IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q1. With reference to the C-295 transport aircraft programme in India, consider the following statements:
- The aircraft is designed primarily for strategic intercontinental heavy-lift operations.
- The aircraft can operate from short and unprepared airstrips because of its STOL capability.
- Under the India-specific programme, all aircraft are to be manufactured in India with full technology transfer from the beginning.
- The programme marks the first private-sector military aircraft production line in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The C-295 is a tactical transport aircraft developed by Airbus (Spain) for light-to-medium military airlift operations, not a strategic heavy-lift platform like the C-17 Globemaster. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It possesses STOL (Short Take-Off and Landing) capability enabling operations from short or unprepared runways, making Statement 2 correct.
- India signed a contract for 56 aircraft, of which the first 16 are imported from Spain while the remaining 40 are manufactured in India at the Tata-Airbus Final Assembly Line in Vadodara. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect because complete indigenous manufacturing from inception is factually wrong.
- Statement 4 is correct because the programme established India’s first private-sector military aircraft production line.
UPSC may exploit confusion between tactical and strategic airlift concepts.
Why this question?
Tests distinction between tactical and strategic airlift aircraft capabilities.Why important for UPSC?
Defence indigenisation and aerospace manufacturing are recurring UPSC themes.PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to UPSC elimination-based defence technology and platform classification questions.Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The C-295 is a tactical transport aircraft developed by Airbus (Spain) for light-to-medium military airlift operations, not a strategic heavy-lift platform like the C-17 Globemaster. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
- It possesses STOL (Short Take-Off and Landing) capability enabling operations from short or unprepared runways, making Statement 2 correct.
- India signed a contract for 56 aircraft, of which the first 16 are imported from Spain while the remaining 40 are manufactured in India at the Tata-Airbus Final Assembly Line in Vadodara. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect because complete indigenous manufacturing from inception is factually wrong.
- Statement 4 is correct because the programme established India’s first private-sector military aircraft production line.
UPSC may exploit confusion between tactical and strategic airlift concepts.
Why this question?
Tests distinction between tactical and strategic airlift aircraft capabilities.Why important for UPSC?
Defence indigenisation and aerospace manufacturing are recurring UPSC themes.PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to UPSC elimination-based defence technology and platform classification questions. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Microfinance Institutions–2.0 (CGSMFI–2.0):
- It is implemented through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC).
- The scheme directly provides concessional micro-loans to rural households.
- The guarantee coverage under the scheme is inversely related to the size of MFIs.
- The scheme attempts to address liquidity stress in the microfinance sector through a risk-sharing mechanism.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Q.2) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- CGSMFI–2.0 is implemented through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), making Statement 1 correct.
- The scheme does not directly lend to rural borrowers; rather, it provides guarantee cover to banks and financial institutions lending to MFIs and NBFC-MFIs. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Guarantee coverage declines with increasing size of MFIs—80% for small MFIs, 75% for medium MFIs, and 70% for large MFIs—thereby making Statement 3 correct.
- The scheme essentially functions as a credit guarantee or risk-sharing mechanism aimed at encouraging banks to continue lending to the stressed microfinance sector. Statement 4 is therefore correct.
UPSC often frames questions around indirect versus direct subsidy or lending architecture.
Why this question?
Creates confusion between direct credit delivery and credit guarantee mechanisms.Why important for UPSC?
Financial inclusion and NBFC regulation frequently appear in prelims.PYQ Pattern Link
Comparable to UPSC questions on MUDRA, CGTMSE and priority sector lending.Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- CGSMFI–2.0 is implemented through the National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company (NCGTC), making Statement 1 correct.
- The scheme does not directly lend to rural borrowers; rather, it provides guarantee cover to banks and financial institutions lending to MFIs and NBFC-MFIs. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
- Guarantee coverage declines with increasing size of MFIs—80% for small MFIs, 75% for medium MFIs, and 70% for large MFIs—thereby making Statement 3 correct.
- The scheme essentially functions as a credit guarantee or risk-sharing mechanism aimed at encouraging banks to continue lending to the stressed microfinance sector. Statement 4 is therefore correct.
UPSC often frames questions around indirect versus direct subsidy or lending architecture.
Why this question?
Creates confusion between direct credit delivery and credit guarantee mechanisms.Why important for UPSC?
Financial inclusion and NBFC regulation frequently appear in prelims.PYQ Pattern Link
Comparable to UPSC questions on MUDRA, CGTMSE and priority sector lending. -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q3. Which one of the following best explains the economic rationale underlying the “One Station One Product (OSOP)” initiative?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (b)
Explanation:
The One Station One Product (OSOP) initiative seeks to transform railway stations into platforms for selling region-specific products through stalls allotted to artisans, SHGs, and local producers.
Its underlying rationale lies in improving market access, reducing intermediary dependence, and integrating public transport infrastructure with local economic activity.
- Option (a) confuses OSOP with export-linked industrial corridor strategies.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the initiative is not primarily about privatization of railway retail spaces.
- Option (d) is misleading because the scheme is not focused on agricultural procurement systems.
UPSC frequently frames such questions by testing whether candidates can identify the broader economic logic rather than merely memorizing scheme features.
Why this question?
Focuses on underlying economic geography rather than superficial scheme memorization.Why important for UPSC?
Infrastructure-led local economic development is increasingly emphasized in governance questions.PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to UPSC conceptual questions on ODOP and rural value-chain initiatives.Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (b)
Explanation:
The One Station One Product (OSOP) initiative seeks to transform railway stations into platforms for selling region-specific products through stalls allotted to artisans, SHGs, and local producers.
Its underlying rationale lies in improving market access, reducing intermediary dependence, and integrating public transport infrastructure with local economic activity.
- Option (a) confuses OSOP with export-linked industrial corridor strategies.
- Option (c) is incorrect because the initiative is not primarily about privatization of railway retail spaces.
- Option (d) is misleading because the scheme is not focused on agricultural procurement systems.
UPSC frequently frames such questions by testing whether candidates can identify the broader economic logic rather than merely memorizing scheme features.
Why this question?
Focuses on underlying economic geography rather than superficial scheme memorization.Why important for UPSC?
Infrastructure-led local economic development is increasingly emphasized in governance questions.PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to UPSC conceptual questions on ODOP and rural value-chain initiatives. -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q4. With reference to Shigellosis, consider the following statements:
- It is caused by Gram-negative bacteria belonging to the genus Shigella.
- The disease is primarily airborne in transmission.
- Stool culture is commonly used for diagnosis.
- An effective vaccine is presently available under India’s Universal Immunization Programme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Shigellosis is an acute enteric infection caused by Shigella species, which are Gram-negative bacteria. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
- The disease spreads mainly through the fecal-oral route via contaminated food, water, or direct contact, especially in crowded settings. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect because transmission is not airborne.
- Diagnosis commonly relies on stool culture, making Statement 3 correct.
- There is currently no licensed vaccine for Shigellosis, so Statement 4 is incorrect.
UPSC often introduces misleading parallels with cholera or viral diarrheal diseases to test microbiological clarity.
Candidates must carefully distinguish transmission routes, causative organisms, and vaccine availability among communicable diseases.
Why this question?
Introduces classic UPSC confusion between waterborne and airborne infectious diseases.Why important for UPSC?
Public health surveillance and communicable diseases remain highly relevant topics.PYQ Pattern Link
Resembles UPSC disease-based prelims questions involving transmission and vaccination traps.Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Shigellosis is an acute enteric infection caused by Shigella species, which are Gram-negative bacteria. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
- The disease spreads mainly through the fecal-oral route via contaminated food, water, or direct contact, especially in crowded settings. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect because transmission is not airborne.
- Diagnosis commonly relies on stool culture, making Statement 3 correct.
- There is currently no licensed vaccine for Shigellosis, so Statement 4 is incorrect.
UPSC often introduces misleading parallels with cholera or viral diarrheal diseases to test microbiological clarity.
Candidates must carefully distinguish transmission routes, causative organisms, and vaccine availability among communicable diseases.
Why this question?
Introduces classic UPSC confusion between waterborne and airborne infectious diseases.Why important for UPSC?
Public health surveillance and communicable diseases remain highly relevant topics.PYQ Pattern Link
Resembles UPSC disease-based prelims questions involving transmission and vaccination traps. -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q5. Which one of the following best explains the strategic importance of Tajikistan for India?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (b)
Explanation:
Tajikistan occupies a strategically significant location in Central Asia, bordering Afghanistan, China, Kyrgyzstan, and Uzbekistan.Its proximity to the Wakhan Corridor and its role as a buffer zone between Afghanistan, China, and Central Asia make it geopolitically important for India’s Connect Central Asia Policy.
India has historically maintained defence and intelligence cooperation with Tajikistan, including association with the Farkhor Air Base.
- Option (a) is misleading because India lacks direct overland connectivity through Pakistan.
- Option (c) is incorrect since India does not maintain a major naval logistics facility there.
- Option (d) is unrelated to Tajikistan’s geography.
UPSC often asks location-based strategic questions integrating geography with international relations.
Why this question?
Blends physical geography with strategic-security reasoning and geopolitical interpretation.Why important for UPSC?
Central Asian geopolitics increasingly influences India’s connectivity and security policies.PYQ Pattern Link
Comparable to UPSC strategic geography questions on Chabahar, INSTC, and Eurasian connectivity.Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (b)
Explanation:
Tajikistan occupies a strategically significant location in Central Asia, bordering Afghanistan, China, Kyrgyzstan, and Uzbekistan.Its proximity to the Wakhan Corridor and its role as a buffer zone between Afghanistan, China, and Central Asia make it geopolitically important for India’s Connect Central Asia Policy.
India has historically maintained defence and intelligence cooperation with Tajikistan, including association with the Farkhor Air Base.
- Option (a) is misleading because India lacks direct overland connectivity through Pakistan.
- Option (c) is incorrect since India does not maintain a major naval logistics facility there.
- Option (d) is unrelated to Tajikistan’s geography.
UPSC often asks location-based strategic questions integrating geography with international relations.
Why this question?
Blends physical geography with strategic-security reasoning and geopolitical interpretation.Why important for UPSC?
Central Asian geopolitics increasingly influences India’s connectivity and security policies.PYQ Pattern Link
Comparable to UPSC strategic geography questions on Chabahar, INSTC, and Eurasian connectivity.
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