UPSC Quiz – 2026 : IASbaba’s Daily Current Affairs Quiz 24th March 2026

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is correct. The Territorial Army is established and governed by the Territorial Army Act, 1948. When TA personnel are embodied for service (whether for training, operational duties, or during national exigencies), they are subject to the Army Act, 1950, and the same disciplinary and service regulations as the regular Army. 
• Statement 2 is correct. The TA is a voluntary reserve force comprising “citizen soldiers” from civilian backgrounds—businessmen, professionals, and others. Its primary role is to relieve the regular Army from non-combat duties (such as guarding vital installations, logistics support) and to augment the Army’s manpower during conflict or crisis. Under Rule 33 of the TA Act, full mobilization is permitted during national exigencies, which can include combat roles. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect. Rule 33 of the Territorial Army Act permits full mobilization during national exigencies. However, the statement’s claim that “the Governor of a state cannot utilize Territorial Army units within the state without the explicit consent of the Union Home Ministry” is inaccurate. Territorial Army units are under the operational control of the Ministry of Defence, and their deployment is determined by military authorities based on operational requirements, not governed by a separate consent mechanism involving the Home Ministry. Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Why this question? It tests the precise legal framework (TA Act, 1948), the constitutional and administrative positioning of the TA, and the nuances of its mobilization provisions—areas where aspirants often conflate the TA with other reserve forces like the National Cadet Corps (NCC) or the Home Guard.

Why important for UPSC? The Territorial Army represents a unique civil-military interface and is part of India’s defence structure. With recent developments like the induction of women into TA battalions, this topic gains relevance for both Polity and Defence current affairs.

PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to UPSC 2019 and 2022 questions that tested the legal framework and roles of paramilitary forces and reserve forces, as well as the distinction between the Army Act and other service regulations.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is correct. PM-KISAN is a Central-Sector scheme (100% funded by the Government of India, as opposed to Centrally Sponsored Schemes where cost sharing occurs). The Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the implementing agency. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. For the scheme, a “farmer family” is defined as consisting of the husband, wife, and minor children (below 18 years of age). It does not include all dependent children regardless of age; adult children are considered separate families for eligibility. 
• Statement 3 is correct. The scheme explicitly excludes individuals registered with professional bodies such as the Medical Council, Bar Council, Institute of Chartered Accountants, Institute of Engineers, etc., along with their families. These exclusions apply regardless of whether they hold cultivable land, as the intent is to target the scheme toward genuine small and marginal farmers from non-professional backgrounds. Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Why this question? It tests the precise definition of “farmer family” under PM-KISAN—a common point of confusion—and the scheme’s exclusion criteria, which are often misunderstood as applying only to income or landholding thresholds.

Why important for UPSC? PM-KISAN is a flagship agricultural welfare scheme, and questions frequently test its funding pattern, eligibility definitions, and exclusion categories. Understanding Central-Sector vs. Centrally Sponsored distinction is also crucial for UPSC.

PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to UPSC 2019 and 2021 questions that tested the features of PM-KISAN, including its funding pattern, installment structure, and the definition of “farmer family.”

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• • Statement 1 is correct. The BrahMos missile operates on the “fire and forget” principle. Once launched, it does not require further guidance from the launch platform. It uses an onboard inertial navigation system (INS) for mid-course guidance and an active radar seeker for terminal guidance, enabling it to autonomously acquire and engage the target. 
  • Statement 2 is incorrect. The BrahMos missile is a two-stage system, but the stage configuration is reversed: the first stage is a solid propellant booster that accelerates the missile to supersonic speed, after which it is jettisoned. The second stage is a liquid ramjet that sustains the missile at supersonic cruise speed (Mach 2.8) for the remainder of its flight. 

• Statement 3 is correct. The BrahMos-NG (Next Generation) variant maintains the 290 km range (as per MTCR restrictions for export, though India’s domestic version can have extended range) but features a smaller airframe, reduced radar cross-section (RCS) for stealth, and a compact design that enables launch from submarine torpedo tubes—a capability not available to the original BrahMos. Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Why this question? It tests the precise technical configuration of the BrahMos missile (stage sequence) and the distinguishing features of the NG variant—areas where aspirants often confuse the propulsion sequence and capabilities.

Why important for UPSC? BrahMos is India’s premier supersonic cruise missile, a key component of defence indigenization and Indo-Russian strategic partnership. Its variants and technical specifications are frequently tested in Defence and Security topics.

PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to UPSC 2018 and 2022 questions that tested the features of BrahMos missile, including its propulsion system, range, and “fire and forget” capability, as well as questions on India’s missile systems (Agni, Prithvi, etc.).

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is correct. The Vrindavani Vastra is a traditional Assamese textile woven using the lampas technique, a complex weaving method where two weavers work simultaneously—one handling the ground weave and the other creating the supplementary pattern weft. This allows for intricate, multicolored designs. 
• Statement 2 is incorrect. The textile was created under the patronage of Koch king Nara Narayan, who ruled parts of modern-day Assam and West Bengal, not the Ahom king. Nara Narayan sheltered Srimanta Sankardeva (the great Vaishnavite saint and cultural icon of Assam) after Sankardeva faced persecution from the Ahom kingdom on the instigation of Brahmin priests. The Ahom kingdom was the rival power in Assam at the time. 
• Statement 3 is correct. The Vrindavani Vastra depicts the childhood stories and divine pastimes of Lord Krishna in Vrindavan. It is a central artifact of Assamese Vaishnavism, reflecting the Bhakti movement’s influence in the region and Sankardeva’s enduring legacy. Thus, only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Why this question? It tests the precise historical context of the Vrindavani Vastra—the distinction between Koch and Ahom patronage, which is a common point of confusion in Assam’s medieval history.

Why important for UPSC? The Vrindavani Vastra represents the intersection of Assamese textile heritage, Vaishnavism, and medieval regional politics. With ongoing efforts to repatriate cultural artifacts, such topics gain relevance for Art and Culture and Modern History.

PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to UPSC 2017 and 2020 questions that tested the cultural contributions of Srimanta Sankardeva and the regional kingdoms of Assam, as well as questions on traditional Indian textiles and weaving techniques.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• Statement 1 is correct. The Marburg virus is zoonotic, with the Egyptian fruit bat (Rousettus aegyptiacus) identified as the natural reservoir. Transmission to humans occurs through prolonged exposure to caves or mines inhabited by these bats. Human-to-human transmission then spreads via direct contact with blood, secretions, organs, or other bodily fluids of infected individuals. 
• Statement 2 is correct. MVD was first recognized in 1967 during simultaneous outbreaks in Marburg and Frankfurt (Germany) and in Belgrade (Serbia) among laboratory workers handling infected green monkeys (Cercopithecus aethiops) imported from Uganda. Both Marburg and Ebola viruses belong to the Filoviridae family, characterized by filamentous virions. 
• Statement 3 is incorrect. While it is true that no approved vaccines or specific antivirals exist for MVD, the statement incorrectly claims a consistently low fatality rate. The average case fatality rate for MVD is approximately 50%, with variation ranging from 24% to 88% depending on the virus strain and quality of case management—not consistently below 30%. Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Why this question? It tests the precise classification of Marburg virus (Filoviridae family), its zoonotic reservoir, historical origin, and the critical distinction of its case fatality rate—a common area where aspirants conflate it with other viral hemorrhagic fevers.

Why important for UPSC? Viral hemorrhagic fevers like Marburg and Ebola are recurring topics in Science and Technology (Health) and Disaster Management, with questions focusing on transmission, reservoirs, fatality rates, and public health responses.

PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to UPSC 2015 and 2020 questions that tested the features of Ebola virus, including its family classification, transmission, and fatality rates, as well as questions on zoonotic diseases and pandemic preparedness.