IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following features with respect to CubeSats:
- Standardized
- Relatively expensive
- Large size
How many of the above are features of CubeSats?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- CubeSats are a class of nanosatellites that follow a standardized modular design. They are small, lightweight, and cost-effective, making them accessible for academic, commercial, and government space missions.
- CubeSats are built based on standard dimensions and design specifications (e.g., 1U, 2U, 3U configurations), which simplifies their integration with launch vehicles and reduces development time and costs. Typically, they are built in units of 10x10x10 cm (referred to as “1U”) and can be combined into larger configurations like 2U, 3U, etc. (Statement 1 is correct)
- CubeSats are known for being relatively inexpensive compared to traditional satellites. Their small size and use of off-the-shelf components make them highly cost-effective. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
CubeSats are characterized by their small size, typically starting at 10x10x10 cm (1U). Even larger CubeSats (e.g., 3U or 6U) are much smaller than traditional satellites. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- CubeSats are a class of nanosatellites that follow a standardized modular design. They are small, lightweight, and cost-effective, making them accessible for academic, commercial, and government space missions.
- CubeSats are built based on standard dimensions and design specifications (e.g., 1U, 2U, 3U configurations), which simplifies their integration with launch vehicles and reduces development time and costs. Typically, they are built in units of 10x10x10 cm (referred to as “1U”) and can be combined into larger configurations like 2U, 3U, etc. (Statement 1 is correct)
- CubeSats are known for being relatively inexpensive compared to traditional satellites. Their small size and use of off-the-shelf components make them highly cost-effective. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
CubeSats are characterized by their small size, typically starting at 10x10x10 cm (1U). Even larger CubeSats (e.g., 3U or 6U) are much smaller than traditional satellites. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
With reference to Solar cycle, consider the following statements:
- It is the cycle that the Sun’s magnetic field goes through approximately every 11 years.
- It affects the sunspots on the surface of the Sun.
- It leads to switching of places between Sun’s north and south poles.
How many of the statements above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The solar cycle refers to the periodic changes in the Sun’s magnetic activity, solar radiation, and the number of sunspots over an average duration of 11 years. During the cycle, the Sun alternates between periods of high solar activity (solar maximum) and low activity (solar minimum).
- The solar cycle is primarily driven by the Sun’s magnetic field, which undergoes regular fluctuations. Approximately every 11 years, the Sun’s magnetic field completes a cycle, transitioning from a solar minimum (fewer sunspots) to a solar maximum (many sunspots) and back. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Sunspots are dark regions on the Sun’s surface caused by intense magnetic activity. The number of sunspots increases during the solar maximum and decreases during the solar minimum, directly correlating with the solar cycle. This observable phenomenon provides a clear measure of the cycle’s progression. (Statement 2 is correct)
- During each solar cycle, the Sun’s magnetic field reverses polarity, meaning the north and south magnetic poles switch places. This flip occurs during the solar maximum and resets for the next cycle, making it an integral feature of the solar cycle. (Statement 3 is correct)
- The solar cycle significantly impacts space weather, including solar flares and coronal mass ejections, which can influence Earth’s magnetosphere and satellite operations.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The solar cycle refers to the periodic changes in the Sun’s magnetic activity, solar radiation, and the number of sunspots over an average duration of 11 years. During the cycle, the Sun alternates between periods of high solar activity (solar maximum) and low activity (solar minimum).
- The solar cycle is primarily driven by the Sun’s magnetic field, which undergoes regular fluctuations. Approximately every 11 years, the Sun’s magnetic field completes a cycle, transitioning from a solar minimum (fewer sunspots) to a solar maximum (many sunspots) and back. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Sunspots are dark regions on the Sun’s surface caused by intense magnetic activity. The number of sunspots increases during the solar maximum and decreases during the solar minimum, directly correlating with the solar cycle. This observable phenomenon provides a clear measure of the cycle’s progression. (Statement 2 is correct)
- During each solar cycle, the Sun’s magnetic field reverses polarity, meaning the north and south magnetic poles switch places. This flip occurs during the solar maximum and resets for the next cycle, making it an integral feature of the solar cycle. (Statement 3 is correct)
- The solar cycle significantly impacts space weather, including solar flares and coronal mass ejections, which can influence Earth’s magnetosphere and satellite operations.
-
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Sometimes seen in news, what do you understand by the term ‘LignoSat’?
Correct
Explanation:
- While bamboo has been explored for its strength and renewability in certain engineering applications, there is no known bamboo-based satellite like LignoSat. Bamboo as a material has been used in other eco-friendly innovations, such as bicycles and construction, but it has not yet reached practical use in space systems.
- SpaceX focuses on reusable launch systems, such as the Falcon 9 and Starship rockets, but does not have a specific program like Lignosat.
- LignoSat, developed by Japanese researchers, is a wooden satellite made from magnolia wood, marking a pioneering step in using renewable and eco-friendly materials in space technology.
- It will test the material’s durability in the harsh space environment and aims to address the issue of space debris. When LignoSat re-enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it is expected to burn up completely without leaving harmful debris. (Option (c) is correct)
- ESA is actively researching green propulsion technologies, such as the use of water-based or hydrogen peroxide-based fuels, but this is unrelated to LignoSat. ESA’s green propulsion initiatives are part of its Clean Space program, aiming to reduce the environmental impact of space activities both in orbit and on Earth.
Incorrect
Explanation:
- While bamboo has been explored for its strength and renewability in certain engineering applications, there is no known bamboo-based satellite like LignoSat. Bamboo as a material has been used in other eco-friendly innovations, such as bicycles and construction, but it has not yet reached practical use in space systems.
- SpaceX focuses on reusable launch systems, such as the Falcon 9 and Starship rockets, but does not have a specific program like Lignosat.
- LignoSat, developed by Japanese researchers, is a wooden satellite made from magnolia wood, marking a pioneering step in using renewable and eco-friendly materials in space technology.
- It will test the material’s durability in the harsh space environment and aims to address the issue of space debris. When LignoSat re-enters the Earth’s atmosphere, it is expected to burn up completely without leaving harmful debris. (Option (c) is correct)
- ESA is actively researching green propulsion technologies, such as the use of water-based or hydrogen peroxide-based fuels, but this is unrelated to LignoSat. ESA’s green propulsion initiatives are part of its Clean Space program, aiming to reduce the environmental impact of space activities both in orbit and on Earth.
-
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Frequently seen in news, the terms ‘Callisto’, ‘Europa’ and ‘Ganymede’ are associated with which of the following?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While the James Webb Space Telescope is making groundbreaking discoveries of exoplanets and their atmospheres, Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are not exoplanets but moons within our Solar System.
- Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are three of the four largest moons of Jupiter, collectively known as the Galilean moons, discovered by Galileo Galilei in 1610. These moons have been the focus of recent scientific missions due to their potential for supporting life and their unique geological features:
- Europa: Believed to have a subsurface ocean, making it a prime candidate for extraterrestrial life.
- Ganymede: The largest moon in the Solar System, with its own magnetic field.
- Callisto: Known for its heavily cratered surface, suggesting it is geologically inactive. (Option (b) is correct)
- The Kuiper Belt is a region beyond Neptune containing icy bodies and dwarf planets like Pluto. Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are unrelated to the Kuiper Belt, as they are Jovian moons within the Solar System.
- Saturn has many moons, including Titan and Enceladus, which are also of Astrobiological interest.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While the James Webb Space Telescope is making groundbreaking discoveries of exoplanets and their atmospheres, Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are not exoplanets but moons within our Solar System.
- Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are three of the four largest moons of Jupiter, collectively known as the Galilean moons, discovered by Galileo Galilei in 1610. These moons have been the focus of recent scientific missions due to their potential for supporting life and their unique geological features:
- Europa: Believed to have a subsurface ocean, making it a prime candidate for extraterrestrial life.
- Ganymede: The largest moon in the Solar System, with its own magnetic field.
- Callisto: Known for its heavily cratered surface, suggesting it is geologically inactive. (Option (b) is correct)
- The Kuiper Belt is a region beyond Neptune containing icy bodies and dwarf planets like Pluto. Callisto, Europa, and Ganymede are unrelated to the Kuiper Belt, as they are Jovian moons within the Solar System.
- Saturn has many moons, including Titan and Enceladus, which are also of Astrobiological interest.
-
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Satellite Technology Day (STD) is celebrated annually in India on 19th of April.
- STD commemorates the birth anniversary of the former ISRO Chairman Dr. Udupi Ramachandra Rao.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Satellite Technology Day is observed annually on April 19 in India to commemorate the launch of Aryabhata, India’s first satellite, which was launched on this day in 1975. (Statement 1 is correct)
- While Dr. U.R. Rao is one of the most celebrated figures in India’s space history, credited with pioneering the development of satellite technology in India, Satellite Technology Day does not commemorate his birth anniversary. Dr. Rao’s contributions are often remembered in the context of satellites like INSAT and GSAT series, but the day itself is tied to Aryabhata’s launch. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- Aryabhata was a landmark achievement in India’s space history, marking the beginning of India’s foray into space technology. The day is significant for recognizing the progress made by ISRO and the role of satellite technology in national development.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Satellite Technology Day is observed annually on April 19 in India to commemorate the launch of Aryabhata, India’s first satellite, which was launched on this day in 1975. (Statement 1 is correct)
- While Dr. U.R. Rao is one of the most celebrated figures in India’s space history, credited with pioneering the development of satellite technology in India, Satellite Technology Day does not commemorate his birth anniversary. Dr. Rao’s contributions are often remembered in the context of satellites like INSAT and GSAT series, but the day itself is tied to Aryabhata’s launch. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- Aryabhata was a landmark achievement in India’s space history, marking the beginning of India’s foray into space technology. The day is significant for recognizing the progress made by ISRO and the role of satellite technology in national development.
-
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Planets are shaped into spheres because gravity acts uniformly in all directions.
Statement-II: The rotation of planets causes makes them into an oblate spheroid shape.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Gravity is the key force responsible for shaping planets into spheres. It pulls matter toward the center uniformly, resulting in a spherical structure when the celestial body is large enough for gravity to overcome other forces like electromagnetic forces or rigidity of the material. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Rotation introduces centrifugal forces, which counteract gravity at the equator. This results in an oblate spheroid shape rather than a perfect sphere. For example, Jupiter and Saturn, which rotate rapidly, exhibit noticeable equatorial bulges. (Statement 2 is correct)
- Statement-II provides additional information about the effect of rotation but does not explain why gravity shapes planets into spheres. Instead, it complements Statement-I by describing how rotational forces modify the ideal spherical shape.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Gravity is the key force responsible for shaping planets into spheres. It pulls matter toward the center uniformly, resulting in a spherical structure when the celestial body is large enough for gravity to overcome other forces like electromagnetic forces or rigidity of the material. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Rotation introduces centrifugal forces, which counteract gravity at the equator. This results in an oblate spheroid shape rather than a perfect sphere. For example, Jupiter and Saturn, which rotate rapidly, exhibit noticeable equatorial bulges. (Statement 2 is correct)
- Statement-II provides additional information about the effect of rotation but does not explain why gravity shapes planets into spheres. Instead, it complements Statement-I by describing how rotational forces modify the ideal spherical shape.
-
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following regions:
- Eistla Regio region
- Niobe Planitia
- Hellas Planitia
Which of the above region/s is/are located on the planet Venus?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Eistla Regio is a volcanic highland region on Venus. It is characterized by numerous volcanic features, including large shield volcanoes and extensive lava flows. Eistla Regio highlights Venus’ intense volcanic activity, one of the key features of the planet’s geology. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Niobe Planitia is a vast lowland plain on Venus, primarily composed of volcanic and tectonic features. Like other plains on Venus, Niobe Planitia provides evidence of resurfacing events caused by extensive lava flows. (Statement 2 is correct)
Hellas Planitia is a massive impact basin on Mars, one of the largest in the Solar System. It was formed by a large asteroid impact and is characterized by its enormous size and significant depth, with surface features influenced by wind and seasonal frost. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Eistla Regio is a volcanic highland region on Venus. It is characterized by numerous volcanic features, including large shield volcanoes and extensive lava flows. Eistla Regio highlights Venus’ intense volcanic activity, one of the key features of the planet’s geology. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Niobe Planitia is a vast lowland plain on Venus, primarily composed of volcanic and tectonic features. Like other plains on Venus, Niobe Planitia provides evidence of resurfacing events caused by extensive lava flows. (Statement 2 is correct)
Hellas Planitia is a massive impact basin on Mars, one of the largest in the Solar System. It was formed by a large asteroid impact and is characterized by its enormous size and significant depth, with surface features influenced by wind and seasonal frost. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Developed by ISRO, PraVaHa is a software tool specifically designed to:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- PraVaHa, developed by ISRO, is a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software specifically designed for the aero-thermodynamic analysis of aerospace vehicles. This includes launch vehicles, re-entry vehicles (winged and non-winged), and other spacecraft. Features:
- Simulates airflow around aerospace vehicles to understand aerodynamic forces and heat effects.
- Helps design optimal shapes, structures, and Thermal Protection Systems (TPS) for these vehicles. (Option (a) is correct)
- Monitoring satellite trajectories, particularly for geostationary orbits, involves tools like the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking, and Command Network (ISTRAC), not PraVaHa.
- Real-time communication simulation is handled by software and systems designed for telemetry and satellite communication, such as those integrated into the GSAT series.
- The effects of solar radiation on satellite components, such as thermal loading or degradation of materials, are studied using separate simulation software like thermal analysis tools.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- PraVaHa, developed by ISRO, is a Computational Fluid Dynamics (CFD) software specifically designed for the aero-thermodynamic analysis of aerospace vehicles. This includes launch vehicles, re-entry vehicles (winged and non-winged), and other spacecraft. Features:
- Simulates airflow around aerospace vehicles to understand aerodynamic forces and heat effects.
- Helps design optimal shapes, structures, and Thermal Protection Systems (TPS) for these vehicles. (Option (a) is correct)
- Monitoring satellite trajectories, particularly for geostationary orbits, involves tools like the ISRO Telemetry, Tracking, and Command Network (ISTRAC), not PraVaHa.
- Real-time communication simulation is handled by software and systems designed for telemetry and satellite communication, such as those integrated into the GSAT series.
- The effects of solar radiation on satellite components, such as thermal loading or degradation of materials, are studied using separate simulation software like thermal analysis tools.
-
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the ISRO’s Reusable Launch Vehicle:
- It can be used multiple times for space missions.
- It is a winged vehicle that will take off like a rocket.
- It requires a short runway of 500 metre to land.
- It is a single stage rocket with extensive boost.
How many of the statements above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) is designed to be used multiple times, similar to the SpaceX Falcon rockets or NASA’s Space Shuttle. This reduces the cost of space missions by reusing the vehicle for multiple launches, which is a key step toward sustainable and economical space exploration.
- ISRO’s RLV is a winged vehicle designed to take off vertically like a rocket and re-enter the atmosphere at high speeds, using its aerodynamic structure for controlled descent. This hybrid approach combines the vertical launch of rockets with the horizontal landing capability of aircraft. (Option (b) is correct)
- The RLV requires a longer runway for landing. For example, the experimental landing tests are conducted on runways exceeding 2 km in length. A short runway of 500 metres is insufficient for a safe landing at the high speeds involved during re-entry.
- The RLV is not a single-stage vehicle but a test platform for reusable technologies that can be incorporated into multi-stage launch vehicles. Single-stage-to-orbit (SSTO) technology is still a goal for future developments but is not implemented in ISRO’s current RLV program.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLV) is designed to be used multiple times, similar to the SpaceX Falcon rockets or NASA’s Space Shuttle. This reduces the cost of space missions by reusing the vehicle for multiple launches, which is a key step toward sustainable and economical space exploration.
- ISRO’s RLV is a winged vehicle designed to take off vertically like a rocket and re-enter the atmosphere at high speeds, using its aerodynamic structure for controlled descent. This hybrid approach combines the vertical launch of rockets with the horizontal landing capability of aircraft. (Option (b) is correct)
- The RLV requires a longer runway for landing. For example, the experimental landing tests are conducted on runways exceeding 2 km in length. A short runway of 500 metres is insufficient for a safe landing at the high speeds involved during re-entry.
- The RLV is not a single-stage vehicle but a test platform for reusable technologies that can be incorporated into multi-stage launch vehicles. Single-stage-to-orbit (SSTO) technology is still a goal for future developments but is not implemented in ISRO’s current RLV program.
-
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Which one of the following is not one of the categories of communication satellites?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Satellites in Geostationary Earth Orbit are positioned about 35,786 km above Earth’s equator. They orbit at the same speed as the Earth’s rotation, making them appear stationary relative to a specific point on Earth. This is ideal for communication satellites like weather monitoring, broadcasting, and telecommunications (e.g., GSAT satellites by ISRO).
- Satellites in Medium Earth Orbit operate at altitudes between 2,000 km and 35,786 km. These orbits are commonly used for navigation systems like GPS (Global Positioning System), GLONASS, and Galileo, as well as some communication applications.
- Satellites in Low Earth Orbit operate at altitudes between 160 km and 2,000 km. They are commonly used for Earth observation, remote sensing, and satellite internet constellations like Starlink and OneWeb. Communication satellites in LEO provide low-latency services and are suitable for high-speed internet.
Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies (e.g., Earth and the Sun) balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller object. While spacecraft like solar observatories (ISRO’s Aditya-L1 at L1) are positioned at these points, they are not used for communication purposes. (Option (d) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Satellites in Geostationary Earth Orbit are positioned about 35,786 km above Earth’s equator. They orbit at the same speed as the Earth’s rotation, making them appear stationary relative to a specific point on Earth. This is ideal for communication satellites like weather monitoring, broadcasting, and telecommunications (e.g., GSAT satellites by ISRO).
- Satellites in Medium Earth Orbit operate at altitudes between 2,000 km and 35,786 km. These orbits are commonly used for navigation systems like GPS (Global Positioning System), GLONASS, and Galileo, as well as some communication applications.
- Satellites in Low Earth Orbit operate at altitudes between 160 km and 2,000 km. They are commonly used for Earth observation, remote sensing, and satellite internet constellations like Starlink and OneWeb. Communication satellites in LEO provide low-latency services and are suitable for high-speed internet.
Lagrange points are positions in space where the gravitational forces of two large bodies (e.g., Earth and the Sun) balance the centrifugal force felt by a smaller object. While spacecraft like solar observatories (ISRO’s Aditya-L1 at L1) are positioned at these points, they are not used for communication purposes. (Option (d) is correct)
-
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following:
- Panspermia Hypothesis
- Miller-Urey Experiment
- Oparin-Haldane Hypothesis
Which of the theories given above is/are considered to be various theories of life’s origin?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The Panspermia Hypothesis suggests that life originated elsewhere in the universe and was transported to Earth via meteoroids, comets, or interstellar dust. It proposes that the building blocks of life or even microorganisms might have survived the harsh conditions of space and seeded life on Earth.
- Conducted in 1953 by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey, this experiment simulated the early Earth’s atmospheric conditions. By passing electric sparks (to simulate lightning) through a mixture of gases (methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapor), they produced amino acids, the building blocks of proteins. This experiment provided experimental evidence for chemical evolution as a precursor to biological life.
- Proposed independently by Aleksandr Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane, this hypothesis posits that life originated through a series of chemical reactions in Earth’s early atmosphere, which was rich in methane, ammonia, and water vapor. These reactions, powered by energy sources like UV radiation and lightning, led to the formation of simple organic compounds, which eventually evolved into complex molecules and life forms. (Option (d) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The Panspermia Hypothesis suggests that life originated elsewhere in the universe and was transported to Earth via meteoroids, comets, or interstellar dust. It proposes that the building blocks of life or even microorganisms might have survived the harsh conditions of space and seeded life on Earth.
- Conducted in 1953 by Stanley Miller and Harold Urey, this experiment simulated the early Earth’s atmospheric conditions. By passing electric sparks (to simulate lightning) through a mixture of gases (methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water vapor), they produced amino acids, the building blocks of proteins. This experiment provided experimental evidence for chemical evolution as a precursor to biological life.
- Proposed independently by Aleksandr Oparin and J.B.S. Haldane, this hypothesis posits that life originated through a series of chemical reactions in Earth’s early atmosphere, which was rich in methane, ammonia, and water vapor. These reactions, powered by energy sources like UV radiation and lightning, led to the formation of simple organic compounds, which eventually evolved into complex molecules and life forms. (Option (d) is correct)
-
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
In context of space science, what do you understand by the term ‘Dyson spheres’?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Dark matter halos are theoretical constructs to explain the observed rotational speeds of galaxies, which cannot be accounted for by visible matter alone.
- The concept of Dyson Spheres was proposed by physicist and mathematician Freeman Dyson in 1960. These are hypothetical structures that a highly advanced civilization could construct around a star to capture and utilize its entire energy output. Variations include a solid shell (impractical due to stability issues) or a swarm of solar-collecting satellites orbiting the star.
- These structures are often considered in the context of the Kardashev Scale, which classifies civilizations based on their energy usage. A Dyson Sphere would be indicative of a Type II civilization capable of harnessing the full energy of its star. (Option (b) is correct)
- Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon predicted by Einstein’s theory of general relativity. It occurs when light from a distant object, like a star or galaxy, bends due to the gravitational influence of a massive body (e.g., a black hole or galaxy cluster) between the source and the observer.
Hot Jupiters are exoplanets that orbit very close to their parent stars and have extremely high temperatures. Their atmospheres often emit more infrared radiation than visible light due to thermal heating.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Dark matter halos are theoretical constructs to explain the observed rotational speeds of galaxies, which cannot be accounted for by visible matter alone.
- The concept of Dyson Spheres was proposed by physicist and mathematician Freeman Dyson in 1960. These are hypothetical structures that a highly advanced civilization could construct around a star to capture and utilize its entire energy output. Variations include a solid shell (impractical due to stability issues) or a swarm of solar-collecting satellites orbiting the star.
- These structures are often considered in the context of the Kardashev Scale, which classifies civilizations based on their energy usage. A Dyson Sphere would be indicative of a Type II civilization capable of harnessing the full energy of its star. (Option (b) is correct)
- Gravitational lensing is a phenomenon predicted by Einstein’s theory of general relativity. It occurs when light from a distant object, like a star or galaxy, bends due to the gravitational influence of a massive body (e.g., a black hole or galaxy cluster) between the source and the observer.
Hot Jupiters are exoplanets that orbit very close to their parent stars and have extremely high temperatures. Their atmospheres often emit more infrared radiation than visible light due to thermal heating.
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Mars:
- Its surface looks red because iron minerals oxidise in the Martian atmosphere.
- It has six small moons.
- Hope Mars Mission is a mars mission by Isreal.
How many of the statements above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Mars is known as the “Red Planet” because of the reddish hue of its surface, which is due to iron-rich minerals that oxidize (rust) when exposed to trace amounts of oxygen in the Martian atmosphere or from ancient interactions with water. This gives the soil its characteristic red color. (Option (a) is correct)
- Mars has only two moons, Phobos and Deimos, both of which are small and irregularly shaped. These moons are thought to be captured asteroids from the nearby asteroid belt.
- The Hope Mars Mission is the United Arab Emirates (UAE)’s first interplanetary mission, not Israel’s. Launched in 2020, the mission focuses on studying the Martian atmosphere, weather patterns, and climate dynamics. Israel does not have a Mars mission to date.
- Other notable missions include NASA’s Perseverance Rover, China’s Tianwen-1, and India’s Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission).
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Mars is known as the “Red Planet” because of the reddish hue of its surface, which is due to iron-rich minerals that oxidize (rust) when exposed to trace amounts of oxygen in the Martian atmosphere or from ancient interactions with water. This gives the soil its characteristic red color. (Option (a) is correct)
- Mars has only two moons, Phobos and Deimos, both of which are small and irregularly shaped. These moons are thought to be captured asteroids from the nearby asteroid belt.
- The Hope Mars Mission is the United Arab Emirates (UAE)’s first interplanetary mission, not Israel’s. Launched in 2020, the mission focuses on studying the Martian atmosphere, weather patterns, and climate dynamics. Israel does not have a Mars mission to date.
- Other notable missions include NASA’s Perseverance Rover, China’s Tianwen-1, and India’s Mangalyaan (Mars Orbiter Mission).
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Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With respect to Neutrinos, identify the incorrect statement from the following:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Neutrinos are fundamental subatomic particles with no electric charge and an extremely small mass. They belong to the family of leptons and interact only via the weak nuclear force and gravity, making them neutral and elusive.
- Neutrinos interact very weakly with matter, which makes them extremely difficult to detect. They can pass through vast amounts of matter (e.g., the entire Earth) without any interaction. This is because they interact only via the weak nuclear force and gravity, unlike charged particles that also interact electromagnetically. (Option (b) is correct)
- Due to their weak interaction with matter, neutrinos can travel vast distances without being absorbed or scattered, carrying valuable information about their sources. For example, neutrinos from the Sun, supernovae, or distant galaxies provide insights into astrophysical processes.
- Neutrinos exist in three types or flavors: electron-neutrino, muon-neutrino, and tau-neutrino, corresponding to the three charged leptons (electron, muon, and tau). These neutrino flavors can oscillate, or change type, as they travel, a phenomenon that provided the first evidence of neutrino mass.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Neutrinos are fundamental subatomic particles with no electric charge and an extremely small mass. They belong to the family of leptons and interact only via the weak nuclear force and gravity, making them neutral and elusive.
- Neutrinos interact very weakly with matter, which makes them extremely difficult to detect. They can pass through vast amounts of matter (e.g., the entire Earth) without any interaction. This is because they interact only via the weak nuclear force and gravity, unlike charged particles that also interact electromagnetically. (Option (b) is correct)
- Due to their weak interaction with matter, neutrinos can travel vast distances without being absorbed or scattered, carrying valuable information about their sources. For example, neutrinos from the Sun, supernovae, or distant galaxies provide insights into astrophysical processes.
- Neutrinos exist in three types or flavors: electron-neutrino, muon-neutrino, and tau-neutrino, corresponding to the three charged leptons (electron, muon, and tau). These neutrino flavors can oscillate, or change type, as they travel, a phenomenon that provided the first evidence of neutrino mass.
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Question 15 of 35
15. Question
In context of new space missions, the Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) Probe is by which of the following organisations?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- While NASA has significant missions related to Jupiter, such as the Juno spacecraft, the JUICE mission is not led by NASA. However, NASA provides collaboration and support for JUICE, including scientific instruments.
- JAXA is not the primary organization for the JUICE mission. Japan has its own space exploration programs, including asteroid missions like Hayabusa and plans for lunar and Martian exploration.
- CNSA is not involved in the JUICE mission. China’s space exploration efforts are currently focused on the Moon (e.g., Chang’e program) and Mars (e.g., Tianwen-1 mission). While CNSA is expanding its scope, it does not lead the JUICE project.
The Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) mission is led by the European Space Agency (ESA). Scheduled for launch in 2023, it is designed to study Jupiter’s three largest icy moons: Ganymede, Europa, and Callisto, which are believed to harbor subsurface oceans. JUICE will investigate their habitability and their interaction with Jupiter’s magnetosphere. (Option (d) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- While NASA has significant missions related to Jupiter, such as the Juno spacecraft, the JUICE mission is not led by NASA. However, NASA provides collaboration and support for JUICE, including scientific instruments.
- JAXA is not the primary organization for the JUICE mission. Japan has its own space exploration programs, including asteroid missions like Hayabusa and plans for lunar and Martian exploration.
- CNSA is not involved in the JUICE mission. China’s space exploration efforts are currently focused on the Moon (e.g., Chang’e program) and Mars (e.g., Tianwen-1 mission). While CNSA is expanding its scope, it does not lead the JUICE project.
The Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (JUICE) mission is led by the European Space Agency (ESA). Scheduled for launch in 2023, it is designed to study Jupiter’s three largest icy moons: Ganymede, Europa, and Callisto, which are believed to harbor subsurface oceans. JUICE will investigate their habitability and their interaction with Jupiter’s magnetosphere. (Option (d) is correct)
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Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM):
- It is a small-scale lunar lander designed for precise landings.
- It is an initiative of Japan’s space agency, JAXA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) is a small lunar lander developed to demonstrate precision landing technologies. Unlike traditional landers, SLIM focuses on landing within 100 meters of a targeted location, a significant improvement in accuracy. This capability is critical for future lunar exploration missions, particularly for landing in rugged or scientifically important regions.
SLIM is a mission of Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Japan aims to strengthen its position in lunar exploration with this mission, leveraging innovative technologies for precise landings. JAXA’s initiatives often emphasize technological demonstrations that pave the way for international collaborations and future missions. (Option (c) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Smart Lander for Investigating Moon (SLIM) is a small lunar lander developed to demonstrate precision landing technologies. Unlike traditional landers, SLIM focuses on landing within 100 meters of a targeted location, a significant improvement in accuracy. This capability is critical for future lunar exploration missions, particularly for landing in rugged or scientifically important regions.
SLIM is a mission of Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA). Japan aims to strengthen its position in lunar exploration with this mission, leveraging innovative technologies for precise landings. JAXA’s initiatives often emphasize technological demonstrations that pave the way for international collaborations and future missions. (Option (c) is correct)
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Question 17 of 35
17. Question
With reference to the RHUMI-1, consider the following features:
- Hybrid Propulsion System
- Adjustable Launch Angle
- Electrically Triggered Parachute System
Which of the statement above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The RHUMI-1 rocket uses a hybrid propulsion system, which integrates both solid and liquid propellants. This system is more efficient than traditional rocket engines and reduces operational costs. The hybrid design also allows for better control over thrust and combustion, making it a versatile choice for reusable rockets.
- RHUMI-1 features an adjustable launch angle mechanism, allowing the rocket’s trajectory to be precisely controlled. The engine supports angle adjustments from 0 to 120 degrees, making it suitable for a range of mission objectives. This capability enhances the rocket’s flexibility and adaptability for various research purposes.
The rocket incorporates an electrically triggered parachute system, ensuring safe recovery of rocket components after the mission. This eco-friendly mechanism eliminates the use of pyrotechnics or explosives, making it a sustainable solution for reusable rockets. (Option (d) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The RHUMI-1 rocket uses a hybrid propulsion system, which integrates both solid and liquid propellants. This system is more efficient than traditional rocket engines and reduces operational costs. The hybrid design also allows for better control over thrust and combustion, making it a versatile choice for reusable rockets.
- RHUMI-1 features an adjustable launch angle mechanism, allowing the rocket’s trajectory to be precisely controlled. The engine supports angle adjustments from 0 to 120 degrees, making it suitable for a range of mission objectives. This capability enhances the rocket’s flexibility and adaptability for various research purposes.
The rocket incorporates an electrically triggered parachute system, ensuring safe recovery of rocket components after the mission. This eco-friendly mechanism eliminates the use of pyrotechnics or explosives, making it a sustainable solution for reusable rockets. (Option (d) is correct)
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Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Helium is the lightest element in the periodic table.
- Helium is a stable, non-reactive noble gas.
- It has a very high boiling point.
How many of the statements above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Helium is not the lightest element; hydrogen holds this distinction. Hydrogen, with an atomic number of 1, is the simplest and lightest element, while helium, with an atomic number of 2, is the second lightest.
- Helium is a noble gas and is extremely stable due to its full valence electron shell (two electrons in the outer shell). It does not form compounds under normal conditions, making it inert and non-reactive. Helium’s stability is why it is used in applications requiring non-reactive environments, such as in cryogenics or as a lifting gas in balloons. (Option (a) is correct)
- Helium has one of the lowest boiling points of all elements, at approximately -268.9°C (4.2 K). This is due to its weak intermolecular forces and small atomic size, making it ideal for use in cryogenics and as a coolant for superconducting magnets in applications like MRI machines.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Helium is not the lightest element; hydrogen holds this distinction. Hydrogen, with an atomic number of 1, is the simplest and lightest element, while helium, with an atomic number of 2, is the second lightest.
- Helium is a noble gas and is extremely stable due to its full valence electron shell (two electrons in the outer shell). It does not form compounds under normal conditions, making it inert and non-reactive. Helium’s stability is why it is used in applications requiring non-reactive environments, such as in cryogenics or as a lifting gas in balloons. (Option (a) is correct)
- Helium has one of the lowest boiling points of all elements, at approximately -268.9°C (4.2 K). This is due to its weak intermolecular forces and small atomic size, making it ideal for use in cryogenics and as a coolant for superconducting magnets in applications like MRI machines.
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Question 19 of 35
19. Question
In context of defence technologies, what do you understand by ‘CALM System’?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While autonomous underwater vehicles (AUVs) are used in anti-submarine warfare to detect enemy submarines and map the ocean floor, the CALM System is not related to underwater or anti-submarine operations
- A CALM (Canister Launched Loiter Munition) System typically comes in a sealed, ready-to-use canister, making it quickly deployable. Once launched, the munition can be guided to its target, combining the surveillance capabilities of a drone with the offensive power of a missile. Loiter munitions are essentially “kamikaze drones” that can hover over an area for an extended period and strike when a suitable target is located. (Option (b) is correct)
- Laser-based defence systems exist to neutralize incoming projectiles (for example, the HEL (High Energy Laser) systems), but the CALM System described is not a directed-energy weapon nor does it utilize lasers to intercept incoming fire. Landmine detection and clearing technology often involves mapping techniques, ground-penetrating radar, or robotic systems to ensure safe clearance
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While autonomous underwater vehicles (AUVs) are used in anti-submarine warfare to detect enemy submarines and map the ocean floor, the CALM System is not related to underwater or anti-submarine operations
- A CALM (Canister Launched Loiter Munition) System typically comes in a sealed, ready-to-use canister, making it quickly deployable. Once launched, the munition can be guided to its target, combining the surveillance capabilities of a drone with the offensive power of a missile. Loiter munitions are essentially “kamikaze drones” that can hover over an area for an extended period and strike when a suitable target is located. (Option (b) is correct)
- Laser-based defence systems exist to neutralize incoming projectiles (for example, the HEL (High Energy Laser) systems), but the CALM System described is not a directed-energy weapon nor does it utilize lasers to intercept incoming fire. Landmine detection and clearing technology often involves mapping techniques, ground-penetrating radar, or robotic systems to ensure safe clearance
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Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO):
- It was launched in August 2020.
- It provides a flexible and accessible interface for academia and industry with Indian Navy.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO) was formally launched by the Indian Navy in August 2020. The NIIO was established to drive the Navy’s efforts toward self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) in defence manufacturing and to foster an ecosystem that nurtures innovation.
One of the key objectives of NIIO is to streamline the Indian Navy’s interaction with industry and academia, including startups and MSMEs. By doing so, it seeks to accelerate the process of idea generation, prototyping, and product development. This approach encourages joint research, technology development, and capability enhancement in a transparent and user-friendly manner. (Option (c) is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The Naval Innovation and Indigenisation Organisation (NIIO) was formally launched by the Indian Navy in August 2020. The NIIO was established to drive the Navy’s efforts toward self-reliance (Aatmanirbhar Bharat) in defence manufacturing and to foster an ecosystem that nurtures innovation.
One of the key objectives of NIIO is to streamline the Indian Navy’s interaction with industry and academia, including startups and MSMEs. By doing so, it seeks to accelerate the process of idea generation, prototyping, and product development. This approach encourages joint research, technology development, and capability enhancement in a transparent and user-friendly manner. (Option (c) is correct)
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Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Enemy Property:
- Enemy property are the immovable and moveable assets that were left behind by people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China after leaving India during the partition Only.
- They include bank accounts, shares, gold, and other assets of such individuals along with real estate.
- It is vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority created under the Enemy Property Act of 1968.
- Assam has the highest number of enemy properties, followed by West Bengal.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Enemy Property is those immovable and moveable assets that were left behind by people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China after leaving India during the partition and also post the 1962 and 1965 wars. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.
- It may include bank accounts, shares, gold, and other assets of such individuals along with real estate. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- As per CEPI, there are 13,252 enemy properties in India, valued at over Rs1 lakh crore.
- It is vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority
created under the Enemy Property Act of 1968. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- The 2017 amendment to the Act (Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017) stated that the successors of those who migrated to Pakistan and China ceased to have a claim over the properties left behind in India.
Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of enemy properties, followed by West Bengal. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Enemy Property is those immovable and moveable assets that were left behind by people who took citizenship of Pakistan and China after leaving India during the partition and also post the 1962 and 1965 wars. Hence, Statement 1 is Incorrect.
- It may include bank accounts, shares, gold, and other assets of such individuals along with real estate. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- As per CEPI, there are 13,252 enemy properties in India, valued at over Rs1 lakh crore.
- It is vested with the Custodian of Enemy Property for India (CEPI), an authority
created under the Enemy Property Act of 1968. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- The 2017 amendment to the Act (Enemy Property (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2017) stated that the successors of those who migrated to Pakistan and China ceased to have a claim over the properties left behind in India.
Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of enemy properties, followed by West Bengal. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to QUAD:
- It is an informal diplomatic partnership between Australia, India, Japan, and the United States.
- Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) was the initiative announced at the Quad Leaders’ Summit in Tokyo in 2022.
Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Here the question is asking to choose incorrect statements.
- QUAD is an informal diplomatic partnership between Australia, India, Japan, and the United States. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- It is committed to supporting an open, stable, and prosperous Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient.
- It was first proposed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007, it became a formal group in 2017 after overcoming initial setbacks, including Australia’s withdrawal due to Chinese pressure.
- Finally in 2017, India, Australia, the US, and Japan, came together and formed this quadrilateral coalition.
- Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) was the initiative announced at the Quad Leaders’ Summit in Tokyo in 2022. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- It focuses on integrating the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region (IOR) in the Indo-Pacific.
- Its primary aim is to track dark shipping vessels that turn off their Automatic Identification System (AIS) to avoid detection.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Here the question is asking to choose incorrect statements.
- QUAD is an informal diplomatic partnership between Australia, India, Japan, and the United States. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- It is committed to supporting an open, stable, and prosperous Indo-Pacific that is inclusive and resilient.
- It was first proposed by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007, it became a formal group in 2017 after overcoming initial setbacks, including Australia’s withdrawal due to Chinese pressure.
- Finally in 2017, India, Australia, the US, and Japan, came together and formed this quadrilateral coalition.
- Indo-Pacific Partnership for Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA) was the initiative announced at the Quad Leaders’ Summit in Tokyo in 2022. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- It focuses on integrating the Pacific Islands, Southeast Asia, and the Indian Ocean region (IOR) in the Indo-Pacific.
- Its primary aim is to track dark shipping vessels that turn off their Automatic Identification System (AIS) to avoid detection.
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Question 23 of 35
23. Question
He was born on 26th December 1899, in Sunam, Punjab. His anti-colonial stance was due to his exposure to Sikhism and revolutionary activities, including the Komagata Maru incident and the Ghadar Party’s uprising. He was deeply affected by the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in 1919 and vowed to avenge the massacre by killing Michael O’Dwyer, the then Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, who had ordered the massacre. He joined the Ghadar Party in 1924 to overthrow colonial rule. He was arrested for illegal possession of firearms in 1927 and was sentenced to five years in prison. He assassinated Michael O’Dwyer during a meeting at Caxton Hall in London in 1940. He was tried and sentenced to death and was hanged, in Pentonville Prison, London. As a tribute to him, a district in Uttarakhand was named after him in 1995.
The above paragraph describes which of the following personality?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Sardar Udham Singh was born on 26th December 1899, in Sunam, Punjab. His anti-colonial stance was due to his exposure to Sikhism and revolutionary activities, including the Komagata Maru incident and the Ghadar Party’s uprising. He was deeply affected by the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in 1919 and vowed to avenge the massacre by killing Michael O’Dwyer, the then Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, who had ordered the massacre. He joined the Ghadar Party in 1924 to overthrow colonial rule. He was arrested for illegal possession of firearms in 1927 and was sentenced to five years in prison. He assassinated Michael O’Dwyer during a meeting at Caxton Hall in London in 1940. He was tried and sentenced to death and was hanged, in Pentonville Prison, London. As a tribute to him, a district in Uttarakhand was named after him in 1995. Hence, option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Sardar Udham Singh was born on 26th December 1899, in Sunam, Punjab. His anti-colonial stance was due to his exposure to Sikhism and revolutionary activities, including the Komagata Maru incident and the Ghadar Party’s uprising. He was deeply affected by the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, in 1919 and vowed to avenge the massacre by killing Michael O’Dwyer, the then Lieutenant Governor of Punjab, who had ordered the massacre. He joined the Ghadar Party in 1924 to overthrow colonial rule. He was arrested for illegal possession of firearms in 1927 and was sentenced to five years in prison. He assassinated Michael O’Dwyer during a meeting at Caxton Hall in London in 1940. He was tried and sentenced to death and was hanged, in Pentonville Prison, London. As a tribute to him, a district in Uttarakhand was named after him in 1995. Hence, option b is correct.
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Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the National Culture Fund:
- It was set up as a trust under the Charitable Endowment Act of 1890.
- It aims to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships (PPP) towards promoting, protecting, and preserving India’s tangible and intangible cultural heritage.
- It is managed and administered through a Governing Council chaired by the Minister of Culture.
- It can receive donations from corporates, PSUs, trusts, and individuals for the maintenance and preservation of centrally protected monuments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The National Culture Fund was set up as a trust under the Charitable Endowment Act of 1890. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- Its objective is to administer and apply the fund for the conservation, maintenance, promotion, protection, preservation, and upgrade of monuments protected or otherwise and to impart training and facilitate the development of a cadre of specialists and cultural administrators.
- It aims to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships (PPP) towards promoting, protecting, and preserving India’s tangible and intangible cultural heritage. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- NCF’s activities are covered under Schedule VII No. (v) of the Companies Act, 2013 as a valid receptacle of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) contribution under the protection of national heritage, art, and culture including restoration of buildings and sites of historical importance and works of art; setting up public libraries; promotion and development of traditional arts and handicrafts.”
- It is managed and administered through a Governing Council chaired by the Minister of Culture. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- An Executive Committee headed by the Secretary (Culture) and has a maximum strength of 11 Members, to execute those policies.
- Donations to the National Culture Fund are eligible for 100% tax benefit under Section 80G (ii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- It can receive donations from corporates, PSUs, trusts, and individuals for the maintenance and preservation of centrally protected monuments. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
- All donors/sponsors have the responsibility to comply with the terms & conditions of the MoU agreed for any particular project.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The National Culture Fund was set up as a trust under the Charitable Endowment Act of 1890. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- Its objective is to administer and apply the fund for the conservation, maintenance, promotion, protection, preservation, and upgrade of monuments protected or otherwise and to impart training and facilitate the development of a cadre of specialists and cultural administrators.
- It aims to mobilize extra resources through Public Private Partnerships (PPP) towards promoting, protecting, and preserving India’s tangible and intangible cultural heritage. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- NCF’s activities are covered under Schedule VII No. (v) of the Companies Act, 2013 as a valid receptacle of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) contribution under the protection of national heritage, art, and culture including restoration of buildings and sites of historical importance and works of art; setting up public libraries; promotion and development of traditional arts and handicrafts.”
- It is managed and administered through a Governing Council chaired by the Minister of Culture. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- An Executive Committee headed by the Secretary (Culture) and has a maximum strength of 11 Members, to execute those policies.
- Donations to the National Culture Fund are eligible for 100% tax benefit under Section 80G (ii) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
- It can receive donations from corporates, PSUs, trusts, and individuals for the maintenance and preservation of centrally protected monuments. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
- All donors/sponsors have the responsibility to comply with the terms & conditions of the MoU agreed for any particular project.
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Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS):
- It is a Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) based navigation system.
- It provides only Inertial Navigation data for the navigation requirements.
- It is spoof-proof with high levels of encryption.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) is a Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) based navigation system. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- It is used for traversing a path defined by the coordinates of a military map in ESM format.
- It provides Inertial, GPS, and Hybrid Navigation data for the navigation requirements. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
- ALNS Mk-II is compatible with the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System, NAVigation using Indian Constellation (IRNSS, NavlC), India in addition to the Global Positioning System (GPS) and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS).
- The ALNS Mk-II offers compatibility with Defence Series Maps resulting in very high accuracy in navigational applications for AFVs.
- It is spoof-proof with high levels of encryption. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
It will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Chennai under the Buy [lndian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured (lDDM)] category.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Advanced Land Navigation System (ALNS) is a Ring Laser Gyro (RLG) based navigation system. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- It is used for traversing a path defined by the coordinates of a military map in ESM format.
- It provides Inertial, GPS, and Hybrid Navigation data for the navigation requirements. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
- ALNS Mk-II is compatible with the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System, NAVigation using Indian Constellation (IRNSS, NavlC), India in addition to the Global Positioning System (GPS) and Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS).
- The ALNS Mk-II offers compatibility with Defence Series Maps resulting in very high accuracy in navigational applications for AFVs.
- It is spoof-proof with high levels of encryption. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
It will be procured from Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Chennai under the Buy [lndian-Indigenously Designed Developed and Manufactured (lDDM)] category.
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Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Oropouche Fever:
- It is a zoonotic bacterial disease caused by Bordetella pertussis.
- It is spread to humans through the bite of an infected midge or mosquito.
- There are no vaccines or specific treatments for Oropouche fever.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Oropouche Fever is a zoonotic arboviral disease caused by the Oropouche Virus (OROV). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It was first discovered in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955.
- Symptoms of the disease are similar to dengue and typically start between four and eight days after the bite.
- The onset is sudden, and symptoms usually include fever, headaches, pain, chills, joint stiffness, and sometimes nausea and vomiting.
- It is spread to humans through the bite of an infected midge or mosquito. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Factors such as urbanization, deforestation, and climate change contribute to the proliferation of its vector, escalating the risk of transmission.
- There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission of the disease — to date.
- There are no vaccines or specific treatments for Oropouche fever. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- Medical care aims to control the symptoms and help with recovery.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Oropouche Fever is a zoonotic arboviral disease caused by the Oropouche Virus (OROV). Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It was first discovered in Trinidad and Tobago in 1955.
- Symptoms of the disease are similar to dengue and typically start between four and eight days after the bite.
- The onset is sudden, and symptoms usually include fever, headaches, pain, chills, joint stiffness, and sometimes nausea and vomiting.
- It is spread to humans through the bite of an infected midge or mosquito. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Factors such as urbanization, deforestation, and climate change contribute to the proliferation of its vector, escalating the risk of transmission.
- There is no evidence of human-to-human transmission of the disease — to date.
- There are no vaccines or specific treatments for Oropouche fever. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- Medical care aims to control the symptoms and help with recovery.
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Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the International Labour Organization (ILO):
- It was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I.
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world.
- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency, that brings together governments, employers, and workers’ representatives
- It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The International Labour Organization (ILO) was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- In 1946, the ILO became a specialized agency of the newly formed UN.
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands.
- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency, that brings together governments, employers, and workers’ representatives. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP), a coalition of UN organizations aimed at helping meet the Sustainable Development Goals.
It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The International Labour Organization (ILO) was created in 1919, as part of the Treaty of Versailles that ended World War I. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- In 1946, the ILO became a specialized agency of the newly formed UN.
- It is a specialized agency of the United Nations (UN) dedicated to improving labour conditions and living standards throughout the world. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The ILO has 187 member states: 186 out of 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands.
- It is the only tripartite U.N. agency, that brings together governments, employers, and workers’ representatives. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- It is also a member of the United Nations Development Group (UNDP), a coalition of UN organizations aimed at helping meet the Sustainable Development Goals.
It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1969. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
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Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
- It is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement.
- It was formed in the year 2001 post-Kargil War.
- Its chairman is the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS).
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- The main objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces in terms of capabilities sought and time frame prescribed by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
- It was formed after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Its functions include giving in-principal approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
- Its chairman is the Minister of Defence, Government of India. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body of the Defence Ministry on procurement. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- The main objective of the DAC is to ensure expeditious procurement of the approved requirements of the armed forces in terms of capabilities sought and time frame prescribed by optimally utilizing the allocated budgetary resources.
- It was formed after the Group of Ministers’ recommendations on ‘Reforming the National Security System’, in 2001, post-Kargil War (1999). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Its functions include giving in-principal approval of a 15-year Long Term Integrated Perspective Plan (LTIPP) for defence forces.
- Its chairman is the Minister of Defence, Government of India. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
- Its members include the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and chiefs of the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
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Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Mekedatu Project:
- It is a multi-purpose project proposed by Tamil Nadu.
- It is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Mekedatu Project is a multi-purpose project proposed by Karnataka, which involves building a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district, Karnataka. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is about 90 km away from Bengaluru and 4 km ahead of the border with Tamil Nadu.
- The plan involves building a 99-metre-high, 735-metre-long concrete gravity dam, an underground powerhouse, and a water conductor system.
- The expected capacity of the dam is 66,000 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of water
- Once completed, it is expected to supply over 4 TMC of water to Bengaluru city for drinking purposes.
- The estimated cost of completing the project is around Rs 14,000 crores, covering an area of over 5,000 hectares.
It is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Mekedatu Project is a multi-purpose project proposed by Karnataka, which involves building a balancing reservoir near Kanakapura in Ramanagara district, Karnataka. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is about 90 km away from Bengaluru and 4 km ahead of the border with Tamil Nadu.
- The plan involves building a 99-metre-high, 735-metre-long concrete gravity dam, an underground powerhouse, and a water conductor system.
- The expected capacity of the dam is 66,000 TMC (thousand million cubic feet) of water
- Once completed, it is expected to supply over 4 TMC of water to Bengaluru city for drinking purposes.
- The estimated cost of completing the project is around Rs 14,000 crores, covering an area of over 5,000 hectares.
It is proposed at the confluence of the Cauvery River with its tributary Arkavathi. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 30 of 35
30. Question
JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer) mission is aimed to explore Jupiter and three of its biggest moons – Europa, Call is to, and Ganymede. It is to be launched by which of the following space agency?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer) mission is aimed at exploring Jupiter and three of its biggest moons – Europa, Call is to, and Ganymede. It is to be launched by the European Space Agency (ESA). aims to explore the possibilities of life in space and the origins of Jupiter. It will monitor Jupiter’s complex magnetic, radiation, and plasma environment in depth and its interplay with the moons. It has been fuelled with mono-methyl hydrazine (MMH) fuel and mixed oxides of nitrogen (MON) oxidizer, which ignites when the two come in contact. Juice will use this propellant to make critical course manoeuvres on its journey. It will be packed with 10 instruments and will characterize Jupiter’s ocean-bearing icy moons. It will be launched onboard the Ariane-5 rocket, a workhorse for the European Space Agency. Hence, option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
JUICE (Jupiter Icy Moon Explorer) mission is aimed at exploring Jupiter and three of its biggest moons – Europa, Call is to, and Ganymede. It is to be launched by the European Space Agency (ESA). aims to explore the possibilities of life in space and the origins of Jupiter. It will monitor Jupiter’s complex magnetic, radiation, and plasma environment in depth and its interplay with the moons. It has been fuelled with mono-methyl hydrazine (MMH) fuel and mixed oxides of nitrogen (MON) oxidizer, which ignites when the two come in contact. Juice will use this propellant to make critical course manoeuvres on its journey. It will be packed with 10 instruments and will characterize Jupiter’s ocean-bearing icy moons. It will be launched onboard the Ariane-5 rocket, a workhorse for the European Space Agency. Hence, option c is correct.
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Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Passage – 3
The last 30 years of liberalisation have changed the face of the Indian economy. From unending shortages and subpar quality in telephones, scooters, cars, ration and pretty much everything, India has come a long way because of liberalisation. The time is now ripe for the education sector to be liberalized as well. The success of democracy in India depends upon the education of its citizens. Modern education is to an extent a process of learning from real life and the pulsating, dynamic society around us. So, the learning should be at the choice and pace of the learner. So, educational opportunities are to be provided to individuals to fully develop their personalities. Truly speaking despite all attempts in the direction of equality of opportunity, the result is not satisfactory. Hence to accelerate in the progress of providing it, incentive measures are to be properly implemented and the administrative structure must be properly streamlined with a strong will and determination.
Q.31) Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
- The theoretical education that happens inside the four walls of classrooms cannot be called modern education.
The present education system in India has failed to a certain extent to provide egalitarian education.
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Note: This question is about invalid assumptions.
Assumption 1 is incorrect: Refer to the lines – “Modern education is to an extent a process of learning from real life and the pulsating, dynamic society around us”. These lines only state that modern education is learnt from real life and dynamic society to a certain degree. So, we cannot conclusively say that classroom based theoretical education is not modern. So, the given assumption cannot be called valid.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is correct as it is based on the following lines from the passage “Truly speaking despite all attempts in the direction of equality of opportunity, the result is not satisfactory.” This line clearly means that despite all attempts, education has not been able to become truly egalitarian. So, this assumption is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Note: This question is about invalid assumptions.
Assumption 1 is incorrect: Refer to the lines – “Modern education is to an extent a process of learning from real life and the pulsating, dynamic society around us”. These lines only state that modern education is learnt from real life and dynamic society to a certain degree. So, we cannot conclusively say that classroom based theoretical education is not modern. So, the given assumption cannot be called valid.
Assumption 2 is correct: The given assumption is correct as it is based on the following lines from the passage “Truly speaking despite all attempts in the direction of equality of opportunity, the result is not satisfactory.” This line clearly means that despite all attempts, education has not been able to become truly egalitarian. So, this assumption is correct.
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Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Let x be a positive integer, such that 11x + 135 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
11x + 135 is divisible by x. It means that 135 is divisible by x, or x is a factor of 135.
Now, 135 = 33 × 5
So, x can be 1, 3, 9, 27, 5, 15, 45 and 135. So, a total of 8 possible values. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
11x + 135 is divisible by x. It means that 135 is divisible by x, or x is a factor of 135.
Now, 135 = 33 × 5
So, x can be 1, 3, 9, 27, 5, 15, 45 and 135. So, a total of 8 possible values. Hence, option (b) is correct.
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Question 33 of 35
33. Question
A certain three-digit number has the following characteristics:
- The hundreds digit leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 4.
- The tens digit is even.
- The number is divisible by 3 as well as 5.
How many such three-digit numbers are there?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
We will predict the required number/s by going through each statement:
As the hundreds digit of the three digit number leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 4. Hence, the hundreds digit of that number can either be 2 or 6.
To be divisible by 5, the units digit should be either 0 or 5. Thus the possible numbers should be of the form:
2_0, 2_5, 6_0 or 6_5
Now, the tens digit of the number is even. So, the tens digit can be: 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. However, we have to keep in mind that the number is divisible by 3, i.e. the sum of all its three digits must be divisible by 3.
The possible three digit numbers that satisfy all the three conditions are: 240, 225, 285, 600, 660 and 645.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
We will predict the required number/s by going through each statement:
As the hundreds digit of the three digit number leaves a remainder 2 when divided by 4. Hence, the hundreds digit of that number can either be 2 or 6.
To be divisible by 5, the units digit should be either 0 or 5. Thus the possible numbers should be of the form:
2_0, 2_5, 6_0 or 6_5
Now, the tens digit of the number is even. So, the tens digit can be: 0, 2, 4, 6, 8. However, we have to keep in mind that the number is divisible by 3, i.e. the sum of all its three digits must be divisible by 3.
The possible three digit numbers that satisfy all the three conditions are: 240, 225, 285, 600, 660 and 645.
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Question 34 of 35
34. Question
In how many different ways can five friends sit for a photograph of five chairs in a row?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
To find the number of ways to seat 5 people in a row of 5 chairs, we can use the concept of permutations. The number of permutations of nn distinct objects is given by n!n! (n factorial).
For 5 people, the calculation is:
5!=5×4×3×2×1=1205!=5×4×3×2×1=120
Therefore, there are 120 ways to seat 5 people in a row of 5 chairs.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
To find the number of ways to seat 5 people in a row of 5 chairs, we can use the concept of permutations. The number of permutations of nn distinct objects is given by n!n! (n factorial).
For 5 people, the calculation is:
5!=5×4×3×2×1=1205!=5×4×3×2×1=120
Therefore, there are 120 ways to seat 5 people in a row of 5 chairs.
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Groups each containing 3 boys are to be formed out of 5 boys A,B,C,D and E such that no one group contains both C and D together. What is the maximum number of such different groups?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Without any condition, 3 boys out of 5 can be chosen in 5C3 = 5 x 4 /1 x 2 = 10 ways. This includes those selections containing both C and D.
Now the selections containing C and D are A,C,D; B,C,D and E,C,D.
Therefore 10–3 = 7 selections do not contain both C and D.
Hence the required number of ways = 7.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Without any condition, 3 boys out of 5 can be chosen in 5C3 = 5 x 4 /1 x 2 = 10 ways. This includes those selections containing both C and D.
Now the selections containing C and D are A,C,D; B,C,D and E,C,D.
Therefore 10–3 = 7 selections do not contain both C and D.
Hence the required number of ways = 7.
All the Best
IASbaba