IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025.
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Question 1 of 36
1. Question
In which of the following areas, quantum technologies can be used?
- Secure communication
- Disaster management
- Healthcare
- Cryptography
Select the answer using code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Quantum Technology is based on the principles of Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century to describe nature at the scale of atoms and elementary particles. It finds its application in various areas such as secure communication, disaster management through better prediction, computing, simulation, chemistry, healthcare, cryptography, etc. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Quantum Technology is based on the principles of Quantum mechanics developed in the early 20th century to describe nature at the scale of atoms and elementary particles. It finds its application in various areas such as secure communication, disaster management through better prediction, computing, simulation, chemistry, healthcare, cryptography, etc. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
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Question 2 of 36
2. Question
With respect to Li-Fi technology, consider the following statements:
- It is a bidirectional wireless system that uses visible light for communication.
- It transmits data with the help of Light Emitting Diode (LED).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Li-Fi (Light Fidelity) Technology is a bidirectional wireless system that uses visible light (400-800 Terahertz) for communication. It was first unveiled in 2011 and, unlike wifi, which uses radio frequency, LiFi technology only needs a light source with a chip to transmit an internet signal through light waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It transmits data with the help of Light Emitting Diode (LED). The On/off activity of the LED transmitter enables data transmission in accordance with the incoming binary codes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Li-Fi (Light Fidelity) Technology is a bidirectional wireless system that uses visible light (400-800 Terahertz) for communication. It was first unveiled in 2011 and, unlike wifi, which uses radio frequency, LiFi technology only needs a light source with a chip to transmit an internet signal through light waves. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
It transmits data with the help of Light Emitting Diode (LED). The On/off activity of the LED transmitter enables data transmission in accordance with the incoming binary codes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 3 of 36
3. Question
With respect to National Quantum Mission, consider the following statements:
- The National Quantum Mission is implemented by Ministry of Science & Technology.
- India is only the fourth country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the USA, Russia and China.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- The National Quantum Mission, planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- The National Quantum Mission, planned for 2023-2031 aims to seed, nurture, and scale up scientific and industrial R&D and create a vibrant & innovative ecosystem in Quantum Technology (QT). It is implemented by the Department of Science & Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science & Technology. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India is the seventh country to have a dedicated quantum mission after the US, Austria, Finland, France, Canada and China. It will target developing intermediate scale quantum computers with 50-100 physical qubits in 5 years and 50-1000 physical qubits in 8 years. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Question 4 of 36
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Intellectual Property Rights are outlined in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
- The importance of intellectual property was first recognized in the Budapest treaty.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Intellectual Property Rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary or artistic productions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The importance of intellectual property was first recognized in the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883) and the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886). Both treaties are administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). The Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent Procedure was signed much later in 1977. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Intellectual Property Rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary or artistic productions. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The importance of intellectual property was first recognized in the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883) and the Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886). Both treaties are administered by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). The Budapest Treaty on the International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent Procedure was signed much later in 1977. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.
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Question 5 of 36
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy was adopted in 1991 in India.
- Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP) acts as the nodal department to oversee the implementation of IPRs in India.
- India’s IPR regime is in compliance with the WTO’s agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 was adopted in May 2016 as a vision document to guide future development of IPRs in the country. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, has been appointed as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs in India. The ‘Cell for IPR Promotion & Management (CIPAM)’, setup under the aegis of DIPP, is to be the single point of reference for implementation of the objectives of the National IPR Policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India is a member of the World Trade Organisation and committed to the Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property (TRIPS Agreement). And India’s IPR regime is in compliance with the WTO’s agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 was adopted in May 2016 as a vision document to guide future development of IPRs in the country. It encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter-linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce, Government of India, has been appointed as the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs in India. The ‘Cell for IPR Promotion & Management (CIPAM)’, setup under the aegis of DIPP, is to be the single point of reference for implementation of the objectives of the National IPR Policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
India is a member of the World Trade Organisation and committed to the Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property (TRIPS Agreement). And India’s IPR regime is in compliance with the WTO’s agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 6 of 36
6. Question
Consider the following description:
- It is a secret network.
- It consists of a series of websites hidden from the general public.
- It is not accessible through traditional search engines such as google.
The above features best describe which of the following?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The dark web refers to encrypted online content and allows individuals to hide their identity and location from others. Dark web content is not indexed by conventional search engines. To access the dark web, users must install a private browser, like the TOR Browser, use a Virtual Private Network (VPN), and ensure their computer remains safe and secure. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The dark web refers to encrypted online content and allows individuals to hide their identity and location from others. Dark web content is not indexed by conventional search engines. To access the dark web, users must install a private browser, like the TOR Browser, use a Virtual Private Network (VPN), and ensure their computer remains safe and secure. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
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Question 7 of 36
7. Question
With respect to 5G technology, consider the following statements:
- The ‘G’ in 5G stands for ‘generation.’
- The peak rate of 5G is up to 100 Gbps.
- It is completely immune from cyberthreats and hacking.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- The ‘G’ in 5G stands for ‘generation.’ 5G is the fifth and newest generation of cellular network technology and it allows more devices to use the network than ever before. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The speed of 4G is up to 100Mbps, while the speed of 5G is up to 10Gbps (not 100 Gbps). The biggest difference between 4G and 5G is latency. 5G can offer low latency under 5 milliseconds, while 4G latency ranges from 60 ms to 98 ms. Lower latency brings advancements in other areas, such as faster download speeds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
5G networks, like any new technology is vulnerable to security threats such as hacking and cyberattacks. Further, concerns about personal privacy may also arise as a result of the increased use of data and connected devices enabled by 5G technology. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- The ‘G’ in 5G stands for ‘generation.’ 5G is the fifth and newest generation of cellular network technology and it allows more devices to use the network than ever before. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- The speed of 4G is up to 100Mbps, while the speed of 5G is up to 10Gbps (not 100 Gbps). The biggest difference between 4G and 5G is latency. 5G can offer low latency under 5 milliseconds, while 4G latency ranges from 60 ms to 98 ms. Lower latency brings advancements in other areas, such as faster download speeds. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
5G networks, like any new technology is vulnerable to security threats such as hacking and cyberattacks. Further, concerns about personal privacy may also arise as a result of the increased use of data and connected devices enabled by 5G technology. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 8 of 36
8. Question
With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
- VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
- VLC is known as long – range optical wireless communication.
- VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
- VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution(b)
Explanation:
Visible light communication (VLC) is a data communications variant which uses visible light between 400 and 800 THz (375–780 nm). VLC is a subset of optical wireless communications technologies. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The light can transmit information either directly or reflected from a surface. It can do so while dimmed. However, light cannot penetrate obstacles such as walls. Thus, for wireless communication purposes VLC cannot be used for long distances. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Bluetooth transmits data at the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per second), while VLC can transmit data in the range between mbps -gbps (megabytes per second to gigabytes per second). Hence Statement 3 is correct.
VLC has the characteristic to resist electromagnetic interference. So, it does not cause Electromagnetic interference. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Explanation:
Visible light communication (VLC) is a data communications variant which uses visible light between 400 and 800 THz (375–780 nm). VLC is a subset of optical wireless communications technologies. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
The light can transmit information either directly or reflected from a surface. It can do so while dimmed. However, light cannot penetrate obstacles such as walls. Thus, for wireless communication purposes VLC cannot be used for long distances. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
Bluetooth transmits data at the rate of 300kbps (kilobytes per second), while VLC can transmit data in the range between mbps -gbps (megabytes per second to gigabytes per second). Hence Statement 3 is correct.
VLC has the characteristic to resist electromagnetic interference. So, it does not cause Electromagnetic interference. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
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Question 9 of 36
9. Question
With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:
- It is a public ledger that everyone we inspect, but which no single user controls.
- The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it is about crypto currency only.
- Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution(d)
Explanation
A blockchain is a decentralised, distributed, and oftentimes public, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks that is used to record transactions across many computers so that any involved block cannot be altered retroactively, without the alteration of all subsequent blocks. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Blockchain technology can be used in property exchanges, bank transactions, healthcare, smart contracts, supply chain, and even in voting for a candidate. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
The great advantage to an open, permissionless, or public, blockchain network is that guarding against bad actors is not required and no access control is needed. Hence Statement 3 is correct
Incorrect
Solution(d)
Explanation
A blockchain is a decentralised, distributed, and oftentimes public, digital ledger consisting of records called blocks that is used to record transactions across many computers so that any involved block cannot be altered retroactively, without the alteration of all subsequent blocks. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Blockchain technology can be used in property exchanges, bank transactions, healthcare, smart contracts, supply chain, and even in voting for a candidate. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
The great advantage to an open, permissionless, or public, blockchain network is that guarding against bad actors is not required and no access control is needed. Hence Statement 3 is correct
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Question 10 of 36
10. Question
With reference to communications technologies, what is/ are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
- LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
- LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution(d)
Explanation
Long term Evolution (LTE) is commonly marketed as 4G LTE. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
VoLTE is an Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specification which enables a variety of services to operate seamlessly on the network rather than having to switch to different applications for voice or video. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution(d)
Explanation
Long term Evolution (LTE) is commonly marketed as 4G LTE. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
VoLTE is an Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specification which enables a variety of services to operate seamlessly on the network rather than having to switch to different applications for voice or video. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
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Question 11 of 36
11. Question
With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
- It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
LiFi is a Visible Light Communications system transmitting wireless internet communications at very high speeds. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
LiFi transmission speeds can go over 100 Gbps, 14 times faster than WiGig, also known as the world’s fastest WiFi. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
LiFi is a Visible Light Communications system transmitting wireless internet communications at very high speeds. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
LiFi transmission speeds can go over 100 Gbps, 14 times faster than WiGig, also known as the world’s fastest WiFi. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 12 of 36
12. Question
With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
- NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a metre from each other.
- NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
NFC technology is perfectly designed to exchange data between two devices through a simple touch gesture. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
NFC technology is designed for an operation distance of a few Centimetre, this makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication between an NFC Forum Device and an NFC Forum Tag compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The security level of the NFC communication is by default higher compared to other wireless communication protocols. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
NFC technology is perfectly designed to exchange data between two devices through a simple touch gesture. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
NFC technology is designed for an operation distance of a few Centimetre, this makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication between an NFC Forum Device and an NFC Forum Tag compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
The security level of the NFC communication is by default higher compared to other wireless communication protocols. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 13 of 36
13. Question
In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?
- Iris scanning.
- Retinal scanning.
- Voice recognition.
Select the correct answer using the code given below;
Correct
Solution:(d)
Explanation:
-
- In computer science Biometrics identification is used as a form of identification and access control. Biometric identifiers are the distinct, measurable characteristics used to label individuals.
- Behavioural Indicators: Physiological characteristics are distinguished from behavioural traits when classifying biometric identifiers. Fingerprint, palm veins, face recognition, DNA, palm print, hand geometry, iris recognition, retina, and odour/scent are examples of physiological biometric identifiers. Gait, voice, and typing rhythm are behavioural indicators.
- Iris scanning: It is a form of biometric technology which uses visible and near-infrared light to take a high-contrast photograph of a person’s iris. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Retinal scanning: It maps the unique patterns of a person’s retina. The blood vessels within the retina absorb light more readily than the surrounding tissue and thus easily identify with appropriate lighting. It is highly accurate and difficult to spoof, in terms of identification. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Voice recognition: It is a computer software program which can decode the human voice. It is used to operate a device or perform commands. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution:(d)
Explanation:
-
- In computer science Biometrics identification is used as a form of identification and access control. Biometric identifiers are the distinct, measurable characteristics used to label individuals.
- Behavioural Indicators: Physiological characteristics are distinguished from behavioural traits when classifying biometric identifiers. Fingerprint, palm veins, face recognition, DNA, palm print, hand geometry, iris recognition, retina, and odour/scent are examples of physiological biometric identifiers. Gait, voice, and typing rhythm are behavioural indicators.
- Iris scanning: It is a form of biometric technology which uses visible and near-infrared light to take a high-contrast photograph of a person’s iris. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Retinal scanning: It maps the unique patterns of a person’s retina. The blood vessels within the retina absorb light more readily than the surrounding tissue and thus easily identify with appropriate lighting. It is highly accurate and difficult to spoof, in terms of identification. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Voice recognition: It is a computer software program which can decode the human voice. It is used to operate a device or perform commands. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 14 of 36
14. Question
What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Bluetooth WiFi It is a wireless technology that is used for exchanging data between mobile devices over short distance using radio waves. It is a wireless networking technology that uses radio waves to provide wireless high-speed internet and network connections. Requires Bluetooth adaptors. Requires wireless adaptor and router. Frequency 2.4 Ghz Frequency 2.4 – 5 Ghz Consumes low power. Consumes high power. Are less secure. Are more secure. No need for devices to be in line of sight; they just need to be with in Bluetooth’s range. No need for devices to be in line of sight; they just need to be with in range of WiFi. Coverage 10 meters. Coverage 32 meters. Needs low bandwidth. Needs high bandwidth. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Bluetooth WiFi It is a wireless technology that is used for exchanging data between mobile devices over short distance using radio waves. It is a wireless networking technology that uses radio waves to provide wireless high-speed internet and network connections. Requires Bluetooth adaptors. Requires wireless adaptor and router. Frequency 2.4 Ghz Frequency 2.4 – 5 Ghz Consumes low power. Consumes high power. Are less secure. Are more secure. No need for devices to be in line of sight; they just need to be with in Bluetooth’s range. No need for devices to be in line of sight; they just need to be with in range of WiFi. Coverage 10 meters. Coverage 32 meters. Needs low bandwidth. Needs high bandwidth. -
Question 15 of 36
15. Question
What is a “Virtual Private Network”?
Correct
Solution: option (b)
Explanation:
- VPN: An encrypted connection between a device and a network via the Internet is known as a virtual private network, or VPN. Secure transmission of sensitive data is aided by the encrypted connection. It makes it impossible for unauthorised parties to eavesdrop on the traffic and enables remote work for the user.
- By creating secure connections over the Internet, a VPN expands a company network. Traffic stays private while travelling because it is encrypted between the device and the network. Even smartphones and tablets can connect through a VPN. Hence correct answer is option (b).
Incorrect
Solution: option (b)
Explanation:
- VPN: An encrypted connection between a device and a network via the Internet is known as a virtual private network, or VPN. Secure transmission of sensitive data is aided by the encrypted connection. It makes it impossible for unauthorised parties to eavesdrop on the traffic and enables remote work for the user.
- By creating secure connections over the Internet, a VPN expands a company network. Traffic stays private while travelling because it is encrypted between the device and the network. Even smartphones and tablets can connect through a VPN. Hence correct answer is option (b).
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Question 16 of 36
16. Question
Which of the following services does not come under category of cloud computing?
Correct
Solution: Option (d)
Explanation
Cloud Computing is primarily broadly categorized as:
- Infrastructure-as-a-Service.
- Platform-as-a-Service.
- Software-as-a-Service.
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage and networking resources on demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.
Software as a service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which a cloud provider hosts applications and makes them available to end users over the internet.
Cloud platform services, also known as Platform as a Service (PaaS), provide cloud components to certain software while being used mainly for applications.
Big data as a service (BDaaS) is the delivery of data platforms and tools by a cloud provider to help organizations process. Hence correct answer is option D.
Incorrect
Solution: Option (d)
Explanation
Cloud Computing is primarily broadly categorized as:
- Infrastructure-as-a-Service.
- Platform-as-a-Service.
- Software-as-a-Service.
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is a type of cloud computing service that offers essential compute, storage and networking resources on demand, on a pay-as-you-go basis.
Software as a service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which a cloud provider hosts applications and makes them available to end users over the internet.
Cloud platform services, also known as Platform as a Service (PaaS), provide cloud components to certain software while being used mainly for applications.
Big data as a service (BDaaS) is the delivery of data platforms and tools by a cloud provider to help organizations process. Hence correct answer is option D.
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Question 17 of 36
17. Question
Consider the following statement:
- Crypto-currency mining uses huge amount of energy and emit pollutants.
- ‘Proof of work’ is a consenus mechanism that allows miners to validate crypto-currency transactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
Cambridge Bitcoin Electricity Consumption Index, by the Centre for Alternative Finance at the University of Cambridge. shows that Bitcoin mining alone used up more energy than Belgium and Finland (bit.ly/3cpu86E). According to Digiconomist, Ethereum gobbled up as much power as Switzerland. The Bitcoin network generates huge amounts of carbon dioxide, as much as Turkmenistan, and Ethereum’s CO2 emissions rival New Zealand’s. As if this was not enough, the obsolete ASIC (Application Specific Integrated Circuit) mining equipment that crypto miners use produces a colossal 36,000 tonnes of electronic waste every year. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
‘Proof of work’ is a consensus mechanism that allows miners to validate cryptocurrency transactions by deciphering increasingly complicated mathematical puzzles. Whoever solves a puzzle validates that transaction and gets the mined crypto; solving these arcane problems requires heavy computing power and therefore uses tremendous energy. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
Cambridge Bitcoin Electricity Consumption Index, by the Centre for Alternative Finance at the University of Cambridge. shows that Bitcoin mining alone used up more energy than Belgium and Finland (bit.ly/3cpu86E). According to Digiconomist, Ethereum gobbled up as much power as Switzerland. The Bitcoin network generates huge amounts of carbon dioxide, as much as Turkmenistan, and Ethereum’s CO2 emissions rival New Zealand’s. As if this was not enough, the obsolete ASIC (Application Specific Integrated Circuit) mining equipment that crypto miners use produces a colossal 36,000 tonnes of electronic waste every year. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
‘Proof of work’ is a consensus mechanism that allows miners to validate cryptocurrency transactions by deciphering increasingly complicated mathematical puzzles. Whoever solves a puzzle validates that transaction and gets the mined crypto; solving these arcane problems requires heavy computing power and therefore uses tremendous energy. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 18 of 36
18. Question
With reference to ‘near field communication (NFC) technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
- NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a meter from each other.
- NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
Near Field Communication (NFC)
It is a contactless communication technology based on an electromagnetic radio frequency (RF). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
It uses a base frequency of 13.56 MHz.
It is perfectly designed to exchange data between two devices through a simple touch gesture.
It is designed for an operating distance of a few centimetres. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
This makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication as compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters.
It can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
Near Field Communication (NFC)
It is a contactless communication technology based on an electromagnetic radio frequency (RF). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
It uses a base frequency of 13.56 MHz.
It is perfectly designed to exchange data between two devices through a simple touch gesture.
It is designed for an operating distance of a few centimetres. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
This makes it more difficult for attackers to record the communication as compared to other wireless technologies which have a working distance of several meters.
It can use encryption when sending sensitive information. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
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Question 19 of 36
19. Question
Consider the following statement regarding “national automated fingerprint identification system (NAFIS)”:
- It is a pan-India searchable database of crime and criminal-related fingerprints.
- It is developed by the national crime records bureau (NCRB).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
India has inaugurated a National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS): A pan-India searchable database of crime and criminal-related fingerprints.
NAFIS is developed by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution: option (c)
Explanation:
India has inaugurated a National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS): A pan-India searchable database of crime and criminal-related fingerprints.
NAFIS is developed by the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB). Hence Option (c) is correct answer.
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Question 20 of 36
20. Question
with reference to web 5.0, consider the following statements;
- It is aimed to build an extra decentralized web that puts one in control of their data and identity.
- It is a combination of web 1.0 and web 2.0.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution: option (a)
Explanation:
It is aimed to build an extra decentralized web that puts one in control of their data and identity. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
web 5.0 is web 2.0 plus web 3.0 that will allow users to ‘own their identity on the internet and control their data’. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution: option (a)
Explanation:
It is aimed to build an extra decentralized web that puts one in control of their data and identity. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
web 5.0 is web 2.0 plus web 3.0 that will allow users to ‘own their identity on the internet and control their data’. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect
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Question 21 of 36
21. Question
With reference to the Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024 (BAHS), consider the following statements:
- It was released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying.
- The top three producers of milk are Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh.
- The top three producers of eggs are Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana.
- The top three producers of meat are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Union Minister, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying released the annual publication of ‘Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024’ of the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying on the occasion of National Milk Day celebrated in New Delhi.
- The Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024 (BAHS) was released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The top three producers of milk are Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The top three producers of eggs are Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The top three producers of meat are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077745#:~:text=As%20released%20in%20BAHS%202024,the%20estimates%20of%202022%2D23
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Union Minister, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying released the annual publication of ‘Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024’ of the Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying on the occasion of National Milk Day celebrated in New Delhi.
- The Basic Animal Husbandry Statistics 2024 (BAHS) was released by the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The top three producers of milk are Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Madhya Pradesh. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The top three producers of eggs are Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The top three producers of meat are West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, and Maharashtra. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2077745#:~:text=As%20released%20in%20BAHS%202024,the%20estimates%20of%202022%2D23
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Question 22 of 36
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Bioplastics:
- They are derived from renewable organic sources.
- They are not always biodegradable.
- They are used in food packaging and medical supplies.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Balrampur Chini Mills, Uttar Pradesh one of India’s leading sugar producers, announced a Rs 2,000 crore investment in India’s first bioplastics factory to produce Bioplastics.
- Bioplastics are derived from renewable organic sources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Bioplastics are produced by extracting sugar from plants like corn and sugarcane and converting it into polylactic acids (PLAs). Alternatively, they can be made from polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) from microorganisms which are then polymerized into bioplastic.
- They are not always biodegradable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The production of Bioplastics absorbs carbon dioxide (CO2) and contributes to a neutral or potentially negative carbon balance, helping reduce the carbon footprint compared to fossil-based plastics.
- Bioplastics are as strong and durable as traditional plastics, making them ideal for use in a variety of applications such as food packaging, agricultural films, and medical supplies. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: The Hindu
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Balrampur Chini Mills, Uttar Pradesh one of India’s leading sugar producers, announced a Rs 2,000 crore investment in India’s first bioplastics factory to produce Bioplastics.
- Bioplastics are derived from renewable organic sources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Bioplastics are produced by extracting sugar from plants like corn and sugarcane and converting it into polylactic acids (PLAs). Alternatively, they can be made from polyhydroxyalkanoates (PHAs) from microorganisms which are then polymerized into bioplastic.
- They are not always biodegradable. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The production of Bioplastics absorbs carbon dioxide (CO2) and contributes to a neutral or potentially negative carbon balance, helping reduce the carbon footprint compared to fossil-based plastics.
- Bioplastics are as strong and durable as traditional plastics, making them ideal for use in a variety of applications such as food packaging, agricultural films, and medical supplies. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: The Hindu
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Question 23 of 36
23. Question
With reference to Carbon Credits, consider the following statements:
- It refers to carbon emissions reductions or removals, measured in tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e).
- It was introduced by the Paris Agreement of 2015 that aims to reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions.
- Each carbon credit permits the emission of one tonne of CO₂ or its equivalent.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Carbon trade, being relied upon to accelerate emission cuts around the world, has been largely ineffective till now, and only a very small number of projects have resulted in real emissions reductions, a new study published in Nature Journal has found.
- Carbon Credits refer to carbon emissions reductions or removals, measured in tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- These credits are generated by projects that absorb or reduce carbon emissions and are certified by international bodies like the Verified Carbon Standard (VCS) and the Gold Standard.
- The concept of carbon credit, introduced in the Kyoto Protocol, in 1997 and reinforced by the Paris Agreement, 2015 aims to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions through carbon trading. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Each carbon credit permits the emission of one tonne of CO₂ or its equivalent. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Carbon trade, being relied upon to accelerate emission cuts around the world, has been largely ineffective till now, and only a very small number of projects have resulted in real emissions reductions, a new study published in Nature Journal has found.
- Carbon Credits refer to carbon emissions reductions or removals, measured in tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent (tCO2e). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- These credits are generated by projects that absorb or reduce carbon emissions and are certified by international bodies like the Verified Carbon Standard (VCS) and the Gold Standard.
- The concept of carbon credit, introduced in the Kyoto Protocol, in 1997 and reinforced by the Paris Agreement, 2015 aims to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions through carbon trading. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Each carbon credit permits the emission of one tonne of CO₂ or its equivalent. Hence statement 3 is correct.
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Question 24 of 36
24. Question
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Union Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare and Rural Development Minister addressed the Global Soils Conference 2024 organized in PUSA New Delhi today through video conferencing.
- The Global Soil Conference 2024 was organized by the Indian Society of Soil Science (ISSS) in collaboration with the International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is aimed to foster a global dialogue on how caring for soils can drive sustainability across various sectors.
Key Highlights of GSC 2024:
- Soil health was recognized as a pressing issue, with soil degradation affecting productivity and posing a threat to global food security.
- Around 30% of India’s soil is reportedly compromised due to erosion, salinity, pollution, and loss of organic carbon.
- The conference underscored the importance of international cooperation in tackling soil erosion, which aligns with Sustainable Development Goal 15 (SDG 15) of the United Nations.
- Its theme was “Caring Soils Beyond Food Security: Climate Change Mitigation & Ecosystem Services”. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074585
Correct
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Soil Conference 2024:
- It was organised by the Indian Society of Soil Science (ISSS) in collaboration with the International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS).
- Its theme was “Caring Soils Beyond Food Security: Climate change mitigation & Ecosystem Services”.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Incorrect
Consider the following statements regarding the Global Soil Conference 2024:
- It was organised by the Indian Society of Soil Science (ISSS) in collaboration with the International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS).
- Its theme was “Caring Soils Beyond Food Security: Climate change mitigation & Ecosystem Services”.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Question 25 of 36
25. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Prehistoric discoveries in Kerala Place - Running tiger carvings
Wayanad - Human figures
Cheemeni Ariyittapara - Edakkal Caves
Neeleswaram. - Bull figures
Ettukudukka How many pair/s is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A remarkable archaeological discovery has come to light at Kanhirapoil in Madikkai panchayat where 24 pairs of prehistoric footprints and a human figure have been found carved into rock on private property. Experts believe these carvings date back to the Megalithic period, providing a fascinating glimpse into ancient culture.
Prehistoric Discoveries in Kerala Place - Running tiger carvings
Neeleswaram - Human figures
Cheemeni Ariyittapara - Edakkal Caves
Wayanad - Bull figures
Ettukudukka Hence option b is correct.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/prehistoric-rock-cut-footprints-and-human-figure-unearthed-at-kanhirapoil/article68893518.ece#:~:text=SUBSCRIBE%20%26%20SAVE-,The%20carvings%2C%20made%20with%20iron%20tools%2C%20include%20footprints%20varying%20in,four%20circular%20pits%20around%20it
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A remarkable archaeological discovery has come to light at Kanhirapoil in Madikkai panchayat where 24 pairs of prehistoric footprints and a human figure have been found carved into rock on private property. Experts believe these carvings date back to the Megalithic period, providing a fascinating glimpse into ancient culture.
Prehistoric Discoveries in Kerala Place - Running tiger carvings
Neeleswaram - Human figures
Cheemeni Ariyittapara - Edakkal Caves
Wayanad - Bull figures
Ettukudukka Hence option b is correct.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/kerala/prehistoric-rock-cut-footprints-and-human-figure-unearthed-at-kanhirapoil/article68893518.ece#:~:text=SUBSCRIBE%20%26%20SAVE-,The%20carvings%2C%20made%20with%20iron%20tools%2C%20include%20footprints%20varying%20in,four%20circular%20pits%20around%20it
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Question 26 of 36
26. Question
With reference to the Bhu-Neer portal, consider the following statements:
- It aims to improve groundwater regulation, ensuring transparency, efficiency, and sustainability in groundwater usage.
- It was developed by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC).
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Hon’ble Minister of Jal Shakti digitally launched the newly developed “Bhu-Neer” portal during the concluding ceremony of India Water Week 2024.
- The Bhu-Neer portal aims to improve groundwater regulation, ensuring transparency, efficiency, and sustainability in groundwater usage. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It has a centralized database for groundwater compliance and policies, enhancing the Ease of Doing Business by simplifying groundwater regulation.
- It was developed by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074919
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Hon’ble Minister of Jal Shakti digitally launched the newly developed “Bhu-Neer” portal during the concluding ceremony of India Water Week 2024.
- The Bhu-Neer portal aims to improve groundwater regulation, ensuring transparency, efficiency, and sustainability in groundwater usage. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It has a centralized database for groundwater compliance and policies, enhancing the Ease of Doing Business by simplifying groundwater regulation.
- It was developed by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti in collaboration with the National Informatics Centre (NIC). Hence statement 2 is correct.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2074919
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Question 27 of 36
27. Question
Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative for Farmers is a platform that brings together the dispersed landscape of existing climate initiatives in the field of food and agriculture, in order to make support for farmers easier to find and to facilitate access to finance. It was launched by Azerbaijan in partnership with which of the following organization?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Completely ignoring the demands of the developing nations for mobilization of at least 1.3 trillion dollars a year in climate finance, the developed countries managed to force an agreement at the COP29 meeting in Baku, promising to put together just 300 billion dollars a year, that too from 2035.
Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative for Farmers is a platform that brings together the dispersed landscape of existing climate initiatives in the field of food and agriculture, to make support for farmers easier to find and to facilitate access to finance. It was launched by Azerbaijan in partnership with Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Hence option c is correct.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/india-rejects-cop29-climate-finance-deal-calls-optical-illusion-9687012/
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Completely ignoring the demands of the developing nations for mobilization of at least 1.3 trillion dollars a year in climate finance, the developed countries managed to force an agreement at the COP29 meeting in Baku, promising to put together just 300 billion dollars a year, that too from 2035.
Baku Harmoniya Climate Initiative for Farmers is a platform that brings together the dispersed landscape of existing climate initiatives in the field of food and agriculture, to make support for farmers easier to find and to facilitate access to finance. It was launched by Azerbaijan in partnership with Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). Hence option c is correct.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/world/india-rejects-cop29-climate-finance-deal-calls-optical-illusion-9687012/
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Question 28 of 36
28. Question
Consider the following statements about Raorchestes asakgrensis:
- It is a new species of snake.
- It was named after a community reserve in Manipur.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A team of scientists from SACON (The Sálim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History) in Anaikatti, has discovered a new frog species during a two-year study in Meghalaya. They have named the species as ‘Raorchestes asakgrensis’, after the Eman Asakgre Community Reserve in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, where it was discovered, to honour the people who supported them.
- Raorchestes asakgrensis is a new species of frog. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is found at an elevation of 174 meters in Eman Asakgre, this small arboreal frog is distinctive for its pointed snout and visible tympanum.
- Males measure about 20.49 mm in snout-vent length, with females slightly larger at 22.8 mm.
- Males call from shrubs at dusk, perched 1.5 meters or higher, with calling activity peaking after the first monsoon rains.
- It was named after the Eman Asakgre Community Reserve in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, where it was discovered, to honour the local community’s support in conservation efforts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Nov/21/sacon-team-from-tns-anaikatti-discovers-new-frog-species-in-meghalaya-during-two-year-study
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A team of scientists from SACON (The Sálim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History) in Anaikatti, has discovered a new frog species during a two-year study in Meghalaya. They have named the species as ‘Raorchestes asakgrensis’, after the Eman Asakgre Community Reserve in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, where it was discovered, to honour the people who supported them.
- Raorchestes asakgrensis is a new species of frog. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is found at an elevation of 174 meters in Eman Asakgre, this small arboreal frog is distinctive for its pointed snout and visible tympanum.
- Males measure about 20.49 mm in snout-vent length, with females slightly larger at 22.8 mm.
- Males call from shrubs at dusk, perched 1.5 meters or higher, with calling activity peaking after the first monsoon rains.
- It was named after the Eman Asakgre Community Reserve in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, where it was discovered, to honour the local community’s support in conservation efforts. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/tamil-nadu/2024/Nov/21/sacon-team-from-tns-anaikatti-discovers-new-frog-species-in-meghalaya-during-two-year-study
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Question 29 of 36
29. Question
With reference to the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar, consider the following staements:
- It was instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi.
- It is given annually to outstanding young artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts and puppetry.
- It carries a purse of Rs 50,000/-, a plaque and an angavastram.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Union Minister of Culture and Tourism will confer the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for the years 2022 and 2023 to 82 young artists in a special ceremony at Dr Ambedkar International Centre, Janpath, New Delhi.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The reason behind instituting the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar was to encourage and motivate young artists in the field of music, dance, drama, folk and tribal art forms and other allied performing art forms of the country.
- It is given annually to outstanding young artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts, and puppetry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It carries a purse of Rs 25,000/-, a plaque and an angavastram. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Note:
Ustad Bismillah Khan was a famous Shehnai musician. He also played at the first Republic Day celebration in 1950. He was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Center Hall in the United States of America.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075433
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Union Minister of Culture and Tourism will confer the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for the years 2022 and 2023 to 82 young artists in a special ceremony at Dr Ambedkar International Centre, Janpath, New Delhi.
- Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puruskar was instituted by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The reason behind instituting the Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar was to encourage and motivate young artists in the field of music, dance, drama, folk and tribal art forms and other allied performing art forms of the country.
- It is given annually to outstanding young artists in the fields of music, dance, drama, folk & tribal arts, and puppetry. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It carries a purse of Rs 25,000/-, a plaque and an angavastram. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Note:
Ustad Bismillah Khan was a famous Shehnai musician. He also played at the first Republic Day celebration in 1950. He was the first Indian to be invited to perform at the prestigious Lincoln Center Hall in the United States of America.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2075433
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Question 30 of 36
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Ganges River Dolphin:
- Bihar is home to around half of the estimated Gangetic dolphins in India.
- It inhabits the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems.
- The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) is located near the Ganga river in Jharkhand.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Eight months after the inauguration of the National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) in Bihar, the country’s first centre dedicated to conserving the endangered Gangetic river dolphin, remains non-operational.
- Bihar is home to around half of the estimated Gangetic dolphins in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Ganges River Dolphins inhabit the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) is located near the Ganga River in Patna, Bihar. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- NDRC was inaugurated in 2024 and dedicated to researching and conserving the Gangetic River dolphin. It is located strategically near the Ganga River and aims to facilitate studies on dolphin behaviour, habitat, and conservation threats.
Note:
Protection Status of the Ganges River Dolphin:
- Endangered on the IUCN List
- Schedule I in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972
- Appendix I in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
- Appendix I in the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/indias-first-dolphin-research-centre-remains-non-operational-8-months-since-inauguration#:~:text=Eight%20months%20after%20the%20inauguration,expensive%20equipment%20and%20skilled%20manpower
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Eight months after the inauguration of the National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) in Bihar, the country’s first centre dedicated to conserving the endangered Gangetic river dolphin, remains non-operational.
- Bihar is home to around half of the estimated Gangetic dolphins in India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Ganges River Dolphins inhabit the Ganges-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The National Dolphin Research Centre (NDRC) is located near the Ganga River in Patna, Bihar. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- NDRC was inaugurated in 2024 and dedicated to researching and conserving the Gangetic River dolphin. It is located strategically near the Ganga River and aims to facilitate studies on dolphin behaviour, habitat, and conservation threats.
Note:
Protection Status of the Ganges River Dolphin:
- Endangered on the IUCN List
- Schedule I in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972
- Appendix I in the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).
- Appendix I in the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/indias-first-dolphin-research-centre-remains-non-operational-8-months-since-inauguration#:~:text=Eight%20months%20after%20the%20inauguration,expensive%20equipment%20and%20skilled%20manpower
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Question 31 of 36
31. Question
Passage – 1
The all-too-familiar triad of historical periodisation — ancient, medieval, modern — now universal, has rather specific provincial and temporal origins. All societies evolved their modes of dividing their history into periods: dynastic and regnal was the one prevalent in India, Iran, the Turko-Mongol regions, besides Europe. The triad took birth in Europe around the 16th and 17th centuries, first in the history of theology and steadily in society’s history, finding its largely evolved form in 1688 at the hands of Cellarius, a German. This was the era when over the past few centuries, Europe had been creating its new self-image of rationality, science and progress, in short, modernity; to reinforce it, the inverse image of its immediate past, the medieval, was also created as one of irrationality, regression, and superstition which were constituted as the synonym of religion/religiosity — in short, the “Dark Age” from which Europe was progressing into Enlightenment.
Q.31) Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical inference/ inferences that can be made from the passage?
- Every society has a religious history filled with irrationality, regression and superstition.
- Europe gave birth to the triad of ancient, medieval, modern.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference seems to be based on the lines “All societies evolved their modes of dividing their history into periods: dynastic and regnal was the one prevalent in India, Iran, the Turko-Mongol regions, besides Europe.” These lines show that all societies divide history in different ways, but it does not mean that every society has a religious history. In the context of this passage, the religious history is specific to European society. So, this inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: It can be inferred from the lines – “The all-too-familiar triad of historical periodization — ancient, medieval, modern — now universal, has rather specific provincial and temporal origins. … The triad took birth in Europe around the 16th and 17th centuries, first in the history of theology and steadily in society’s history, finding its largely evolved form in 1688 at the hands of Cellarius, a German.”
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Inference 1 is incorrect: The given inference seems to be based on the lines “All societies evolved their modes of dividing their history into periods: dynastic and regnal was the one prevalent in India, Iran, the Turko-Mongol regions, besides Europe.” These lines show that all societies divide history in different ways, but it does not mean that every society has a religious history. In the context of this passage, the religious history is specific to European society. So, this inference is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct: It can be inferred from the lines – “The all-too-familiar triad of historical periodization — ancient, medieval, modern — now universal, has rather specific provincial and temporal origins. … The triad took birth in Europe around the 16th and 17th centuries, first in the history of theology and steadily in society’s history, finding its largely evolved form in 1688 at the hands of Cellarius, a German.”
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Question 32 of 36
32. Question
Passage – 2
Socialization impacts both men and women. It starts very early with the pink or blue blankets we’re often wrapped in at birth, to what our parents, teachers, coaches, and friends teach us, to what we absorb from the cartoons, books, magazines, and movies we watch. In many cultures, women are expected to be responsible for things that men are not. It’s generally expected that older siblings should take care of younger siblings. However, many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures believe that girls (even if the youngest) should take care of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable for boys to bend the rules whereas girls are expected to follow the rules. This double standard in how we treat boys and girls can restrict girls from speaking their minds, trying new things and fighting for what they want. In addition, an inability to disappoint parents can cause girls to become people-pleasers and followers.
Q.32) Which of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage states the impact of culture on women, but how women affect the culture is not discussed in the passage. So, the context that culture and women molding each other is not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does talk about the discrimination faced by girls, but the main theme of the passage is how culture impacts men and women. Inculcating the values of equality and respect for girls could be a peripheral argument. It is not the best crux of the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the impact of culture on men and women. This is visible in the lines “However, many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures believe that girls (even if the youngest) should take care of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable for boys to bend the rules whereas girls are expected to follow the rules.” These lines show that it is the culture which shapes the values of boys and girls, and hence, we can state that culture has a deep impact on men and women in society. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage states the impact of culture on women, but how women affect the culture is not discussed in the passage. So, the context that culture and women molding each other is not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does talk about the discrimination faced by girls, but the main theme of the passage is how culture impacts men and women. Inculcating the values of equality and respect for girls could be a peripheral argument. It is not the best crux of the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.
Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the impact of culture on men and women. This is visible in the lines “However, many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures believe that girls (even if the youngest) should take care of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable for boys to bend the rules whereas girls are expected to follow the rules.” These lines show that it is the culture which shapes the values of boys and girls, and hence, we can state that culture has a deep impact on men and women in society. So, this is the best crux of the passage.
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Question 33 of 36
33. Question
What is the probability of getting a sum 9 from two throws of a dice?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
In two throws of dice, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36
Let E = event of getting a sum 9 = [(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)]
Therefore P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
=> 4/36 = 1/9
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
In two throws of dice, n(S) = (6 × 6) = 36
Let E = event of getting a sum 9 = [(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3)]
Therefore P(E) = n(E)/n(S)
=> 4/36 = 1/9
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Question 34 of 36
34. Question
Consider the following table.
None 1 to 4 5 or more Total Group X 15 28 57 100 Group Y 21 11 68 100 Total 36 39 125 200 The data in the table above were produced by a sleep researcher, studying the number of dreams people can recall. Group X consisted of 100 people with early bedtimes, while Group Y consisted of 100 people with later bedtimes. If a person is chosen at random, what is the probability that the person belonged to Group Y who recalled at least 1 dream?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The number of people who remembered at least one dream in Group Y = 11 + 68 = 79 Required probability = 79/200 Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The number of people who remembered at least one dream in Group Y = 11 + 68 = 79 Required probability = 79/200 Hence, option (d) is correct.
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Question 35 of 36
35. Question
A school has 378 girl students and 675 boy students. The school is divided into strictly boys or strictly girls sections. All sections in the school have the same number of students. Given this information, what are the minimum number of sections in the school?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The answer will be given by the HCF of 378 and 675.
378 = 2 x 33 x 7
675 = 33 x 52
Hence, HCF of the two is 33 = 27.
Hence, the number of sections is given by: ((378/27) + (675/27) = 14 + 25 = 39 sections
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The answer will be given by the HCF of 378 and 675.
378 = 2 x 33 x 7
675 = 33 x 52
Hence, HCF of the two is 33 = 27.
Hence, the number of sections is given by: ((378/27) + (675/27) = 14 + 25 = 39 sections
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Question 36 of 36
36. Question
Test question
Correct
Test explained
Incorrect
Test explained
All the Best
IASbaba