IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 37– CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
With regards to 5th Schedule of the Constitution, consider the following statements:
- The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution contains provisions regarding administration of Scheduled Areas other than in Northeast India.
- The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the Governor, after consultation with the President.
- The criteria for declaring an area as Scheduled Area is mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Declaration of 5th Schedule:
The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution contains provisions regarding administration of Scheduled Areas other than in Northeast India.As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare
to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
of India.The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.
The criteria followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area are
- Preponderance of tribal population
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area
- Under-developed nature of the area
- Marked disparity in economic standard of the people.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Declaration of 5th Schedule:
The Fifth Schedule under Article 244(1) of the Constitution contains provisions regarding administration of Scheduled Areas other than in Northeast India.As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare
to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
of India.The specification of “Scheduled Areas” in relation to a State is by a notified order of the President, after consultation with the Governor of that State.
The criteria followed for declaring an area as Scheduled Area are
- Preponderance of tribal population
- Compactness and reasonable size of the area
- Under-developed nature of the area
- Marked disparity in economic standard of the people.
These criteria are not spelt out in the Constitution of India but have become well established.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:
- The provisions for Sixth schedule are provided under Article 244 and Article 275 of the Constitution.
- It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Manipur.
- It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
About Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:
It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
About Sixth Schedule of the Constitution:
It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to safeguard the rights of the tribal population in these states.
This special provision is provided under Article 244(2) and Article 275(1) of the Constitution.
It seeks to safeguard the rights of the tribal population through the formation of Autonomous District Councils (ADC).
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Autonomous District Councils (ADC):
- They have powers to levy taxes, fees and tolls on buildings, land, animals, vehicles in their jurisdiction.
- Under any circumstances, the Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature do not apply to autonomous districts as they are given full autonomy.
- The Governor is vested with powers regarding the councils.
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
DCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.
Features:
- Provisions have been made for the creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of certain legislative and judicial powers. However, their jurisdiction is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court.
- They have powers to form courts to hear cases where both parties are members of Scheduled Tribes and the maximum sentence is less than 5 years in prison.
- They also have powers to levy taxes, fees and tolls on buildings, land, animals, vehicles, boats, entry of goods into the area, roads, ferries, bridges, employment and income and general taxes for the maintenance of schools and roads.
The Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The Governor is vested with powers regarding the councils. He/she, by public notification, may:
- Include or exclude any new area.
- Create a new autonomous district.
- Define the boundaries of any autonomous district.
- Increase or decrease the area of an existing autonomous district.
- Alter the name of any autonomous district
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
DCs are bodies representing a district to which the Constitution has given varying degrees of autonomy within the state legislature.
Features:
- Provisions have been made for the creation of the District Councils and regional councils for the exercise of certain legislative and judicial powers. However, their jurisdiction is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court.
- They have powers to form courts to hear cases where both parties are members of Scheduled Tribes and the maximum sentence is less than 5 years in prison.
- They also have powers to levy taxes, fees and tolls on buildings, land, animals, vehicles, boats, entry of goods into the area, roads, ferries, bridges, employment and income and general taxes for the maintenance of schools and roads.
The Acts of Parliament or the State Legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with specified modifications and exceptions.
The Governor is vested with powers regarding the councils. He/she, by public notification, may:
- Include or exclude any new area.
- Create a new autonomous district.
- Define the boundaries of any autonomous district.
- Increase or decrease the area of an existing autonomous district.
- Alter the name of any autonomous district
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following States are under the provisions of Fifth schedule:
- Andhra Pradesh
- Rajasthan
- Gujarat
- Himachal Pradesh
- West Bengal
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
There are 10 states having 5th scheduled areas:
- Andhra Pradesh
- Chhattisgarh
- Gujarat
- Himachal Pradesh
- Jharkhand
- Madhya Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
- Rajasthan
- Telangana
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
There are 10 states having 5th scheduled areas:
- Andhra Pradesh
- Chhattisgarh
- Gujarat
- Himachal Pradesh
- Jharkhand
- Madhya Pradesh
- Maharashtra
- Odisha
- Rajasthan
- Telangana
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Tribes Advisory Council:
- Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) have been constituted in all the ten states having Scheduled Areas.
- These are Constitutional bodies established under 245 of the Constitution.
- Tribes Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 30 members.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
According to the provisions, under Article 244(1) of Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas.
If the President directs, they also can be established in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein.
Tribes Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 20 members.
- Three-fourths shall be representatives of Scheduled Tribes in State Legislative Assembly provided that if number of representatives of STs in State Assembly is less than number of seats in TAC to be filled by such representatives, remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes.
Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) have been constituted in all the ten states having Scheduled Areas.
Further, the States of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand not having any notified Scheduled Area also have Tribes Advisory Council constituted therein. Accordingly, there is no State (mandated to establish TAC), which have not constituted TAC.
It shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
According to the provisions, under Article 244(1) of Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) shall be established in each State having Scheduled Areas.
If the President directs, they also can be established in any State having Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas therein.
Tribes Advisory Council shall consist of not more than 20 members.
- Three-fourths shall be representatives of Scheduled Tribes in State Legislative Assembly provided that if number of representatives of STs in State Assembly is less than number of seats in TAC to be filled by such representatives, remaining seats shall be filled by other members of those tribes.
Tribes Advisory Councils (TAC) have been constituted in all the ten states having Scheduled Areas.
Further, the States of West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Uttarakhand not having any notified Scheduled Area also have Tribes Advisory Council constituted therein. Accordingly, there is no State (mandated to establish TAC), which have not constituted TAC.
It shall be the duty of the Tribes Advisory Council to advise on such matters pertaining to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes in the State as may be referred to them by the Governor.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding Inter-State River Water Disputes in India:
River :: States
- Ravi and Beas: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
- Narmada: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana
- Krishna: Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
- Cauvery: Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 provides for setting up of tribunals for adjudication of inter-state river water disputes.
Some of the Major Inter-State River Disputes:
- Ravi and Beas: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
- Narmada: Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
- Krishna: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana
- Cauvery: Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
- Periyar: Tamil Nadu, Kerala
- Mahadayi: Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka
- Mahanadi: Chhattisgarh, Odisha
- Godavari: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha
- Vamsadhara: Andhra Pradesh & Odisha
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 provides for setting up of tribunals for adjudication of inter-state river water disputes.
Some of the Major Inter-State River Disputes:
- Ravi and Beas: Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan
- Narmada: Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Maharashtra, Rajasthan
- Krishna: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Telangana
- Cauvery: Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Puducherry
- Periyar: Tamil Nadu, Kerala
- Mahadayi: Goa, Maharashtra, Karnataka
- Mahanadi: Chhattisgarh, Odisha
- Godavari: Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha
- Vamsadhara: Andhra Pradesh & Odisha
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Zonal Councils in India:
- North-Eastern Council (NEC) was established under States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
- The Minister of Tribal Affairs is the ex-officio Chairman of NEC.
- The recommendations made by these bodies are advisory in nature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Zonal Councils
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
Each zonal council consists of the following members:
- Minister of Central government.
- Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone.
- Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
- Administrator of each union territory in the zone.
The Home Minister of Central government is the common Chairman of the five zonal councils
In addition to the above mentioned Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament, the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
- Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim.
- The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the
- The Union Home Minsiter is ex-officio Chairman.
These are advisory bodies that make recommendations with regard to any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning between the Centre and States border disputes, linguistic minorities, inter-State transport or matters connected with the reorganisation of States.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Zonal Councils
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
Each zonal council consists of the following members:
- Minister of Central government.
- Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone.
- Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
- Administrator of each union territory in the zone.
The Home Minister of Central government is the common Chairman of the five zonal councils
In addition to the above mentioned Zonal Councils, a North-Eastern Council was created by a separate Act of Parliament, the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
- Its members include Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Meghalaya, Tripura and Sikkim.
- The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of constituent States and three members to be nominated by the
- The Union Home Minsiter is ex-officio Chairman.
These are advisory bodies that make recommendations with regard to any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning between the Centre and States border disputes, linguistic minorities, inter-State transport or matters connected with the reorganisation of States.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
With reference to India, which of the following bodies releases the ‘Health Index’?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
NITI Aayog releases the State Health Index that provides incremental performance in health outcomes and status. The index is developed by: NITI Aayog, World Bank, and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
The State Health Index is annual tool to assess the performance of states and UTs. It is a weighted composite index based on 24 indicators grouped under the domains of ‘Health Outcomes’, ‘Governance and Information’, and ‘Key Inputs/Processes’. Each domain has been assigned weights based on its importance with higher score for outcome indicators.
To ensure comparison among similar entities, the ranking is categorized as ‘Larger States’, ‘Smaller States’ and ‘Union Territories’.
Among the ‘Larger States’, in terms of annual incremental performance, Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Telangana are the top three ranking states.
Among ‘Smaller States’, Mizoram and Meghalaya registered the maximum annual incremental progress.
Among UTs, Delhi, followed by Jammu and Kashmir, showed the best incremental performance.
On overall ranking based on the composite index score in 2019–20, the top-ranking states were Kerala and Tamil Nadu among the ‘Larger States’, Mizoram and Tripura among the ‘Smaller States’, and DH&DD and Chandigarh among the UTs.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
NITI Aayog releases the State Health Index that provides incremental performance in health outcomes and status. The index is developed by: NITI Aayog, World Bank, and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW).
The State Health Index is annual tool to assess the performance of states and UTs. It is a weighted composite index based on 24 indicators grouped under the domains of ‘Health Outcomes’, ‘Governance and Information’, and ‘Key Inputs/Processes’. Each domain has been assigned weights based on its importance with higher score for outcome indicators.
To ensure comparison among similar entities, the ranking is categorized as ‘Larger States’, ‘Smaller States’ and ‘Union Territories’.
Among the ‘Larger States’, in terms of annual incremental performance, Uttar Pradesh, Assam and Telangana are the top three ranking states.
Among ‘Smaller States’, Mizoram and Meghalaya registered the maximum annual incremental progress.
Among UTs, Delhi, followed by Jammu and Kashmir, showed the best incremental performance.
On overall ranking based on the composite index score in 2019–20, the top-ranking states were Kerala and Tamil Nadu among the ‘Larger States’, Mizoram and Tripura among the ‘Smaller States’, and DH&DD and Chandigarh among the UTs.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Co-operative federalism in India:
- In Cooperative federalism the Centre and states share a horizontal relationship,
where they cooperate in the larger public interest. - Rajamannar Committee is related to center-state relation and Seventh schedule is an Instrument to ensure cooperation between Centre and States.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
In Cooperative federalism the Centre and states share a horizontal relationship, where they “cooperate” in the larger public interest.
It is an important tool to enable states participation in the formulation and implementation of national policies.
Union and the states are constitutionally obliged to cooperate with each other on the matters specified in Schedule VII of the constitution.
Instruments to ensure co-operation between centre and states in India:
Seventh schedule: It clearly demarcates central, state and concurrent list based on the principle of subsidiary. Residuary power has been kept with centre.
Integrated Judiciary, All India Services: An integrated judicial system has been established to enforce both state as well as central laws. All India services provide another uniting factor in cooperative federalism.
Other mechanisms: National Development Council, NITI (National Initiative for Transforming India) Aayog, Finance commission under article 280 of the constitution various committees like Rajamannar Committee, Sarkaria commission, etc.
Rajamannar Committee is related to center-state relation and Seventh schedule is an Instruments to ensure cooperation between centre and states.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
In Cooperative federalism the Centre and states share a horizontal relationship, where they “cooperate” in the larger public interest.
It is an important tool to enable states participation in the formulation and implementation of national policies.
Union and the states are constitutionally obliged to cooperate with each other on the matters specified in Schedule VII of the constitution.
Instruments to ensure co-operation between centre and states in India:
Seventh schedule: It clearly demarcates central, state and concurrent list based on the principle of subsidiary. Residuary power has been kept with centre.
Integrated Judiciary, All India Services: An integrated judicial system has been established to enforce both state as well as central laws. All India services provide another uniting factor in cooperative federalism.
Other mechanisms: National Development Council, NITI (National Initiative for Transforming India) Aayog, Finance commission under article 280 of the constitution various committees like Rajamannar Committee, Sarkaria commission, etc.
Rajamannar Committee is related to center-state relation and Seventh schedule is an Instruments to ensure cooperation between centre and states.
- In Cooperative federalism the Centre and states share a horizontal relationship,
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Inter State Council:
- The Parliament of India can establish an Inter State council under article 263 of the Constitution.
- Union Home Minister will be the chairman of Inter State Council.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Art 263 contemplates the establishment of an inter-state council to effect coordination between the states and between centre and states
The President can establish such a council at any time it appears to him that public interest would be served by its establishment. He is also authorized to define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organization and procedure
Composition of the council:
- PM as chairman
- CM of all the states
- CM of UTS having legislative assemblies
- Administrators of UTs not having legislative assemblies
- Governors of states under President’s rule
- Six Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, to be nominated by the PM
- Five ministers of the cabinet rank are permanent invitees of the council
The council meeting are supposed to be held thrice a year and its decisions on all questions are decided by consensus
A standing committee of the council was setup in 1996 for continuous consultation and processing of matters for the consideration of the council. The chairman of this standing committee is Union Home Minister.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Art 263 contemplates the establishment of an inter-state council to effect coordination between the states and between centre and states
The President can establish such a council at any time it appears to him that public interest would be served by its establishment. He is also authorized to define the nature of duties to be performed by such a council and its organization and procedure
Composition of the council:
- PM as chairman
- CM of all the states
- CM of UTS having legislative assemblies
- Administrators of UTs not having legislative assemblies
- Governors of states under President’s rule
- Six Central cabinet ministers, including the home minister, to be nominated by the PM
- Five ministers of the cabinet rank are permanent invitees of the council
The council meeting are supposed to be held thrice a year and its decisions on all questions are decided by consensus
A standing committee of the council was setup in 1996 for continuous consultation and processing of matters for the consideration of the council. The chairman of this standing committee is Union Home Minister.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Deen Dayal Upadhyay Gram Jyoti scheme is mainly related to?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Ministry of Power, Government of India has launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana for rural areas with the following objectives:
- To provide electrification to all villages
- Feeder separation to ensure sufficient power to farmers and regular supply to other consumers
- Improvement of Sub-transmission and distribution network to improve the quality and reliability of the supply
- Metering to reduce the losses
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The Ministry of Power, Government of India has launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana for rural areas with the following objectives:
- To provide electrification to all villages
- Feeder separation to ensure sufficient power to farmers and regular supply to other consumers
- Improvement of Sub-transmission and distribution network to improve the quality and reliability of the supply
- Metering to reduce the losses
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
MyGov platform is designed, developed and hosted by which of the following agencies in India?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
MyGov has been established as Government of India’s Citizen Engagement Platform which collaborates with multiple Government bodies/ Ministries to engage with citizens for policy formulation and seeks the opinion of people on issues/ topics of public interest and welfare.
This platform is designed, developed and hosted by National Informatics Centre, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, Government of India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
MyGov has been established as Government of India’s Citizen Engagement Platform which collaborates with multiple Government bodies/ Ministries to engage with citizens for policy formulation and seeks the opinion of people on issues/ topics of public interest and welfare.
This platform is designed, developed and hosted by National Informatics Centre, Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, Government of India.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Atal Mission for Rejuventation and Urban Transformation 2.0 (AMRUT 2.0):
- The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme.
- It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and septage in 100 AMRUT cities.
- Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater and mapping of water bodies.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
AMRUT mission was launched in June 2015 to ensure that every household has access to a tap with the assured supply of water and a sewerage connection.
AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply to all households in around 4,700 ULBs (Urban Local Bodies).
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme.
It also seeks to promote Atmanirbhar Bharat through encouraging Startups and Entrepreneurs.
Objectives:
- It will build upon the progress of AMRUT to address water needs, rejuvenate water bodies, better manage aquifers, reuse treated wastewater, thereby promoting a circular economy of water.
- It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and septage in 500 AMRUT cities.
- Recycling and reuse of treated wastewater is expected to cater to 20% of total water needs of the cities and 40% of industrial demand. Under the Mission, fresh water bodies will be protected from getting polluted to make natural resources sustainable.
- Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater and mapping of water bodies.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
AMRUT mission was launched in June 2015 to ensure that every household has access to a tap with the assured supply of water and a sewerage connection.
AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply to all households in around 4,700 ULBs (Urban Local Bodies).
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme.
It also seeks to promote Atmanirbhar Bharat through encouraging Startups and Entrepreneurs.
Objectives:
- It will build upon the progress of AMRUT to address water needs, rejuvenate water bodies, better manage aquifers, reuse treated wastewater, thereby promoting a circular economy of water.
- It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and septage in 500 AMRUT cities.
- Recycling and reuse of treated wastewater is expected to cater to 20% of total water needs of the cities and 40% of industrial demand. Under the Mission, fresh water bodies will be protected from getting polluted to make natural resources sustainable.
- Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater and mapping of water bodies.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With reference to National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana, consider the following statements:
- This scheme aims to preserve and revitalise heritage cities of India to reflect their unique character.
- It is a central sector scheme.
- Some cities included in this scheme are Velankanni, Warangal, Agra, Amritsar amongst others.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
HRIDAY scheme called National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on 21st January 2015
This scheme aimed to preserve and revitalise heritage cities of India to reflect their unique character.
It also encourages the development of an aesthetically appealing, accessible, informative and secured environment in heritage cities.
Below are the cities that are listed under the HRIDAY Scheme:
- Ajmer
- Amravati
- Badami
- Gaya
- Mathura
- Puri
- Varanasi
- Velankanni
- Warangal
- Dwarka
- Kanchipuram
- Amritsar
Agra is not included.
HRIDAY is a central sector scheme, where 100% funding will be provided by Government of India.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
HRIDAY scheme called National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on 21st January 2015
This scheme aimed to preserve and revitalise heritage cities of India to reflect their unique character.
It also encourages the development of an aesthetically appealing, accessible, informative and secured environment in heritage cities.
Below are the cities that are listed under the HRIDAY Scheme:
- Ajmer
- Amravati
- Badami
- Gaya
- Mathura
- Puri
- Varanasi
- Velankanni
- Warangal
- Dwarka
- Kanchipuram
- Amritsar
Agra is not included.
HRIDAY is a central sector scheme, where 100% funding will be provided by Government of India.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana:
- Nominated Members of Parliament are not eligible to choose a Gram Panchayat under this scheme.
- The scheme was launched in 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana:
The scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th October, 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan.
Under the Yojana, Members of Parliament (MPs) are responsible for developing the socio-economic and physical infrastructure of three villages each by 2019, and a total of eight villages each by 2024. The first Adarsh Gram (Model Village) was to be developed by 2016, and two more by 2019.
From 2019 to 2024, five more Adarsh Grams must be developed by each MP, one each year. This implies that a total of 6,433 Adarsh Grams, of the 2,65,000 gram panchayats, will be created by 2024.
The MP will identify one Gram Panchayat to be taken up immediately, and two others to be taken up a little later.
Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and Rajya Sabha MP a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected.
Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana:
The scheme was launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11th October, 2014 on the birth anniversary of Jai Prakash Narayan.
Under the Yojana, Members of Parliament (MPs) are responsible for developing the socio-economic and physical infrastructure of three villages each by 2019, and a total of eight villages each by 2024. The first Adarsh Gram (Model Village) was to be developed by 2016, and two more by 2019.
From 2019 to 2024, five more Adarsh Grams must be developed by each MP, one each year. This implies that a total of 6,433 Adarsh Grams, of the 2,65,000 gram panchayats, will be created by 2024.
The MP will identify one Gram Panchayat to be taken up immediately, and two others to be taken up a little later.
Lok Sabha MP has to choose a Gram Panchayat from within his/her constituency and Rajya Sabha MP a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of a district of his/her choice in the State from which he/she is elected.
Nominated MPs may choose a Gram Panchayat from the rural area of any district in the country. In the case of urban constituencies, (where there are no Gram Panchayats), the MP will identify a Gram Panchayat from a nearby rural constituency.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes falls under which of the following category?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Distribution of Tax Revenues:
Taxes Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the States (Article 268): This category includes the following taxes and duties:
(i) Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, policies of insurance, transfer of shares and others.
(ii) Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol and narcotics.
The proceeds of these duties levied within any state do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but are assigned to that state.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Distribution of Tax Revenues:
Taxes Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the States (Article 268): This category includes the following taxes and duties:
(i) Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques, promissory notes, policies of insurance, transfer of shares and others.
(ii) Excise duties on medicinal and toilet preparations containing alcohol and narcotics.
The proceeds of these duties levied within any state do not form a part of the Consolidated Fund of India, but are assigned to that state.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD) in India:
- It is a Central Autonomous Organization attached to NITI Aayog.
- It’s campus is located in Narela, Delhi.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Government of India established the National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD) in 1962. It is a Central Autonomous Organization attached to NITI Aayog, Ministry of Planning.
The primary objectives of this Institution include research and data collection in relation to all major aspects of development, and education and training in all aspects of Human Capital Planning, Human Resource Development and Monitoring and Evaluation.
The Institute moved to its own campus at Narela in 2002. Narela is a developing urban and
institutional hub declared as a special economic zone for knowledge in the National Capital
RegionIncorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Government of India established the National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD) in 1962. It is a Central Autonomous Organization attached to NITI Aayog, Ministry of Planning.
The primary objectives of this Institution include research and data collection in relation to all major aspects of development, and education and training in all aspects of Human Capital Planning, Human Resource Development and Monitoring and Evaluation.
The Institute moved to its own campus at Narela in 2002. Narela is a developing urban and
institutional hub declared as a special economic zone for knowledge in the National Capital
Region -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Finance Commission:
- It is a Constitutional body appointed by the President of India under article 281.
- The Fifteenth Finance Commission has recommended the share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period to be 42%.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by
the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the
President on the following matters:- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
In November 2017, the President of India appointed the 15th Finance Commission, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. It will make suggestions for a five-year period, from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Recommendation for the Share of states in central taxes: The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.
This is less than the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission for 2015-20 period. The adjustment of 1% is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the centre.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 280 provides for a Finance Commission as a quasi-judicial body. It is constituted by
the President every fifth year or even earlier. It is required to make recommendations to the
President on the following matters:- The distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between the Centre and the states, and the allocation between the states, the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the Centre (i.e., out of the Consolidated Fund of India).
- The measures needed to augment the consolidated fund of a state to supplement the resources of the panchayats and the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the State Finance Commission.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
In November 2017, the President of India appointed the 15th Finance Commission, under the chairmanship of NK Singh. It will make suggestions for a five-year period, from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
Recommendation for the Share of states in central taxes: The share of states in the central taxes for the 2021-26 period is recommended to be 41%, same as that for 2020-21.
This is less than the 42% share recommended by the 14th Finance Commission for 2015-20 period. The adjustment of 1% is to provide for the newly formed union territories of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh from the resources of the centre.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
The Inter State comity in India is checked through which of the following?
- Adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
- Coordination through inter-state councils.
- Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse.
- Mutual recognition of public acts, records and judicial proceedings.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The successful functioning of the Indian federal system depends not only on the harmonious
relations and close cooperation between the Centre and the states but also between the
states inter se.Hence, the Constitution makes the following provisions with regard to interstate comity:
- Adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
2. Coordination through inter-state councils.
3. Mutual recognition of public acts, records and judicial proceedings.
4. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The successful functioning of the Indian federal system depends not only on the harmonious
relations and close cooperation between the Centre and the states but also between the
states inter se.Hence, the Constitution makes the following provisions with regard to interstate comity:
- Adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
2. Coordination through inter-state councils.
3. Mutual recognition of public acts, records and judicial proceedings.
4. Freedom of inter-state trade, commerce and intercourse.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Residuary powers in India:
- Parliament has the sole authority to make laws under this list.
- The idea of residuary powers has been taken adopted from the Constitution of Australia.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Subjects that do not fall in either the Union, State or the Concurrent List are known as the residuary subjects.
Article 248 vests the residuary powers in the parliament. It says that parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List.
The idea of Residuary Powers has been taken from the Canadian Constitution
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Subjects that do not fall in either the Union, State or the Concurrent List are known as the residuary subjects.
Article 248 vests the residuary powers in the parliament. It says that parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or the State List.
The idea of Residuary Powers has been taken from the Canadian Constitution
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Hoysala architecture’:
- Soft soapstone was the main building material
- It contains elements of Nagara architecture
- It is also influenced by ‘Bhumija’ mode of Central India
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Hoysala architecture is characterised by a complex profusion of sculpture decorating all the temple parts chiselled of soft soapstone (chloritic schist), a good material for intricate carving, executed mostly by local craftsmen, and exhibit architectural features that distinguish them from other temple architectures of South India The Hoysala architects used their profound knowledge of temple architecture in different parts of India, and these temples have a basic Dravidian morphology but show strong influences of the the Nagara traditions of Northern and Western India, and the Karntata Dravida modes favoured by the Kalyani Chalukyas Hoysala architecture also shows influence of Bhumija mode widely used in Central India. Context – Hoysala architecture was nominated for world heritage tag
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Hoysala architecture is characterised by a complex profusion of sculpture decorating all the temple parts chiselled of soft soapstone (chloritic schist), a good material for intricate carving, executed mostly by local craftsmen, and exhibit architectural features that distinguish them from other temple architectures of South India The Hoysala architects used their profound knowledge of temple architecture in different parts of India, and these temples have a basic Dravidian morphology but show strong influences of the the Nagara traditions of Northern and Western India, and the Karntata Dravida modes favoured by the Kalyani Chalukyas Hoysala architecture also shows influence of Bhumija mode widely used in Central India. Context – Hoysala architecture was nominated for world heritage tag
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Prime Minister’s Development Initiative For North-East (PM-DevINE)’ scheme
- It will fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-Eastern region
- Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region will implement the scheme
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The scheme will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the North-East. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors. PM-DevINE will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council. An initial allocation of Rs. 1,500 crore will be made for the new scheme. Context – This scheme was announced in the Union Budget.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The scheme will fund infrastructure, in the spirit of PM GatiShakti, and social development projects based on felt needs of the North-East. This will enable livelihood activities for youth and women, filling the gaps in various sectors. PM-DevINE will be implemented through the North-Eastern Council. An initial allocation of Rs. 1,500 crore will be made for the new scheme. Context – This scheme was announced in the Union Budget.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
‘Shivay , Siddhi , Pravega ’ seen in news recently are
Correct
Solution (c)
Shivay, Siddhi, Pravega are super computers under PARAM series. PARAM also stands for Parallel machine.
Context – The supercomputers were recently commissioned.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Shivay, Siddhi, Pravega are super computers under PARAM series. PARAM also stands for Parallel machine.
Context – The supercomputers were recently commissioned.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following applications
- Dumping fly ash
- Pisciculture
- Afforestation
- Drinking water storage
- Eco and mine tourism
Which of the above activities can be done by making use of abandoned coal mines?
Correct
Solution (d)
Abandoned coal mines are used for the following purposes:
- Dumping /Filling of fly ash in to the worked out area for suitable reclamation.
- Development of eco and mine tourism parks
- Afforestation
- Pisciculture
- Source to supply of drinking water and other domestic use.
- Generation of sand from overburden of opencast mines at few places
Context – This information was given by Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs Shri Pralhad Joshi in a written reply in Rajya Sabha
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Abandoned coal mines are used for the following purposes:
- Dumping /Filling of fly ash in to the worked out area for suitable reclamation.
- Development of eco and mine tourism parks
- Afforestation
- Pisciculture
- Source to supply of drinking water and other domestic use.
- Generation of sand from overburden of opencast mines at few places
Context – This information was given by Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs Shri Pralhad Joshi in a written reply in Rajya Sabha
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Coastal Vulnerability Index (CVI)
- Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) which comes under Ministry of Earth Sciences has brought out Coastal Vulnerability Index(CVI)
- According to this survey, Gujarat’s coast is going to be the most affected by terms of percentage
- CVI determine the coastal risks due to future sea-level rise based on the physical and geological parameters for the Indian coast
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) which comes under Ministry of Earth Sciences has brought out Coastal Vulnerability Index(CVI) It can be delineated that Gujarat’s 124 coastal kilometers is going to get affected or 5.36%, Maharashtra 11 km or 1.22% and then Karnataka & Goa 48 km or 9.54%, Kerala 15 km or 2.39%, Tamil Nadu 65 km or 6.38%, Andhra Pradesh 6 km or 0.55 %, Odisha 37 km or 7.51% West Bengal 49 km or 2.56%, Lakshadweep Islands 1 km or 0.81%, Andaman Islands 24 km or 0.96km and Nicobar Islands 8 km or 0.97%. It is terms of length that Gujarat’s coast is going to be affected While the maps determine the coastal risks due to future sea-level rise based on the physical and geological parameters for the Indian coast, the CVI uses the relative risk that physical changes will occur as sea-level rises are quantified based on parameters like: tidal range; wave height; coastal slope; coastal elevation; shoreline change rate; geomorphology; and historical rate of relative sea-level change Context – CVI was released
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) which comes under Ministry of Earth Sciences has brought out Coastal Vulnerability Index(CVI) It can be delineated that Gujarat’s 124 coastal kilometers is going to get affected or 5.36%, Maharashtra 11 km or 1.22% and then Karnataka & Goa 48 km or 9.54%, Kerala 15 km or 2.39%, Tamil Nadu 65 km or 6.38%, Andhra Pradesh 6 km or 0.55 %, Odisha 37 km or 7.51% West Bengal 49 km or 2.56%, Lakshadweep Islands 1 km or 0.81%, Andaman Islands 24 km or 0.96km and Nicobar Islands 8 km or 0.97%. It is terms of length that Gujarat’s coast is going to be affected While the maps determine the coastal risks due to future sea-level rise based on the physical and geological parameters for the Indian coast, the CVI uses the relative risk that physical changes will occur as sea-level rises are quantified based on parameters like: tidal range; wave height; coastal slope; coastal elevation; shoreline change rate; geomorphology; and historical rate of relative sea-level change Context – CVI was released
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The average weight of a class of 30 students is 40 kg. If the weight of the teacher is included, the average weight increases by 500 gm. The weight of the teacher is
Correct
Solution (c)
The average weight of 30 students = 40 kg
After including the teacher, the average weight of 30 students + teacher = 40.5
30 * 40 + t = 31 * 40.5
1200 + t = 1250.5
t = 1250.5 – 1200 = 50.5 kg
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The average weight of 30 students = 40 kg
After including the teacher, the average weight of 30 students + teacher = 40.5
30 * 40 + t = 31 * 40.5
1200 + t = 1250.5
t = 1250.5 – 1200 = 50.5 kg
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The average of 5 consecutive numbers is 18. The highest of these numbers will be
Correct
Solution (b)
The numbers would form an arithmetic progression with common difference 1 and the average of 5 numbers is the middle number( 3rd number)
The numbers are 16,17,18,19 and 20. The highest number is 20.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The numbers would form an arithmetic progression with common difference 1 and the average of 5 numbers is the middle number( 3rd number)
The numbers are 16,17,18,19 and 20. The highest number is 20.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The average age of a family of 4 members was 17 four years ago. The average age of the family presently is the same with the addition of a new member. What is the age of the new member?
Correct
Solution (b)
The total numbers of years of the family of four 4 years ago = 4 * 17 = 68
The total numbers of years of the family of 5 presently = (17 + 4) * 4 + x = 85
= 21 * 4 + x = 85 years
= x = 85 – 84 = 1 year.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The total numbers of years of the family of four 4 years ago = 4 * 17 = 68
The total numbers of years of the family of 5 presently = (17 + 4) * 4 + x = 85
= 21 * 4 + x = 85 years
= x = 85 – 84 = 1 year.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
In an examination, the average marks were 70. On catching an error, it was found that the marks of 80 students had changed from 90 marks to 60 marks per student. The average also reduced to 50 marks. Find how many students took the exam?
Correct
Solution (d)
The average marks = 70
Marks reduced of 80 students = 30
Formula used: Average = Sum of observation/Total number of observation
Calculation;
Let the total number of students appeared to be n
And let the sum of marks of total student be S
average marks = S/n = 70 ⇒ S = 70n —-(i)
Now, after deducting 30 marks as the score is reduced from 90 to 60 of 80 students
the new sum of marks = S – 2400
new average = (S – 2400)/n = 50
Now, from equation. (1), we know that S = 70n
⇒ 70n – 2400 = 50n
⇒ 20n = 2400
⇒ n = 120
∴ Total number of students who appeared for an exam = 120.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The average marks = 70
Marks reduced of 80 students = 30
Formula used: Average = Sum of observation/Total number of observation
Calculation;
Let the total number of students appeared to be n
And let the sum of marks of total student be S
average marks = S/n = 70 ⇒ S = 70n —-(i)
Now, after deducting 30 marks as the score is reduced from 90 to 60 of 80 students
the new sum of marks = S – 2400
new average = (S – 2400)/n = 50
Now, from equation. (1), we know that S = 70n
⇒ 70n – 2400 = 50n
⇒ 20n = 2400
⇒ n = 120
∴ Total number of students who appeared for an exam = 120.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
As defined by the geographer Yi-Fu Tuan, Topophilia is the affective bond between people and place. His 1974 book set forth a wide-ranging exploration of how the emotive ties with the material environment vary greatly from person to person and in intensity, subtlety, and mode of expression. Factors influencing one’s depth of response to the environment include cultural background, gender, race, and historical circumstance, and Tuan also argued that there is a biological and sensory element. Topophilia might not be the strongest of human emotions— indeed, many people feel utterly indifferent toward the environments that shape their lives— but when activated it has the power to elevate a place to become the carrier of emotionally charged events or to be perceived as a symbol.
Topophilia—and its very close conceptual twin, sense of place—is an experience that, however elusive, has inspired recent architects and planners. Most notably, new urbanism seeks to counter the perceived placelessness of modern suburbs and the decline of central cities through neo-traditional design motifs. Although motivated by good intentions, such attempts to create places rich in meaning are perhaps bound to disappoint. As Tuan noted, purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly revealed, but their intensity rarely is long- lasting. Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify, and its most articulate interpreters have been self-reflective philosophers such as Henry David Thoreau, evoking a marvelously intricate sense of place at Walden Pond, and Tuan, describing his deep affinity for the desert.
Topophilia connotes a positive relationship, but it often is useful to explore the darker affiliations between people and place. Patriotism, literally meaning the love of one’s terra patria or homeland, has long been cultivated by governing elites for a range of nationalist projects, including war preparation and ethnic cleansing. Residents of upscale residential developments have disclosed how important it is to maintain their community’s distinct identity, often by casting themselves in a superior social position and by reinforcing class and racial differences. And just as a beloved landscape is suddenly revealed, so too may landscapes of fear cast a dark shadow over a place that makes one feel a sense of dread or anxiety—or topophobia.
Q.30) Which one of the following best captures the meaning of the statement, “Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify…”?
Correct
Solution (b)
Note the line before the statement that Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify: ‘As Tuan noted, purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly revealed, but their intensity rarely is long-lasting’. So, the reason why Topophilia is difficult to design for is that people’s responses to their environment are subjective, sudden and short-lived.
Hence, option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Note the line before the statement that Topophilia is difficult to design for and impossible to quantify: ‘As Tuan noted, purely aesthetic responses often are suddenly revealed, but their intensity rarely is long-lasting’. So, the reason why Topophilia is difficult to design for is that people’s responses to their environment are subjective, sudden and short-lived.
Hence, option b is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba