockey match, given a forecast for rain by the weatherman.

The answer can be determined from Bayes’ theorem, as shown below.

P(A1 |B) = [P(A1 ) P(B|A1 )] [P(A1 )P(B|A1 )+ P(A2 )P(B|A2 )]

P(A1 |B) = [0.2 × 0.8] [(0.2 × 0.8)+ (0.8 × 0.2)] = 0.2 × 0.8 2(0.2 × 0.8) = ½

Solution (b)

The above given conditions are possible only when U = 8, Z = 9 and Q = 0. Sum of these digits is 17.

Solution (b)

The required number is b. Then, = 6+7+b+3+2+6=24+b is divisible by 3. Therefore, least value of b is 0.

Solution (c)

Given x + y = 11………(i)

10x + y + 45 = 10y + x ……….. (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii), we get X = 3 and y =8

So, the number is 38.