[DAY 10] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Lakdawala committee suggested that state specific poverty lines. It also suggested  that poverty lines should be constructed and updated using the Consumer Price  Index of Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) in urban areas and Consumer Price Index of  Agricultural Labour (CPI-AL) in rural areas. 
• Tendulkar committee recommended four major changes: 

o (i) a shift away from calorie consumption-based poverty estimation; o (ii) a uniform poverty line basket (PLB) across rural and urban India;  o (iii) a change in the price adjustment procedure to correct spatial and  temporal issues with price adjustment; and  

o (iv) incorporation of private expenditure on health and education while  estimating poverty. 

• Rangarajan committee estimates poverty is based on:  

o Food expenses 

o Non-food expenses

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o Behaviourally determined levels of other non-food expenses.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO) provides three different estimates of employment and unemployment based on different approaches / reference periods used to classify an individual’s activity status.  

1. Usual Status Approach
2. Weekly Status Approach
3. Current daily status approach

• Usual status approach considers those people as unemployed who had no gainful work for a majority of time during the 365 days preceding the date of survey. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 
• Weekly status approach records unemployment for those who did not have gainful work even for an hour or a day of the week, preceding the date of survey. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.  

The third approach used by NSSO is the Current daily status approach in which  unemployment is recorded for a person if he/s has no gainful work even for 1 hour in a day.  It uses each day of the seven days preceding date of survey as the reference period.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and  Programme Implementation, is a key source of employment and unemployment data  in India, publishing annual reports since 2017-18. According to the PLFS annual  reports from 2018-19 to 2022-23: 
• The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in the Rural Sector increased by  2.9%, from 47.5% in 2018-19 to 50.4% in 2022-23. Meanwhile, the LFPR in  the Urban Sector increased by 9.3%, from 51.5% in 2018-19 to 60.8% in 2022- 23. Therefore the Urban Sector saw a higher increase in LFPR compared to  the Rural Sector. Hence, statement a is not correct. 
• The LFPR for females increased continuously over the last five years, from  24.5% in 2018-19 to 37.0% in 2022-23 as shown in the following table. Hence,  statement b is correct. 
• The Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for males increased from 71.0% in 2018-19 to  76.0% in 2022-23, a rise of 5 percentage points. For females, the WPR increased from  23.3% in 2018-19 to 35.9% in 2022-23, a rise of 12.6 percentage points, which is  more than double the increase for males. Hence, statement c is not correct. 

• The Unemployment Rate (UR) for females in the Urban Sector decreased from 7.6%  in 2018-19 to 5.4% in 2022-23, a reduction of 2.2 percentage points. In the Rural  Sector, the UR for females declined from 5.0% in 2018-19 to 2.4% in 2022-23, a  decrease of 2.6 percentage points. Additionally, the UR for females was consistently  lower in the Rural Sector compared to the Urban Sector over these years. Hence,  statement d is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Unemployment is when a person who’s actively seeking employment can’t find work.  There are several kinds of employment.  
• Frictional unemployment is the result of people voluntarily leaving their jobs. People  who’ve resigned from their jobs and graduates seeking their first jobs need time to  find employment, leaving them unemployed in the interim. Looking for a job, seeking  a replacement employee, and finding the right employee for a job take time, but  frictional unemployment isn’t necessarily bad. This type of unemployment usually is  short term, and it’s present even in a healthy economy as people leave their jobs to  seek new opportunities. Hence, Pair 1 is correct. 
• Fundamental changes in the economy and labor markets, such as evolving  technology, government policies, and competition, can create structural  unemployment. This means that while jobs are available, the people who could fill  those roles either don’t have the right skills for them or aren’t in the right location.  Examples would include job loss due to automation. Hence, Pair 2 is correct. 
• The term “cyclical unemployment” refers to the variation in the number of  unemployed workers during cycles of economic strength and weakness. When  demand for a product or service declines, production also goes down. This creates  less need for employers to hire people who are looking for jobs, causing the 

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unemployment rate to increase. During the early stages of the COVID-19 pandemic,  for example, people were confined to their homes, leading many businesses to shut  down. During this economic downturn, many employees of those businesses weren’t  needed and were left unemployed. The financial crisis of 2008 provides is an example  of cyclical unemployment. Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• Market structure, in economics, refers to how different industries are classified and  differentiated based on their degree and nature of competition for goods and services.  It is based on the characteristics that influence the behaviour and outcomes of  companies working in a specific market. 
• The four types of market structures:

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• Monopoly market: A single company represents the whole industry. It has no  competitor, and it is the sole seller of products in the entire market. Sole claim  to ownership of resources, patent and copyright, licences issued by the  government. Example: Indian Railways for interstate long route journey. Hence,  pair 1 is correctly matched. 
• Oligopoly market: Consists of a small number of large companies that sell  differentiated or identical products. Since there are few players in the market,  their competitive strategies are dependent on each other. Examples: Mass  Media, Big Tech, Automakers, Telecom, Entertainment and Airlines etc. Hence,  pair 2 is correctly matched. 
• Monopolistic competition: An imperfectly competitive market with the traits  of both the monopoly and competitive market. Few Sellers compete among  themselves and can differentiate their goods in terms of quality and branding  to look different. Example: Hotels, Clothing stores, alcohol brewers. Hence, pair  3 is correctly matched. 

Perfect competition: When there is a large number of small companies competing against  each other. They sell similar products (homogeneous), lack price influence over the  commodities, and are free to enter or exit the market. Example: Supermarkets. Hence, pair 4  is correctly matched

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The poverty line refers to the limit according to the government standards below  which one is classified as poor. In India, Tendulkar Committee has formulated a new  poverty line in (2004-2005). According to this, uniform poverty line basket for rural and  urban areas of each state has been defined. 
• Absolute poverty is when household income is below a certain level. This makes it  impossible for the person or family to meet basic needs of life including food, shelter,  safe drinking water, education, healthcare, etc. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. 
• Relative poverty is the condition in which people lack the minimum amount of income  needed in order to maintain the average standard of living in the society in which they  live. Relative poverty is defined relative to the members of a society and, therefore,  differs across countries. People are said to be impoverished if they cannot keep up  with the standard of living as determined by society. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect. 

• Relative poverty also changes over time. As the wealth of a society increases, so does  the amount of income and resources that society deems necessary for proper living  conditions. 

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Even though the terms economic development and economic growth sound similar,  there is a significant difference between the two. 
• Economic growth refers to an increase in the real output of goods and services in the  country. In other words, the increase should be in terms of increase of output of goods  and services, and not due to a mere increase in the market prices of existing goods. 
• Economic development implies changes in income, savings and investment along with  progressive changes in socioeconomic structure of country (institutional and  technological changes). Economic development is defined as a sustained improvement  in material well-being of society. Economic development is a wider concept than  economic growth. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. 
• Economic Growth relates to a gradual increase in one of the components of Gross  Domestic Product: consumption, government spending, investment, net exports.  Economic Development relates to growth of human capital, decrease in inequality  figures, and structural changes that improve the quality of life of the population.  Hence Statement 2 is correct. 

• Economic Growth is measured by quantitative factors such as increase in real GDP or  per capita income. The qualitative measures such as HDI (Human Development Index),  gender- related index, Human poverty index (HPI), infant mortality, literacy rate etc.  are used to measure economic development. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Capitalist Economy and Socialist Economy are two types of economic systems  prevailing in the world.  
• In a capitalist economy demand and supply forces determine the pricing of products  and services i.e. it is purely based on market forces. In the Socialist Economy pricing of  products and services is regulated and controlled by the government in a socialist economy. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 

• In a capitalist economy, income distribution is uneven while in a socialist economy,  income distribution is more or less equal in society. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect. Generally, the tax rates on masses in socialist economies are higher than tax rates in capitalist  economies. It is mainly because socialists believe that the government is responsible for  ensuring economic equality by introducing programs that benefit the poor such as free  education, and subsidized healthcare systems. In a capitalist economic system, the work of  managing resources is left to private enterprises, and the free market is allowed to dictate  product prices. Hence, Statement 3 is correct

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Public goods can be products or services that are available to everyone in a community.  They are often provided by the government and funded through taxes. Examples of  public goods include town roads, parks, etc. 
• Being non-excludable means that once a public good is provided, it is not feasible to  exclude individuals from enjoying its benefits, regardless of whether they have  contributed to its provision. Examples include public parks and national defense. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 
• Public goods are characterized by non-rivalry. This means that when one person enjoys  a public good, it doesn’t diminish the availability or enjoyment of that same good for  others. Examples include clean air, knowledge, etc. This non-rivalrous nature is a key  feature that distinguishes public goods from private goods. Private goods, like pizza,  become less available as people consume them. Public goods, on the other hand, can  be enjoyed by everyone simultaneously. Hence Statement 2 is correct. 

• The production of public goods certainly incurs an opportunity cost, as resources  utilized for their provision could have been used elsewhere. Opportunity cost  represents the cost of the next best alternative foregone. For public goods, this means  the resources (such as labour, capital, etc.) used to provide these goods are not  available for the production of other goods or services. Thus, the understanding that  public goods do not incur any opportunity cost overlooks this fundamental economic  principle. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b) 

Explanation :

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

A poverty trap is a mechanism that makes it very difficult for people to escape poverty. A  poverty trap is created when an economic system requires a significant amount of capital to  escape poverty. When individuals lack this capital, they may also find it difficult to acquire it,  creating a self-reinforcing cycle of poverty. A poverty trap is not merely the absence of  economic means. It is created due to a mix of factors, such as access to education and  healthcare, working together to keep an individual or family in poverty. (Hence option a is  correct)

Solution (d) 

Explanation 

Solution (a) 

Explanation 

Solution (a) 

Explanation 

Absolute poverty refers to when a person or household does not have the minimum amount  of income needed to meet the minimum living requirements needed over an extended  period of time. In other words, they cannot meet their basic needs. When an individual goes  below this threshold their survival is threatened. The UN defines this number as $1.90 per  day. This number is a representation of regions with extreme poverty such as Sub-Saharan  Africa. However, this number is subject to change from region to region. (Hence option b is  correct)

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Structural unemployment arises when the qualification of a person is not sufficient to meet  his job responsibilities. It arises due to long term change in the pattern of demand that  changes the basic structure of the economy. The person is not able to learn new  technologies used in the new expanding economic sectors and they thus may be rendered  permanently unemployed. (Hence option b is correct)

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Usual Principal Status Unemployment (UPS) is measured as the number of persons who  remained unemployed for a major part of the year. The persons covered by the survey may  be classified into those working and/ or available for work in their principal activity, and  those working and/or available for work in a subsidiary activity, that is, a sector other than  their principal activity. Hence, within the usual status concept, the estimates are now 

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derived on the usual principal status as well as the usual principal and subsidiary status  basis. The usual status unemployment rate is a person rate and indicates chronic  unemployment, because all those who are found usually unemployed in the reference year  are counted as unemployed. (Hence option a is correct)

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Unemployment rate is the percent of the labour force that is without work. It is calculated as  below: Unemployment rate = (Unemployed Workers/Total labour force) × 100. In India, the  most comprehensive and reliable data on employment and unemployment are compiled by  the National Sample Survey Organization (NSSO). (Hence option c is correct)

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: Astronomers at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) have found a new way to  probe deeper into the sun’s secrets by studying the magnetic field at different layers of the  solar atmosphere using data from IIA’s Kodaikanal Tower Tunnel Telescope. 

• The Kodaikanal Solar Observatory (KoSO) is owned and operated by the Indian  Institute of Astrophysics. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• Kodaikanal in the Palani hills of Tamil Nadu was picked for the observatory because  of its good atmospheric conditions, based on surveys by Charles Michie Smith (a  Professor of Physics at the Madras Christian College).  
• Lord Wenlock, the Governor of Madras at the time, laid the foundation stone for  KoSO in 1895. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

• The systematic observations at KoSO commenced on March 14, 1901. • Initially, KoSO had telescopes to study sunspots, prominences, and solar radiation.  Now, it has advanced instruments like the H-alpha telescope and the White Light  Active Region Monitor (WARM) for high solar imaging.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Union Government launched the AI-based National Pest Surveillance System  (NPSS) that will help farmers connect with agriculture scientists and experts on controlling  pests using their phones. 

• The National Pest Surveillance System (NPSS) is a digital initiative of the Ministry of  Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It promises to reshape pest management practices and empower farmers across  India. 
• Its goal is to reduce farmers’ reliance on pesticide retailers to foster a scientific  approach to pest control. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It comprises a user-friendly mobile app and a web portal, ensuring accessibility for all  farmers. 
• It utilizes Artificial Intelligence (AI) to analyze real-time data on pest infestations. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• By leveraging real-time data and advanced analytics, NPSS enables accurate pest  identification, monitoring, and management. 
• It provides quick solutions to pest attacks and crop diseases, reducing crop losses and  thus improving productivity. 
• It connects farmers with agricultural scientists to enhance pest control. Hence  statement 4 is correct. 

• Its comprehensive pest incidence data and automated advisories will empower  farmers with actionable insights, helping them make informed decisions.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: Fifty-seven casual employees of Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve,  India’s easternmost tiger reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, have been reinstated three months  after their services were terminated. 

• Namdapha National Park and Tiger Reserve (NNP&TR)lies close to the Indo Myanmar-China trijunction in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence  statement 1 is correct. 
• It is located between the Dapha Bum range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range. • It is the fourth-largest national park in India. 
• It is located in the Changlang District of Arunachal Pradesh, surrounded by  Myanmar on the Southeast. 
• It has a sub-tropical climate in which the mountainous part has a mountain type of  climate while the low-lying plains and valleys experience a tropical climate. • It is the only park in the world to have the four Feline species of big cat namely  the Tiger (Panthera Tigris), Leopard (Panthera Pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera  Uncia), and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis Nebulosa). Hence statement 2 is correct. • It has a mixture of evergreen forests, moist deciduous forests, sub tropical forests, temperate forests, and alpine. 
• Namdapha is the name of a river originating in the park and it meets the Noa-Dehing  River. 

• The Noa-Dehing, a tributary of the Brahmaputra River flows through the middle of  the National Park. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: Dengue, a familiar threat in India, imposes a tremendous burden on the economy,  estimated at around ₹28,300 crore in direct costs per year and 5.68 lakh years of young life  lost annually which makes it necessary for developing innovative vector control methods  with naturally occurring bacterium (Wolbachia) in fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster). 

• Wolbachia bacteria have the potential to emerge as a groundbreaking strategy for  vector-borne disease control. Hence statement I is correct. 
• The flies and mosquitos infected with Wolbachia bacteria are more resistant to RNA  viruses such as West Nile virus, Chikungunya virus, cricket paralysis virus, flock house  virus, and Norovirus. 
• Because it interferes with the reproduction process of mosquitos through a  phenomenon called cytoplasmic incompatibility. This incompatibility reduces the  number of viable offspring of the mosquitos. Thus, the result is a potential decline in  the mosquito population. Hence statement II is correct. 

• Hence, Both statements are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation of  Statement I

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Prime Minister paid homage to the revered philosopher, thinker, and spiritual  leader, Sri Aurobindo, on the occasion of his birth anniversary. 

• Sri Aurobindo’s major works include The Life Divine, The Ideal of Human Unity, Essays  on the Gita, Collected Poems and Plays, The Synthesis of Yoga, The Human Cycle,  Savitri: A Legend and a Symbol, and On the Veda. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• He was the first political leader in India to openly put forward, in his newspaper  Bande Mataram, the idea of complete independence for the country. 
• He was involved in the Alipore Conspiracy Case. It is an attempt to murder the  district judge of Muzaffarpur. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
• Alipore conspiracy case is referred to as the Murarupukur conspiracy or the  Maniktala bomb scheme. 
• In 1910, he left British India and found refuge in the French colony of Pondichéry  (now called ‘Puducherry’) in southeastern India. 
• He founded a community of spiritual seekers, which took shape as the Sri Aurobindo  Ashram in 1926. 
• He devoted himself for the rest of his life to the development of his “integral” yoga.  The main objective of his teachings was to increase the level of consciousness of  people and to aware people of their true selves. 
• He contributed articles to the Bengali weekly Yugantar. Hence statement 3 is  incorrect. 

• He used to write fearless articles for the English newspaper Bande Mataram. • He started the weekly English journal titled Dharma, in which he tried to convey the  message of Swaraj, or freedom from British rule.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: Hyderabad-based Ananth Technologies Pvt. Ltd. (ATL) announced that the EOS-8  satellite, successfully placed into orbit by the Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV), is the  100th satellite to which the firm has contributed parts. 

Here the question is asking for incorrect statements. 

• Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) is a 3-stage launch vehicle configured with three  Solid Propulsion Stages and a liquid propulsion-based Velocity Trimming Module  (VTM). Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• SSLV is 2m in diameter and 34m in length with a lift-off weight of around 120 tonnes. • It is used to launch small-sized satellites weighing between 10 to 500kg into the Low  Earth Orbit. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• SSLV is perfectly suited for launching multiple microsatellites at a time and supports  multiple orbital drop-offs. They are best suited for commercial and on-demand  launches. 

It is low cost with low turn-around time and can accommodate multiple satellites. Hence  statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) has declared mpox as a “public health  emergency of international concern” (PHEIC). 

• A “public health emergency of international concern” (PHEIC) is a formal declaration  by the WHO under the International Health Regulations (IHR), 2005. 
• It refers to an “extraordinary event” posing a public health risk through the  international spread of disease, potentially requiring a coordinated global response. • PHEIC represents the highest level of alert issued by WHO under IHR. • Since 2009, WHO has declared seven international public health emergencies,  including the H1N1 influenza pandemic, polio outbreak, Ebola outbreak (West  Africa), Zika epidemic, Ebola outbreak (Congo), COVID-19 and Mpox. 

Criteria to be declared as a “public health emergency of international concern” (PHEIC) by  the World Health Organization (WHO): 

• It poses a significant public health risk and affects more than one country. Hence  statement 1 is correct. 

• It requires immediate global coordination. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Union Agriculture Ministry has launched a digital geospatial platform, Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) which will share real-time data-driven insights on weather  patterns, soil conditions, crop health, crop acreage, and advisories with all stakeholders — such as farmers, experts, and policymakers. 

• The Krishi Decision Support System (DSS) is a geospatial platform developed  jointly by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare and the Department of  Space. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It captures minute details from the vast expanse of fields to the smallest soil particle. • The platform provides seamless access to comprehensive data including satellite  images, weather information, reservoir storage, groundwater levels, and soil health  information, which can be easily accessed from anywhere at any time. • It provides near real-time information about soil moisture, water storage, crop  conditions, dry spells, etc. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

• One nation-one soil information system of Krishi-DSS will give comprehensive soil  data with embedded information on soil type, soil pH (potential of hydrogen), soil  health, etc.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Context: The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration’s latest data shows that the  world has experienced its hottest July ever recorded. Some of the warming is due to El Nino  and there is a distinct possibility that September will be cooler if La Nina keeps its date. 

• El Nino is a climate pattern that describes the unusual warming of surface waters in  the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• El Nino causes intense droughts in regions such as Australia, Indonesia, India, and  southern Africa and heavy rainfall in places like California, Ecuador, and the Gulf of  Mexico and triggers convective storms and hurricanes in the central Pacific. 
• La Nina is a climate pattern characterized by the cooling of surface ocean  waters along the tropical west coast of South America, resulting in a cooler surface in  the eastern Pacific. 

• La Nina leads to drier conditions in the Southern U.S., heavy floods in Australia, and  good rainfall during the monsoon season. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: With no signs of a letup in threat to ships transiting the Red Sea, India’s petroleum  product exports to Europe have shifted entirely to the significantly longer and costlier, albeit  safer, route around Africa via the Cape of Good Hope. 

The Red Sea is bordered by six countries – Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, and  Djibouti. Hence option b is correct. 

Solution (b)  

Explanation: 

Statement (1) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Despite these mammoth law-making  bodies, they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national  level”. Also “A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre,  enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, the passage  mentions that it is not a decentralized system of recruitment and training, but a common  system of public recruiting and training agency at the national level that is needed for  competent and robust legislative institutions and their functioning. Hence, this answer option  is incorrect.  

Statement (2) is correct. It is given in the passage, “The growth of modern government and  expansion of governmental activities require a matching development and laborious  legislative exercise. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff 

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cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So it can be  implied that there is a need for all-India legislative services that will fulfill the mandate of  maximum governance from local bodies to Parliament level. These arguments are aptly  captured in this answer option.  

Statement (3) is incorrect. The passage is advocating for a common public recruiting and  training agency at the national level. It is also mentioned that a qualified and well-trained staff  will ensure a competent and robust legislative institution. But there is nothing mentioned  about ‘red-tapism’ and cumbersome processes‘. So, this statement is incorrect.  

Statement (4) is correct. The passage mentions “Despite these mammoth law-making bodies,  they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national level.  Ensuring competent and robust legislative institutions demands having qualified and well trained staff in place. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff  cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, it can be  implied that enhancing governmental activities necessitates strengthening the legislative  institutions by common public recruiting agencies. And from the phrase “to serve” it can be  inferred that they will ensure effective policy making. So, this statement is correct. 

Solution (a)  

Explanation: 

Organization O1:  

Number of members on January 1, 2018 = x,  

Number of members on February 1, 2018 = x + p,  

Number of members on March 1, 2018 = x + 2p and so on. 

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So, Number of members on July 1, 2018 = x + 6p  

[A.P. (arithmetic progression)],  

Number of members on July 15, 2018 = x + 6p = x + 6(10.5x) (Given, p = 10.5x) = 64x.  Organization O2:  

Number of members on January 1, 2018 = x,  

Number of members on February 1, 2018 = xq,  

Number of members on March 1, 2018 = xq2 

and so on. So, Number of members on July 1, 2018 = xq6  

[G.P. (geometric progression)],  

Number of members on July 15, 2018 = xq6.  

Now, 64x = xq6(Given)  

q6 = 64  

q6 = 26  

q = 2.

Solution (c)  

Explanation: 

x can be obtained by using the information provided in both S1 and S2.  Using S1, we get x= 4, or 12.  

Using S2, we get that x is a multiple of 2. 

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Using both S1 and S2, LCM × HCF = 1st number × 2nd number  

36 × 2 = x × 18  

or, x = 4.  

Hence, S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question.

Solution (b)  

Explanation: 

Let one’s digit = x 

Ten’s digit = 2x 

Number = 10(2x) + x = 21x 

After interchange the digit number = 12x  

Therefore, 21x – 12x = 27 

9x = 27 

x = 3 

one’s digit = 3 

Ten’s digit = 2 x 3 = 6 

Number = 10×6 + 3 = 63

Solution (c)  

Explanation: 

The number would be of the form 6 ____5 

The 5 missing digits have to be formed using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 9 without repetition. Thus, 8C5 x 5! = 6720