IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) Which of the following types of Constitutional amendment Bills requires ratification by at least half of the state legislatures?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, amendments that affect the federal structure of the country require not only a special majority in both Houses of Parliament but also ratification by at least one-half (50%) of the State Legislatures.The election of the President (governed by Articles 54 and 55) is considered a vital federal feature because the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies.
Consequently, any change to this procedure directly impacts the states’ role in the national executive, necessitating their consent.
- Option (a) creation of new states requires simple majority (not under Article 368).
- Option (b) Fundamental Rights require special majority but NOT state ratification.
- Option (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (Effective Majority) under Article 94.
Why this question?
Tests the specific category of amendments requiring state ratification – a core Polity concept.Why important for UPSC?
Article 368 amendment procedure appears frequently in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on types of constitutional amendments.Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, amendments that affect the federal structure of the country require not only a special majority in both Houses of Parliament but also ratification by at least one-half (50%) of the State Legislatures.The election of the President (governed by Articles 54 and 55) is considered a vital federal feature because the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies.
Consequently, any change to this procedure directly impacts the states’ role in the national executive, necessitating their consent.
- Option (a) creation of new states requires simple majority (not under Article 368).
- Option (b) Fundamental Rights require special majority but NOT state ratification.
- Option (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha (Effective Majority) under Article 94.
Why this question?
Tests the specific category of amendments requiring state ratification – a core Polity concept.Why important for UPSC?
Article 368 amendment procedure appears frequently in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on types of constitutional amendments. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution:
- It currently lists 22 scheduled languages, including Khasi and Garo.
- Inclusion of a language in the Eighth Schedule requires a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament.
- Languages in the Eighth Schedule can be used as optional subjects in Civil Services examinations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.2) Solution (c)
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages (Assamese to Urdu), but Khasi and Garo are NOT included – this is the demand of Meghalaya.
- Statement 2 is correct: Inclusion requires a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
- Statement 3 is correct: Eighth Schedule languages can be used as optional subjects in UPSC Civil Services exams. UPSC tests this exclusion fact.
Why this question?
Tests the current list of Eighth Schedule languages – Khasi and Garo are not included – a factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Eighth Schedule appears in Polity and Language Policy (Prelims 2016, 2019, 2021).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2016 Prelims question on Eighth Schedule languages.Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (c)
Explanation:
-
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Eighth Schedule lists 22 languages (Assamese to Urdu), but Khasi and Garo are NOT included – this is the demand of Meghalaya.
- Statement 2 is correct: Inclusion requires a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
- Statement 3 is correct: Eighth Schedule languages can be used as optional subjects in UPSC Civil Services exams. UPSC tests this exclusion fact.
Why this question?
Tests the current list of Eighth Schedule languages – Khasi and Garo are not included – a factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Eighth Schedule appears in Polity and Language Policy (Prelims 2016, 2019, 2021).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2016 Prelims question on Eighth Schedule languages. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the IndiaAI Startups Global Acceleration Programme:
- The programme is implemented by the IndiaAI Mission under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
- The international partners for the residency include Station F (Paris) and HEC Paris.
- The programme focuses exclusively on Indian startups working in the field of defence technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: IndiaAI Mission (under MeitY) runs the programme under its Startup Financing Pillar.
- Statement 2 is correct: Station F (world’s largest startup campus) and HEC Paris are international partners.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The selected startups span Health Tech, Climate Tech, EdTech, Satellite Intelligence, Cognitive AI – not exclusively defence technology. UPSC tests this diverse domain coverage.
Why this question?
Tests the scope of the programme – not limited to defence – a common oversimplification trap.Why important for UPSC?
IndiaAI Mission appears in Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2024 Prelims question on IndiaAI Mission pillars.Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: IndiaAI Mission (under MeitY) runs the programme under its Startup Financing Pillar.
- Statement 2 is correct: Station F (world’s largest startup campus) and HEC Paris are international partners.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The selected startups span Health Tech, Climate Tech, EdTech, Satellite Intelligence, Cognitive AI – not exclusively defence technology. UPSC tests this diverse domain coverage.
Why this question?
Tests the scope of the programme – not limited to defence – a common oversimplification trap.Why important for UPSC?
IndiaAI Mission appears in Science & Tech (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2024 Prelims question on IndiaAI Mission pillars. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional amendment process and the Basic Structure Doctrine:
- The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, 2014, which established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), was struck down by the Supreme Court for violating the basic structure of the Constitution.
- Provisions related to the abolition of the Legislative Council in a state can be amended by simple majority and are not considered “Constitution amendment” under Article 368.
- The President can withhold assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: NJAC was struck down in 2015 as violating judicial independence (basic structure).
- Statement 2 is correct: Abolition of Legislative Council (Article 169) requires simple majority, not Article 368 procedure.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 368, the President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill – cannot withhold or return it. UPSC tests this absolute presidential assent requirement.
Why this question?
Tests the mandatory presidential assent for constitutional amendments – a common Polity trap.Why important for UPSC?
Basic Structure Doctrine and Article 368 appear frequently in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on NJAC and basic structure.Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: NJAC was struck down in 2015 as violating judicial independence (basic structure).
- Statement 2 is correct: Abolition of Legislative Council (Article 169) requires simple majority, not Article 368 procedure.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Under Article 368, the President must give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill – cannot withhold or return it. UPSC tests this absolute presidential assent requirement.
Why this question?
Tests the mandatory presidential assent for constitutional amendments – a common Polity trap.Why important for UPSC?
Basic Structure Doctrine and Article 368 appear frequently in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on NJAC and basic structure. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following pairs (Fisheries Institution – Location/Headquarters):
Institution Location 1. National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) Hyderabad 2. Central Institute of Brackishwater Aquaculture (CIBA) Chennai 3. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI) Kochi 4. Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) Visakhapatnam How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.NFDB – Hyderabad, CIBA – Chennai, CMFRI – Kochi.
Pair 4 is incorrect: MPEDA (Marine Products Export Development Authority) is headquartered in Kochi, not Visakhapatnam.
MPEDA was established under the MPEDA Act, 1972, and is based in Kochi, Kerala. UPSC tests this specific headquarters fact.
Why this question?
Tests the correct headquarters of MPEDA – Kochi, not Visakhapatnam – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Fisheries institutions and their locations appear in Economy and Agriculture (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2018 Prelims matching question on ICAR institutes and their locations.Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (c)
Explanation:
Pairs 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched.NFDB – Hyderabad, CIBA – Chennai, CMFRI – Kochi.
Pair 4 is incorrect: MPEDA (Marine Products Export Development Authority) is headquartered in Kochi, not Visakhapatnam.
MPEDA was established under the MPEDA Act, 1972, and is based in Kochi, Kerala. UPSC tests this specific headquarters fact.
Why this question?
Tests the correct headquarters of MPEDA – Kochi, not Visakhapatnam – a common factual trap.Why important for UPSC?
Fisheries institutions and their locations appear in Economy and Agriculture (Prelims 2018, 2020, 2022).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2018 Prelims matching question on ICAR institutes and their locations.
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