IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
With reference to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), consider the following statements:
- Membership in the IMF is a prerequisite for membership in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
- The voting power of each member country in the IMF is determined by its quota subscription, which is based on the country’s wealth and economic performance.
- The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is a currency issued by the IMF, and its value is determined solely by the US dollar exchange rate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Under the IMF’s Articles of Agreement, membership in the IMF is a prerequisite for membership in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), which is part of the World Bank Group. A country must join the IMF before it can be considered for IBRD membership.
- Statement 2 is correct. Each member country’s quota subscription—the amount of money it contributes to the IMF—is based on the country’s relative wealth, economic performance, and position in the global economy. A member’s voting power is directly related to its quota, giving larger economies greater influence in IMF decision-making.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is the IMF’s unit of account, not a currency. It cannot be used to settle private transactions. Its value is determined by a basket of five currencies: the US dollar, Euro, Japanese yen, pound sterling, and Chinese renminbi, not by the US dollar alone.
Why this question? Tests the relationship between IMF and World Bank membership, the quota-based voting system, and the nature of SDRs—three distinct but commonly confused aspects of the IMF.
Why important for UPSC? IMF is a key international organization in the Economy and International Relations syllabus; its governance, quota system, and SDRs are frequently tested.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the Bretton Woods twins (IMF and World Bank), quota-based voting, and the composition of the SDR basket (e.g., 2012, 2015, 2019, 2022).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. Under the IMF’s Articles of Agreement, membership in the IMF is a prerequisite for membership in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), which is part of the World Bank Group. A country must join the IMF before it can be considered for IBRD membership.
- Statement 2 is correct. Each member country’s quota subscription—the amount of money it contributes to the IMF—is based on the country’s relative wealth, economic performance, and position in the global economy. A member’s voting power is directly related to its quota, giving larger economies greater influence in IMF decision-making.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is the IMF’s unit of account, not a currency. It cannot be used to settle private transactions. Its value is determined by a basket of five currencies: the US dollar, Euro, Japanese yen, pound sterling, and Chinese renminbi, not by the US dollar alone.
Why this question? Tests the relationship between IMF and World Bank membership, the quota-based voting system, and the nature of SDRs—three distinct but commonly confused aspects of the IMF.
Why important for UPSC? IMF is a key international organization in the Economy and International Relations syllabus; its governance, quota system, and SDRs are frequently tested.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the Bretton Woods twins (IMF and World Bank), quota-based voting, and the composition of the SDR basket (e.g., 2012, 2015, 2019, 2022).
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to the International Astronomical Union (IAU), consider the following statements:
- The IAU is the only internationally recognized organization authorized to assign names to astronomical bodies and their surface features.
- It was founded in 1919 and has its headquarters in Paris, France.
- Membership in the IAU is open to any individual with an interest in astronomy, regardless of professional qualifications.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The IAU is the sole internationally recognized authority for assigning names to celestial bodies (planets, moons, asteroids, comets, craters, etc.) and their surface features. Naming is done on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege, following established IAU conventions.
- Statement 2 is correct. The IAU was founded in 1919 following the First World War, with the aim of promoting and safeguarding the science of astronomy through international cooperation. Its headquarters are located in Paris, France.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The IAU is a professional organization for astronomers. Membership is restricted to individuals who hold a PhD in astronomy or a related field and are actively engaged in professional education and research in astronomy. It is not open to amateur astronomers or the general public.
Why this question? Tests three key aspects of the IAU: its exclusive naming authority, founding year and headquarters, and professional membership criteria.
Why important for UPSC? The IAU is relevant to Science and Technology syllabus, particularly in the context of space exploration, planetary nomenclature, and India’s contributions to astronomy.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the roles, headquarters, and membership criteria of international scientific organizations (e.g., WHO, UNESCO, IAEA, etc.).
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The IAU is the sole internationally recognized authority for assigning names to celestial bodies (planets, moons, asteroids, comets, craters, etc.) and their surface features. Naming is done on the basis of merit, history, or discoverer’s privilege, following established IAU conventions.
- Statement 2 is correct. The IAU was founded in 1919 following the First World War, with the aim of promoting and safeguarding the science of astronomy through international cooperation. Its headquarters are located in Paris, France.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. The IAU is a professional organization for astronomers. Membership is restricted to individuals who hold a PhD in astronomy or a related field and are actively engaged in professional education and research in astronomy. It is not open to amateur astronomers or the general public.
Why this question? Tests three key aspects of the IAU: its exclusive naming authority, founding year and headquarters, and professional membership criteria.
Why important for UPSC? The IAU is relevant to Science and Technology syllabus, particularly in the context of space exploration, planetary nomenclature, and India’s contributions to astronomy.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the roles, headquarters, and membership criteria of international scientific organizations (e.g., WHO, UNESCO, IAEA, etc.).
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to the Commonwealth Games and the Commonwealth of Nations, consider the following statements:
- The first Commonwealth Games were held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada, under the name British Empire Games.
- The London Declaration of 1949 allowed republics and non-British monarchies to join the Commonwealth of Nations.
- India has hosted the Commonwealth Games twice—first in New Delhi in 1983 and then in Ahmedabad in 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Commonwealth Games originated as the British Empire Games, with the first edition held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada. The event was renamed the British Empire and Commonwealth Games in 1954, and finally the Commonwealth Games from 1978 onwards.
- Statement 2 is correct. The London Declaration of 1949 was a landmark decision that transformed the Commonwealth. It allowed republics (such as India) and countries with their own indigenous monarchies to remain members without owing allegiance to the British Crown, thereby establishing the modern Commonwealth of Nations.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. India has hosted the Commonwealth Games only once—in New Delhi in 2010. The 2030 Commonwealth Games, which will be the centenary edition, have been confirmed for Ahmedabad, but this event has not yet taken place. The statement incorrectly refers to a 1983 Commonwealth Summit (which India hosted) as a Commonwealth Games, and treats a future event as already held.
Why this question? Tests the historical evolution of the Commonwealth Games, the key constitutional change in the Commonwealth, and factual recall of India’s hosting record—distinguishing between Games and Summits.
Why important for UPSC? Commonwealth Games and Commonwealth of Nations are relevant to both Sports and International Relations, appearing occasionally in prelims.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the history of the Commonwealth Games, the London Declaration, and India’s hosting of international events (e.g., 2011, 2014, 2018).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The Commonwealth Games originated as the British Empire Games, with the first edition held in 1930 in Hamilton, Canada. The event was renamed the British Empire and Commonwealth Games in 1954, and finally the Commonwealth Games from 1978 onwards.
- Statement 2 is correct. The London Declaration of 1949 was a landmark decision that transformed the Commonwealth. It allowed republics (such as India) and countries with their own indigenous monarchies to remain members without owing allegiance to the British Crown, thereby establishing the modern Commonwealth of Nations.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. India has hosted the Commonwealth Games only once—in New Delhi in 2010. The 2030 Commonwealth Games, which will be the centenary edition, have been confirmed for Ahmedabad, but this event has not yet taken place. The statement incorrectly refers to a 1983 Commonwealth Summit (which India hosted) as a Commonwealth Games, and treats a future event as already held.
Why this question? Tests the historical evolution of the Commonwealth Games, the key constitutional change in the Commonwealth, and factual recall of India’s hosting record—distinguishing between Games and Summits.
Why important for UPSC? Commonwealth Games and Commonwealth of Nations are relevant to both Sports and International Relations, appearing occasionally in prelims.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the history of the Commonwealth Games, the London Declaration, and India’s hosting of international events (e.g., 2011, 2014, 2018).
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
With reference to the MH-60R Seahawk helicopter, recently in news, consider the following statements:
- It is manufactured by the US defence major Lockheed Martin and is designed primarily as a multi-role naval helicopter.
- The helicopter is specifically designed for anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (ASuW), and maritime surveillance operations.
- The MH-60R Seahawk is capable of carrying Mk-54 torpedoes and AGM-114 Hellfire missiles for engaging underwater and surface threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The MH-60R Seahawk, often called the “Romeo,” is manufactured by Lockheed Martin, a major US defence contractor. It is an all-weather, state-of-the-art naval helicopter designed for multi-role operations from naval vessels.
- Statement 2 is correct. The MH-60R is specifically designed for anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and anti-surface warfare (ASuW), along with maritime surveillance, search and rescue, medical evacuation, and ship-borne operations. It is equipped with advanced sensors like the AN/AQS-22 ALFS dipping sonar and sonobuoys.
- Statement 3 is correct. For anti-submarine missions, the helicopter carries powerful Mk-54 torpedoes to detect, track, and engage underwater threats. For surface warfare missions, it can carry AGM-114 Hellfire missiles, lightweight torpedoes, and machine guns to neutralize hostile ships, fast attack craft, or suspicious vessels.
Why this question? Tests the manufacturer, primary roles, and weapon systems of a recently acquired defence platform—a common pattern in Defence and Security questions.
Why important for UPSC? India’s defence acquisitions, especially from the US, are frequently in news and are relevant for the Defence and Security syllabus.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the capabilities, manufacturers, and roles of defence platforms like Rafale, S-400, Apache, etc. (e.g., 2016, 2020, 2022).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct. The MH-60R Seahawk, often called the “Romeo,” is manufactured by Lockheed Martin, a major US defence contractor. It is an all-weather, state-of-the-art naval helicopter designed for multi-role operations from naval vessels.
- Statement 2 is correct. The MH-60R is specifically designed for anti-submarine warfare (ASW) and anti-surface warfare (ASuW), along with maritime surveillance, search and rescue, medical evacuation, and ship-borne operations. It is equipped with advanced sensors like the AN/AQS-22 ALFS dipping sonar and sonobuoys.
- Statement 3 is correct. For anti-submarine missions, the helicopter carries powerful Mk-54 torpedoes to detect, track, and engage underwater threats. For surface warfare missions, it can carry AGM-114 Hellfire missiles, lightweight torpedoes, and machine guns to neutralize hostile ships, fast attack craft, or suspicious vessels.
Why this question? Tests the manufacturer, primary roles, and weapon systems of a recently acquired defence platform—a common pattern in Defence and Security questions.
Why important for UPSC? India’s defence acquisitions, especially from the US, are frequently in news and are relevant for the Defence and Security syllabus.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the capabilities, manufacturers, and roles of defence platforms like Rafale, S-400, Apache, etc. (e.g., 2016, 2020, 2022).
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
The National Mission for Mentoring (NMM), launched by the Ministry of Education, is a flagship initiative aimed at:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is a flagship initiative of the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, launched in 2022.
- It aims to create a supportive environment where mentors (professionals and experts) share their knowledge, skills, and expertise with mentee teachers to help them become more effective teachers.
- The mission aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and is implemented by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).
Why this question? A straightforward one-liner testing the core objective of a government scheme.
Why important for UPSC? Government schemes related to education and teacher training are part of the Governance and Social Justice syllabus.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the objectives of schemes like NIPUN Bharat, Samagra Shiksha, or PM e-Vidya.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The National Mission for Mentoring (NMM) is a flagship initiative of the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, launched in 2022.
- It aims to create a supportive environment where mentors (professionals and experts) share their knowledge, skills, and expertise with mentee teachers to help them become more effective teachers.
- The mission aligns with the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and is implemented by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE).
Why this question? A straightforward one-liner testing the core objective of a government scheme.
Why important for UPSC? Government schemes related to education and teacher training are part of the Governance and Social Justice syllabus.
PYQ Pattern Link: Similar to PYQs that test the objectives of schemes like NIPUN Bharat, Samagra Shiksha, or PM e-Vidya.
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