IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements about National Savings Certificate (NSC)
- It is a fixed-income investment scheme primarily for low- to mid-income investors.
- The amount of NSCs that can be purchased has no upper limit.
- NSC certificates are accepted as collateral or security for secured loans in Banks and NBFCs
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct · It is a fixed-income investment scheme launched by the government of India. · It aims at encouraging users, who are primarily low- to mid-income investors, to invest as well as save taxes.
· You can invest in NSC from the nearest post office in your name, for a minor or with another adult as a joint account.
· Eligibility Criteria for NSC:
· Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Trusts, and Private and public limited companies are not eligible to invest in NSC.
· The individual must be a resident Indian citizen. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in NSC.
· There is no age limit for individuals to purchase an NSC.
· Interest Rates: The certificates earn an annual fixed interest, which is revised every quarter by the government, thus guaranteeing a regular income for the investor. · Maturity Period: Five years.
· The amount of NSCs that can be purchased has no upper limit.
· Tax Saver: As a government-backed tax-saving scheme, the principal invested in NSC qualifies for tax savings under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act up to Rs. 1.5 lakhs annually.
· Accessible: It can be easily bought from any post office on submission of the required KYC documents. Also, it is easy to transfer the certificate from one PO to another, as well as from one person to another, without impacting the interest accrual/maturity of the original certificate. · Loan Collaterals: NSC certificates are accepted as collateral or security for secured loans in Banks and NBFCs.
· Premature Withdrawal: Generally, one cannot exit the scheme early except on the death of an investor, on a court order, or on forfeiture by a pledgee who is a Gazetted Government Officer for it.
Context: The Prime Minister recently declared Rs 9.12 lakh investment in the National Savings Certificate (NSC) scheme in his nomination filing.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct · It is a fixed-income investment scheme launched by the government of India. · It aims at encouraging users, who are primarily low- to mid-income investors, to invest as well as save taxes.
· You can invest in NSC from the nearest post office in your name, for a minor or with another adult as a joint account.
· Eligibility Criteria for NSC:
· Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs), Trusts, and Private and public limited companies are not eligible to invest in NSC.
· The individual must be a resident Indian citizen. Non-resident Indians (NRIs) are not eligible to invest in NSC.
· There is no age limit for individuals to purchase an NSC.
· Interest Rates: The certificates earn an annual fixed interest, which is revised every quarter by the government, thus guaranteeing a regular income for the investor. · Maturity Period: Five years.
· The amount of NSCs that can be purchased has no upper limit.
· Tax Saver: As a government-backed tax-saving scheme, the principal invested in NSC qualifies for tax savings under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act up to Rs. 1.5 lakhs annually.
· Accessible: It can be easily bought from any post office on submission of the required KYC documents. Also, it is easy to transfer the certificate from one PO to another, as well as from one person to another, without impacting the interest accrual/maturity of the original certificate. · Loan Collaterals: NSC certificates are accepted as collateral or security for secured loans in Banks and NBFCs.
· Premature Withdrawal: Generally, one cannot exit the scheme early except on the death of an investor, on a court order, or on forfeiture by a pledgee who is a Gazetted Government Officer for it.
Context: The Prime Minister recently declared Rs 9.12 lakh investment in the National Savings Certificate (NSC) scheme in his nomination filing.
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements about Materiovigilance Programme of India
- It aims to improve Indian patient safety by analysing risks associated with the use of medical devices in the country.
- Union Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers is the nodal ministry to implement the programme.
Choose the incorrect statements:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It was launched on July 6, 2015 to monitor the safety of medical devices in the country. · It aims to collect data on medical device related adverse events systematically and scientifically analyze them to aid in regulatory decisions and recommendations on safe use of medical devices.
· Objective: To improve Indian patient safety by monitoring, recording and analysing the root cause of adverse events or risks associated with the use of medical devices including in-vitro diagnostics by healthcare professionals or patients/users and suggesting regulatory bodies for appropriate action with the sole intention of improving patient safety.
· It is an important program for reporting of adverse events, coordinated analysis etc related to the medical devices including in-vitro diagnostic devices.
· The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) functions as National Coordination Centre (NCC) since 2018. · It is regulated by the Central Drugs Standards Control Organization (CDSCO).
· Medical devices consist of electronic equipment, implant, consumables and disposables, surgical instruments and in-vitro diagnostic reagents, among others.
· Currently, all medical devices in India are regulated by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Medical Device Rule, 2017.
· At present, India is 80% dependent on imports for medical devices.
· Nodal Ministry: Ministry Of Health and Family Welfare
Context: Recently, the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) directed all medical device licence holders and manufacturers to report any adverse events related to life-saving medical equipment on the government’s Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) platform.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It was launched on July 6, 2015 to monitor the safety of medical devices in the country. · It aims to collect data on medical device related adverse events systematically and scientifically analyze them to aid in regulatory decisions and recommendations on safe use of medical devices.
· Objective: To improve Indian patient safety by monitoring, recording and analysing the root cause of adverse events or risks associated with the use of medical devices including in-vitro diagnostics by healthcare professionals or patients/users and suggesting regulatory bodies for appropriate action with the sole intention of improving patient safety.
· It is an important program for reporting of adverse events, coordinated analysis etc related to the medical devices including in-vitro diagnostic devices.
· The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) functions as National Coordination Centre (NCC) since 2018. · It is regulated by the Central Drugs Standards Control Organization (CDSCO).
· Medical devices consist of electronic equipment, implant, consumables and disposables, surgical instruments and in-vitro diagnostic reagents, among others.
· Currently, all medical devices in India are regulated by the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Medical Device Rule, 2017.
· At present, India is 80% dependent on imports for medical devices.
· Nodal Ministry: Ministry Of Health and Family Welfare
Context: Recently, the Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) directed all medical device licence holders and manufacturers to report any adverse events related to life-saving medical equipment on the government’s Materiovigilance Programme of India (MvPI) platform.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements about Sea Otters
- Sea Otter as a keystone species helps hold the marine ecosystem together.
- The Asian Small Clawed otter, and the Eurasian otter are the only two otter species found in India.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It is an aquatic member of the weasel family, found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia. · It’s a keystone species, which means that the health of sea otters is a good indication of the health of other species and ecosystems nearby.
· It plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of marine ecosystems. By preying on sea urchins, they help control the population of these spiny creatures.
· Without otters, sea urchins can overpopulate and decimate kelp forests. These kelp forests are vital habitats for a myriad of marine life, offering shelter and food for numerous species.
· The presence of sea otters helps sustain the biodiversity and health of these underwater forests.
· There are 13 species of otters in the world, three of which are found in India: the Smooth Coated otter, the Asian Small Clawed otter, and the Eurasian otter. Asian Small Clawed otter
· The small-clawed otter is the smallest otter species, with a slender and streamlined body. It has short, sleek fur that is usually dark brown on the back and lighter on the underside. One of its distinctive features is its small, partially webbed claws, which are ideal for manipulating objects and catching prey.
· In India, the Asian Small-Clawed Otter is found from the Himalayan foothills of Himachal Pradesh to West Bengal, Northeast India, as well as in southern Indian hill ranges of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala and eastern India of Odisha.
Eurasian Otter
· Slightly smaller than the Smooth-coated Otter, Eurasian Otters (Lutra lutra) measure about 1.2 meters in length and between 6 to 12kg in weight.
· In India, Eurasian Otters are mainly found in the Himalayan foothills and the southern parts of the Western Ghats, where they occupy mountain streams and cold hilly areas. The Himalayan otters have been observed to migrate to the lowlands during winter.
Smooth-coated Otter
· Largest among the otters found in India, Smooth-coated Otters (Lutrogale perspicillata) measure about 1.3 metres in length and weigh about 11kg.
· Smooth-coated Otters are found throughout India, and they occupy a range of water bodies like rivers, lakes, estuaries and inundated rice fields. They also reside in mangrove forests and semi-arid regions.
Context: It was in news.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It is an aquatic member of the weasel family, found along the coasts of the Pacific Ocean in North America and Asia. · It’s a keystone species, which means that the health of sea otters is a good indication of the health of other species and ecosystems nearby.
· It plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of marine ecosystems. By preying on sea urchins, they help control the population of these spiny creatures.
· Without otters, sea urchins can overpopulate and decimate kelp forests. These kelp forests are vital habitats for a myriad of marine life, offering shelter and food for numerous species.
· The presence of sea otters helps sustain the biodiversity and health of these underwater forests.
· There are 13 species of otters in the world, three of which are found in India: the Smooth Coated otter, the Asian Small Clawed otter, and the Eurasian otter. Asian Small Clawed otter
· The small-clawed otter is the smallest otter species, with a slender and streamlined body. It has short, sleek fur that is usually dark brown on the back and lighter on the underside. One of its distinctive features is its small, partially webbed claws, which are ideal for manipulating objects and catching prey.
· In India, the Asian Small-Clawed Otter is found from the Himalayan foothills of Himachal Pradesh to West Bengal, Northeast India, as well as in southern Indian hill ranges of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala and eastern India of Odisha.
Eurasian Otter
· Slightly smaller than the Smooth-coated Otter, Eurasian Otters (Lutra lutra) measure about 1.2 meters in length and between 6 to 12kg in weight.
· In India, Eurasian Otters are mainly found in the Himalayan foothills and the southern parts of the Western Ghats, where they occupy mountain streams and cold hilly areas. The Himalayan otters have been observed to migrate to the lowlands during winter.
Smooth-coated Otter
· Largest among the otters found in India, Smooth-coated Otters (Lutrogale perspicillata) measure about 1.3 metres in length and weigh about 11kg.
· Smooth-coated Otters are found throughout India, and they occupy a range of water bodies like rivers, lakes, estuaries and inundated rice fields. They also reside in mangrove forests and semi-arid regions.
Context: It was in news.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements about Political Parties
- The Representation of the People Act, 1951lays down the requirements for registration of a political party with the ECI
- Political parties are recognised as a ‘national’ or ‘State’ party under the provisions of the Election Symbols Order, 1968.
- The Election Commission of India can derecognize a political party if it fails to contest elections for 10 consecutive years.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) lays down the requirements for registration of a political party with the ECI. · A registered party is referred to as a Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP).
· Any party seeking to register must bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
· It should also bear allegiance to the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy, and uphold the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
· As per the ECI, there are 2,790 active registered political parties in India.
Benefits for Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP) · Tax exemption for donations received under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
· Common symbol for contesting general elections to the Lok Sabha/State Assemblies.
· Twenty ‘star campaigners’ during election campaign.
· Recognised parties – Political parties are recognised as a ‘national’ or ‘State’ party under the provisions of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (Symbols Order) by the ECI.
· Issues – Only about one-third of RUPPs contest and others do not contest elections, potentially misusing their status for tax exemptions and money laundering. · People Act, 1951 (RP Act) does not grant the ECI explicit authority to de-register inactive parties unless under exceptional circumstances such as fraud or loss of allegiance to the Constitution.
· The Supreme Court’s ruling in Indian National Congress vs. Institute of Social Welfare & Ors (2002) reaffirmed this limitation, creating a regulatory gap.
· Recognized parties have been found violating the Model Code of Conduct prohibitions against using caste/communal appeals and voter intimidation/bribing.
· Despite frequent violations by recognised parties, the ECI’s response often involves short-term campaign bans, which are insufficient deterrents.
Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI), in its report has expressed concern over the behaviour of star campaigners and their potential to vitiate the election atmosphere.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RP Act) lays down the requirements for registration of a political party with the ECI. · A registered party is referred to as a Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP).
· Any party seeking to register must bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
· It should also bear allegiance to the principles of socialism, secularism and democracy, and uphold the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
· As per the ECI, there are 2,790 active registered political parties in India.
Benefits for Registered Unrecognised Political Party (RUPP) · Tax exemption for donations received under Section 13A of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
· Common symbol for contesting general elections to the Lok Sabha/State Assemblies.
· Twenty ‘star campaigners’ during election campaign.
· Recognised parties – Political parties are recognised as a ‘national’ or ‘State’ party under the provisions of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 (Symbols Order) by the ECI.
· Issues – Only about one-third of RUPPs contest and others do not contest elections, potentially misusing their status for tax exemptions and money laundering. · People Act, 1951 (RP Act) does not grant the ECI explicit authority to de-register inactive parties unless under exceptional circumstances such as fraud or loss of allegiance to the Constitution.
· The Supreme Court’s ruling in Indian National Congress vs. Institute of Social Welfare & Ors (2002) reaffirmed this limitation, creating a regulatory gap.
· Recognized parties have been found violating the Model Code of Conduct prohibitions against using caste/communal appeals and voter intimidation/bribing.
· Despite frequent violations by recognised parties, the ECI’s response often involves short-term campaign bans, which are insufficient deterrents.
Context: The Election Commission of India (ECI), in its report has expressed concern over the behaviour of star campaigners and their potential to vitiate the election atmosphere.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following service providers
- Bankers
- Lawyers
- Construction workers
- Insurance provider
Which of the above mentioned service/s is not defined under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?
Correct
Solution (c)
Option c Correct · The definition of “service” from Section 2(42) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 includes the provision of facilities in connection with the following: · Banking, insurance, transport, housing and entertainment.
· Transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both and housing construction.
· The service under the act doesn’t include any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
· The court has interpreted that the services rendered by lawyers fall under a contract of personal service.
· The rationale was that the Act was meant to protect consumers from unfair trade practices of businesses and not intended to cover professionals like lawyers.
· The court distinguished the work of professionals, which requires specialized expertise and is subject to factors beyond one’s control, from that of businessmen.
· This ruling overturns an earlier 2007 NCDRC verdict which had brought lawyers under the Consumer Protection Act’s purview.
· The court indicated that its 1995 judgment bringing doctors under the Act’s scope may also need reconsideration by a larger bench.
· This verdict is likely to have a major impact on the extent of liability for professional misconduct that legal professionals face.
Context: The Supreme Court bench recently ruled that the services provided by lawyers constitute a “contract of personal service” and are excluded from the definition of “service” under the Consumer Protection Act.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Option c Correct · The definition of “service” from Section 2(42) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 includes the provision of facilities in connection with the following: · Banking, insurance, transport, housing and entertainment.
· Transport, processing, supply of electrical or other energy, telecom, boarding or lodging or both and housing construction.
· The service under the act doesn’t include any service free of charge or under a contract of personal service.
· The court has interpreted that the services rendered by lawyers fall under a contract of personal service.
· The rationale was that the Act was meant to protect consumers from unfair trade practices of businesses and not intended to cover professionals like lawyers.
· The court distinguished the work of professionals, which requires specialized expertise and is subject to factors beyond one’s control, from that of businessmen.
· This ruling overturns an earlier 2007 NCDRC verdict which had brought lawyers under the Consumer Protection Act’s purview.
· The court indicated that its 1995 judgment bringing doctors under the Act’s scope may also need reconsideration by a larger bench.
· This verdict is likely to have a major impact on the extent of liability for professional misconduct that legal professionals face.
Context: The Supreme Court bench recently ruled that the services provided by lawyers constitute a “contract of personal service” and are excluded from the definition of “service” under the Consumer Protection Act.
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