IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) The recent hantavirus outbreak on the cruise ship MV Hondius has raised public health concerns. Which of the following statements about hantavirus is correct?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Hantaviruses are a group of zoonotic viruses (genus Orthohantavirus) primarily transmitted to humans from rodents, which are the natural reservoirs.
- The main route of infection is inhalation of aerosolized virus particles from infected rodent excreta (urine, droppings, saliva).
- The virus causes two main clinical syndromes: Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) in the Americas (fatality rate up to 50%) and Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS) in Europe and Asia (lower fatality rate).
- There is no specific antiviral treatment and no vaccine available; supportive care is the mainstay.
Option (a) is incorrect (viral, not bacterial). Option (c) is incorrect – human-to-human transmission is rare and documented only for specific strains like the Andes virus (ANDV). Option (d) is incorrect – no vaccine exists. UPSC tests this rodent-borne transmission.
Why this question?
Tests the primary mode of transmission of hantavirus – a current public health fact.Why important for UPSC?
Zoonotic diseases and outbreak response appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Hantaviruses are a group of zoonotic viruses (genus Orthohantavirus) primarily transmitted to humans from rodents, which are the natural reservoirs.
- The main route of infection is inhalation of aerosolized virus particles from infected rodent excreta (urine, droppings, saliva).
- The virus causes two main clinical syndromes: Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) in the Americas (fatality rate up to 50%) and Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS) in Europe and Asia (lower fatality rate).
- There is no specific antiviral treatment and no vaccine available; supportive care is the mainstay.
Option (a) is incorrect (viral, not bacterial). Option (c) is incorrect – human-to-human transmission is rare and documented only for specific strains like the Andes virus (ANDV). Option (d) is incorrect – no vaccine exists. UPSC tests this rodent-borne transmission.
Why this question?
Tests the primary mode of transmission of hantavirus – a current public health fact.Why important for UPSC?
Zoonotic diseases and outbreak response appear in Science & Tech and Health (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend). -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) The Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India and holds office “during the pleasure of the President.” The oath of office to the Governor is administered by which authority?
Correct
Q.2) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- According to Article 159 of the Constitution of India, every Governor must take an oath or affirmation before entering office, which is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state, or in their absence, the senior-most Judge of that High Court.
- The oath includes commitments to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the law. The Governor is appointed by the President (Article 155) and serves at the President‘s pleasure (Article 156), but the Chief Justice administers the oath.
Options (a) and (b) are incorrect. Option (d) is incorrect – the President appoints but does not administer the oath.
The recent delay in the swearing-in of the new Tamil Nadu Governor highlighted that the Constitution uses the phrase “as soon as possible” but does not prescribe a specific timeline. UPSC tests this constitutional provision.
Why this question?
Tests the authority that administers the Governor’s oath – a direct Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
The Governor‘s office and constitutional provisions appear in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- According to Article 159 of the Constitution of India, every Governor must take an oath or affirmation before entering office, which is administered by the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned state, or in their absence, the senior-most Judge of that High Court.
- The oath includes commitments to preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the law. The Governor is appointed by the President (Article 155) and serves at the President‘s pleasure (Article 156), but the Chief Justice administers the oath.
Options (a) and (b) are incorrect. Option (d) is incorrect – the President appoints but does not administer the oath.
The recent delay in the swearing-in of the new Tamil Nadu Governor highlighted that the Constitution uses the phrase “as soon as possible” but does not prescribe a specific timeline. UPSC tests this constitutional provision.
Why this question?
Tests the authority that administers the Governor’s oath – a direct Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
The Governor‘s office and constitutional provisions appear in Polity (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022). -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the NCRB ‘Crime in India 2024’ report released on May 6, 2026:
- Total cognisable crimes recorded in 2024 increased by 56% compared to the previous year.
- Cybercrime cases registered in 2024 increased by approximately 200% compared to 2023.
- The Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI) report for 2024 recorded a 50% decrease in drug overdose deaths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (d)
Explanation:
According to the NCRB Crime in India 2024 report released on May 6, 2026:- Statement 1 is incorrect: 58.86 lakh cognisable crimes were recorded, a 6% decline from the previous year.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: 1,01,928 cybercrime cases were registered in 2024, compared to 86,420 in 2023 – an increase of approximately 18%. Drivers include online financial frauds (UPI scams), social media-related crimes, and data theft.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI) 2024 report recorded a 50% increase in drug overdose deaths compared to 2023. Total suicides recorded were 1,70,746.
The report highlights the need for the TELE MANAS helpline (14416) for mental health support. NCRB was established in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Option (d) is correct. UPSC tests these numerical facts.
Why this question?
Tests the key statistics from the NCRB report – a current Internal Security fact.Why important for UPSC?
Crime statistics and internal security appear in Polity and Security (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (d)
Explanation:
According to the NCRB Crime in India 2024 report released on May 6, 2026:- Statement 1 is incorrect: 58.86 lakh cognisable crimes were recorded, a 6% decline from the previous year.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: 1,01,928 cybercrime cases were registered in 2024, compared to 86,420 in 2023 – an increase of approximately 18%. Drivers include online financial frauds (UPI scams), social media-related crimes, and data theft.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India (ADSI) 2024 report recorded a 50% increase in drug overdose deaths compared to 2023. Total suicides recorded were 1,70,746.
The report highlights the need for the TELE MANAS helpline (14416) for mental health support. NCRB was established in 1986 under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA). Option (d) is correct. UPSC tests these numerical facts.
Why this question?
Tests the key statistics from the NCRB report – a current Internal Security fact.Why important for UPSC?
Crime statistics and internal security appear in Polity and Security (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Assertion (A): Recurring urban fire tragedies in Indian cities, such as those in Shahdara, Palam, and Dwarka, highlight failures in basic fire safety measures, including blocked exits, inaccessible rescue routes, and electrical overloading.
Reason (R): The National Building Code (NBC) is mandatory for all states, and regular audits for electrical safety and fire NOC renewal are strictly enforced across the country.Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Assertion A is true: Recent fires (Shahdara, Palam, Dwarka) revealed systemic failures – blocked exits, inaccessible terraces, faulty lifts, metallic grills preventing rescue access, and electrical overloading (air-conditioners on wires not designed for such loads).
- Reason R is false: The National Building Code (NBC) is recommendatory, not mandatory for all states. Many states have not fully adopted its fire safety provisions, and fire NOC (No Objection Certificate) renewal is often ignored after occupancy. Electrical safety enforcement at the household level is poor, and poor-quality wires and breakers are widespread.
The focus on drones and robots for firefighting is a distraction when basic measures (hydrants, access roads, functioning equipment) are missing. The Supreme Court has held that delay in swearing-in a Governor is not desirable, but unlike the assertion, that is not relevant here. Option (c) is correct. UPSC tests this recommendatory vs mandatory distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the understanding that NBC is recommendatory, not mandatory – a common Polity and Disaster Management trap.Why important for UPSC?
Urban governance, disaster management, and building codes appear in Governance and Disaster Management (Prelims 2024, 2026).Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Assertion A is true: Recent fires (Shahdara, Palam, Dwarka) revealed systemic failures – blocked exits, inaccessible terraces, faulty lifts, metallic grills preventing rescue access, and electrical overloading (air-conditioners on wires not designed for such loads).
- Reason R is false: The National Building Code (NBC) is recommendatory, not mandatory for all states. Many states have not fully adopted its fire safety provisions, and fire NOC (No Objection Certificate) renewal is often ignored after occupancy. Electrical safety enforcement at the household level is poor, and poor-quality wires and breakers are widespread.
The focus on drones and robots for firefighting is a distraction when basic measures (hydrants, access roads, functioning equipment) are missing. The Supreme Court has held that delay in swearing-in a Governor is not desirable, but unlike the assertion, that is not relevant here. Option (c) is correct. UPSC tests this recommendatory vs mandatory distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the understanding that NBC is recommendatory, not mandatory – a common Polity and Disaster Management trap.Why important for UPSC?
Urban governance, disaster management, and building codes appear in Governance and Disaster Management (Prelims 2024, 2026). -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding India’s pension schemes as of March 31, 2026:
- The National Pension System (NPS) is a defined-contribution framework and not mandatory for all central government employees (except armed forces) recruited after 2004.
- The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS), effective from April 1, 2025, provides an assured, inflation-linked retirement income (minimum ₹10,000 per month) and is applicable to all central government employees.
- The Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is a voluntary, defined-contribution scheme for unorganised sector workers with a fixed monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 from age 60.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: NPS is a defined-contribution framework (employee and government contribute, benefits depend on accumulated corpus) and is mandatory for all central government recruits after 2004 (except armed forces). As of March 2026, NPS has 2.17 crore subscribers and AUM of ₹15.95 lakh crore.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) , effective April 1, 2025, is an optional framework under NPS for eligible central government employees. It provides an assured, inflation-linked retirement income (minimum ₹10,000 per month for those with at least 10 years of service), with Dearness Relief and family pension (60% to spouse after death).
- Statement 3 is correct: APY (launched 2015) is a voluntary, defined-contribution scheme for unorganised sector workers, with a fixed monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 from age 60. As of March 2026, APY has 8.96 crore enrolments and AUM of ₹51,400 crore.
The Old Pension Scheme (OPS) was a defined-benefit, DA-indexed pension funded entirely by the government. The shift from OPS to NPS improved fiscal sustainability, but coverage and adequacy remain challenges. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this defined-benefit vs defined-contribution distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the classification of pension schemes (defined-benefit vs defined-contribution) – a high-level Economy and Social Justice trap.Why important for UPSC?
Pension reforms and social security appear in Economy and Social Justice (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: NPS is a defined-contribution framework (employee and government contribute, benefits depend on accumulated corpus) and is mandatory for all central government recruits after 2004 (except armed forces). As of March 2026, NPS has 2.17 crore subscribers and AUM of ₹15.95 lakh crore.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) , effective April 1, 2025, is an optional framework under NPS for eligible central government employees. It provides an assured, inflation-linked retirement income (minimum ₹10,000 per month for those with at least 10 years of service), with Dearness Relief and family pension (60% to spouse after death).
- Statement 3 is correct: APY (launched 2015) is a voluntary, defined-contribution scheme for unorganised sector workers, with a fixed monthly pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 from age 60. As of March 2026, APY has 8.96 crore enrolments and AUM of ₹51,400 crore.
The Old Pension Scheme (OPS) was a defined-benefit, DA-indexed pension funded entirely by the government. The shift from OPS to NPS improved fiscal sustainability, but coverage and adequacy remain challenges. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this defined-benefit vs defined-contribution distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the classification of pension schemes (defined-benefit vs defined-contribution) – a high-level Economy and Social Justice trap.Why important for UPSC?
Pension reforms and social security appear in Economy and Social Justice (Prelims 2024, 2026 trend).
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