[DAY 49] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (d)

Items provided under 12th Schedule for devolution of powers to Municipalities:

1. Urban planning including town
2. Regulation of land-use and construction of
3. Planning for economic and social
4. Roads and
5. Water supply for domestic, industrial and commercial
6. Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste
7. Fire
8. Urban forestry, protection of the environment and promotion of ecological aspects
9. Safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded.
10. Slum improvement and
11. Urban poverty
12. Provision of urban amenities and facilities such as parks, gardens,
13. Promotion of cultural, educational and aesthetic
14. Burials and burial grounds; cremations, cremation grounds; and electric
15. Cattle pounds; prevention of cruelty to
16. Vital statistics including registration of births and
17. Public amenities including street lighting, parking lots, bus stops and public
18. Regulation of slaughter houses and

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Hence option b is correct.

Note: Thwaites Glacier, also known as the “Doomsday Glacier,” is located in the remote Amundsen Sea in West Antarctica. It’s a wide and fast-flowing glacier, roughly the size of Florida or Great Britain, and it has been a significant focus of scientific study due to its sensitivity to climate change. It is one of the most vulnerable and important glaciers in the world in terms of future global sea-level rise. Satellite measurements have shown that the glacier is losing an enormous amount of ice each year, nearly 50 billion tons annually,

contributing to rising global sea levels. The glacier already contributes 4% of global sea level rise. If the entire Thwaites Glacier were to melt, it could raise the world’s oceans by about 65 centimeters (over 2 feet). It also acts as a buffer, holding back neighboring glaciers that contain around three meters of potential sea level rise.

Solution (c)

• Vikramaditya Vedic Clock is the world’s first Vedic Clock designed to display time according to the ancient Indian traditional Panchang. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The clock will calculate time from one sunrise to another. The period between the two sunrises will be divided into 30 parts, whose one hour consists of 48 minutes, according to ISD.  The reading will start from 0:00 with the sunrise functions for 30 hours (an hour of 48 minutes).
• It has been positioned on an 85-foot tower within Jantar Mantar in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Ujjain’s rich heritage in timekeeping dates back centuries, with the city playing a pivotal role in determining India’s time zones and time differences.
• Ujjain is located at the precise point of interaction with the zero meridian and the Tropic of Cancer.
• Before 82.5E longitude was adopted for IST, Ujjain (75.78E) was considered as Bharat’s time meridian.
• It provides information on planetary positions, muhurat, astrological calculations, and predictions. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has been developed by Lucknow-based Sanstha Arohan, using digital interventions, enabling it to be connected to the internet and provide a wide range of features through a mobile app named after the clock.
• It indicates Indian Standard Time (IST) and Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Nano Urea is a nanotechnology-based revolutionary Agri-input that provides nitrogen to plants. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• When compared to conventional urea prill, Nano Urea has a desirable particle size of about 20-50 nm,  more surface area (10,000 times over 1 mm urea prill), and several particles (55,000 nitrogen particles over 1 mm urea prill). It contains 4.0 % total nitrogen (w/v).
• It is produced by an energy-efficient, environment-friendly production process with less carbon footprints.
• It is expected to improve crop productivity, soil health, and nutritional quality of produce and address the “imbalanced and excessive use” of conventional fertilizer.
• It is developed and patented by the Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative Limited (IFFCO). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• IFFCO Nano Urea is the only nano fertilizer approved by the Government of India and included in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO).

Solution (d)

The functions of the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB):

• It is a central authority to effectively prevent and combat the abuse of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances and their illicit trade. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the apex coordinating agency. It also functions as an enforcement agency through its zones and sub-zones.
• It works to improve awareness, educate the public on the dangers of drugs and drug abuse, and provide support to those affected by the illegal drug trade. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It assists concerned authorities in foreign countries and concerned

international organisations to facilitate coordination and universal action for the prevention and suppression of illicit traffic in these drugs and substances.

• It is responsible for maintaining and updating the National Data Bank on Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It provides coordination of actions by various offices, State Governments, and other authorities under the N.D.P.S. Act, Customs Act, Drugs and Cosmetics Act, and any other law for the time being in force in connection with the enforcement provisions of the NDPS Act, 1985.
• It maintains and updates the National Register of Treatment Providers and Narcotic Drug Dependents. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• It provides expert advice to the central government on narcotics, psychotropic substances, and related matters.

Note: The NCB was created in March 1986 in terms of Section 4(3) of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act of 1985.

Solution (d)

• Foreign Exchange Reserves (also called Forex Reserves) are reserve assets held by a central bank in foreign currencies. Reserves are denominated and expressed in the US dollar, which is the international numeraire for the purpose. RBI is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves in India.
• India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise:
• Foreign currency assets (FCAs) are maintained in currencies like the US dollar, euro, pound sterling, Australian dollar, and Japanese yen.
• Gold
• SDR (Special Drawing Rights) is the reserve currency of the IMF.
• RTP (Reserve Tranche Position) is the reserve capital with the IMF.

Hence option d is correct.

• The biggest contributor to India’s Forex reserves is foreign currency assets, followed by gold.

Solution (b)

• The Bureau of Energy Efficiency was established under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act of 2001. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The primary objective of BEE is to reduce energy intensity in the Indian economy.
• It coordinates with designated consumers, designated agencies, and other organizations; recognizes, identifies, and utilizes the existing resources and infrastructure, in performing the functions assigned to it under the Energy Conservation Act.
• The EC Act provides for regulatory and promotional functions which are assigned to the organisation.
• It develops minimum energy performance standards for equipment and appliances under standards and labelling. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It develops minimum energy performance standards for commercial buildings.
• It develops energy consumption norms for designated consumers.
• It works under the Ministry of Power. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Note: State Energy Efficiency Index 2023 is the fifth edition of The State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI), initiated by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE), in association with the Alliance for an Energy-Efficient Economy. It is to evaluate the annual progress of energy efficiency implementation in the states.

Solution (b)

• Very Short-Range Air Defence System (VSHORADS) is a short-range air defence capability to protect ground forces and critical assets from aerial threats, including helicopters and low-flying aircraft. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• is a fourth-generation Man Portable Air Defence System (MANPAD) specially designed to counter low-altitude aerial threats over short distances. It has a range of up to 6 km.
• It has been designed and developed indigenously by Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) Research Centre Imarat (RCI). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The missile and its launcher were designed by the DRDO to be portable, which enables their quick deployment over difficult terrain. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has a dual-band IIR Seeker, a miniaturized Reaction Control System, and is propelled by a dual-thrust solid motor.

Solution (c)

• Juice Jacking is an attack carried out by hackers through a USB charging cable. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The term “juice jacking” was first coined in 2011 by investigative journalist Brian Krebs.
• It is a form of cyberattack where a public USB charging port is tampered with and infected using hardware and software changes to steal data or install malware on devices connected to it.
• It is used by hackers to steal users’ passwords, credit card information, addresses, and other sensitive data stored on the targeted device. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This type of attack has been a growing concern, with incidents reported in various public spaces such as airports, hotels, and shopping centres.

Solution (a)

• International Big Cat Alliance is an initiative launched by India to commemorate the 50th anniversary of Project Tiger. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The objective of the IBCA is to ensure cooperation for the conservation of seven big cats – lion, tiger, leopard, cheetah, snow leopard, jaguar, and puma.
• It is open to 97 ‘range’ countries, which contain the natural habitat of these big cats, as well as other interested nations, international organizations, etc.
• It aims for cooperation among countries for mutual benefit in furthering the conservation agenda.
• It would have a multipronged approach in broad basing and establishing linkages manifold in several areas and help in knowledge sharing, capacity building, networking, advocacy, finance and resources support, research and technical support, education, and awareness.
• It has a General Assembly consisting of all member countries. A Council of at least seven but not more than 15 member countries elected by the General Assembly for a term of 5 years, and a Secretariat. Upon the recommendation of the Council, the General Assembly will appoint the IBCA Secretary General for a specific term.
• It has secured the Government of India’s initial support of Rs. 150 crore for five years (2023-24 to 2027-28).
• Five of the seven cats recognized under the International Big Cat Alliance are found in India. Apart from jaguar and puma, are found in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• The BioTRIG is a waste management technology that works by sealing the waste inside an oxygen-free chamber and heating it above 400 degrees Celsius based on the pyrolysis system. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The syngas and bio-oil facilitate heat and power the pyrolysis system in future cycles and surplus electricity is utilized to power local homes and businesses.
• The clean-burning bio-oil replaces dirty cooking fuels in homes and uses biochar to store carbon while improving soil fertility.
• It could help reduce greenhouse gas emissions from communities and could help rural Indians cut indoor air pollution. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Let the present ages of Amulya and Chandana be 7x and 10x years respectively.

Then, 7x+5/10x+5 = 8/11

• 77x +55 = 80x + 40
• 3x = 15
• x = 5

So, the present ages of Amulya and Chandana are (7 × 5)and (10 × 5) respectively.

The sum of their ages = (35 +50) = 85

Hence, a = 8 and b = 5 Then, a^b = 8^5

We know unit digit of 8 repeated after 4 powers.  So, unit digit of 8^5 = unit digit of 8^1 => 8

Solution (a)

First double the numbers to get 4, 6, 8, 12, 14, 18, 20, 24.

Observe that each of them is 1 greater than a prime number. Hence, on subtracting 1 from each

number, the series obtained is: 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.

Hence, the next prime is 29. This first becomes 30 and is then halved to get 15.

Hence, option a.

Solution (a)

A number of the form aabb has to be a multiple of 11.
So, it is the square of either 11 or 22 or 33 or…so on up to 99.
88² = 7744.
This is the only solution possible. Most of these trial and error questions need to be narrowed down a little bit before we can look for the solution. That narrowing down is critical. In this case, we should look for multiples of 11.

The question is “A 4-digit number of the form aabb is a perfect square. What is the value of a – b?”

Hence the answer is “3”

Choice A is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Let the average age of the 12-member family be x years.

Had the member not changed, the average age now (i.e. after 18 months) would have been

(x + 1.5) years.

Hence, the total age should have been (12x + 18) instead of (12x) that it is right now.

This reduction of 18 years is because of the difference in age of the person who died and the person

who joined.

∴ Required age difference = 18 years

Hence, option c.

Solution (b)

We need to select 3 men from 9 men and 2 women from 6 women

Number of ways to do this

= 9C3 × 6C2

= (9×8×7/3×2×1) × (6×5/2×1)

= 1,260