Solution (b)

• Florianopolis Declaration of 2018 reaffirms that the moratorium on commercial whaling, which has been in effect since 1986, has contributed to the recovery of some whale populations, and aware of cumulative effects of multiple, existing and emerging threats to whale populations such as entanglement, bycatch, underwater noise, ship strikes, marine debris and climate change. (Hence option b is correct)
• It Agrees that the role of the International Whaling Commission in the 21st Century includes inter alia its responsibility to ensure the recovery of whale populations to their pre-industrial levels, and in this context reaffirms the importance in maintaining the moratorium on commercial whaling.

Solution (c)

• Eco-ducts or eco-bridges aim to enhance wildlife connectivity that can be disrupted because of highways or logging. These include canopy bridges (usually for monkeys, squirrels and other arboreal species); concrete underpasses or overpass tunnels or viaducts (usually for larger animals); and amphibian tunnels or culverts. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Usually these bridges are overlaid with planting from the area to give it a contiguous look with the landscape.
• Ramnagar Forest Division in Nainital district, Uttarakhand, recently built its first eco-bridge for reptiles and smaller mammals. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• A 2020 study by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) noted that nearly 50,000 km of road projects have been identified for construction in India over the next five to six years, while many highways are being upgraded to four lanes.
• The National Tiger Conservation Authority, New Delhi, had identified three major sites that were cutting across animal corridors, including National Highway 37 through the Kaziranga-Karbi Anglong landscape in Assam, and State Highway 33 through the Nagarhole Tiger Reserve in Karnataka.
• Cameras captured nearly 18 species that used these underpasses, including tiger, leopard, and golden jackal. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (c)

• Vulnerable communities, historically less responsible for climate change, are disproportionately affected. It states that over three billion people in highly vulnerable areas are 15 times more likely to die from climate-related events. (Hence statement 1 is correct.)
• Despite some progress in curtailing greenhouse gas emissions, there are existing adaptation gaps. These gaps are attributed to factors such as limited resources, low climate literacy, and a lack of political commitment. (Hence statement 2 is correct.)
• It stresses need climate-resilient development, reducing fossil fuel use, increasing finance for climate investments, and facilitating low-carbon lifestyles. (Hence statement 3 is correct.)

Solution (c)

• The Ecomark Scheme provides accreditation and labelling for household and consumer products that meet specific environmental criteria while maintaining quality standards as per Indian norms. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Products accredited under the Ecomark Scheme will adhere to specific environmental criteria, ensuring minimal environmental impact. It will build consumer awareness of environmental issues and encourage eco-conscious choices.
• It will also motivate manufacturers to shift towards environmentally friendly production. The scheme seeks to ensure accurate labelling and prevent misleading information about products. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• The Central Pollution Control Board administers the Ecomark Scheme in partnership with Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), which is the national body for standards and certification. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (a)

• State government may constitute any forest land or waste land as reserved forest which is the property of Government & may sell the produce from these forest.
• Before issuing official notification state government needs to appoint a Forest Settlement Officer (has power of Civil Courts) to inquire & to provide settlements to persons belonging to that area.
• All activities are prohibited unless permitted in reserve forests. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• Any land not included in Reserve Forest is considered as Protected Forest. Protected forests are of 2 kinds: Demarcated protected forests and Undemarcated protected forests
• In protected forests, all activities are permitted unless it is prohibited. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• State government can assign to any village community the rights of government (to or over) any land which has been constituted as reserved forest. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• State government may make rules for regulating the management of village forest, prescribing conditions under which the community may be provided with timber or other forest produce or pasture.

Solution (b)

• In the most extensive study on invasive species carried out till date, the Intergovernmental Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) in its new publication – the “Assessment Report on Invasive Alien Species and their Control’’ – has found that there are 37,000 alien species, including plants and animals, that have been introduced by many human activities to regions and biomes around the world, including more than 3,500 invasive alien species and that invasive alien species have played a key role in 60% of global plant and animal extinctions recorded.(Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• Not all alien species establish and spread with negative impacts on biodiversity, local ecosystems and species, but a significant proportion do – then becoming known as invasive alien species. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• About 6% of alien plants; 22% of alien invertebrates; 14% of alien vertebrates; and 11% of alien microbes are known to be invasive, posing major risks to nature and to people. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
• Many invasive alien species have been intentionally introduced for their perceived benefits, without consideration or knowledge of their negative impacts in forestry, agriculture, horticulture, aquaculture, or as pets. (Hence statement 4 is correct)

Solution (b)

• Sturgeon, a fish native to countries such as Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia and Ukraine that produces caviar, has been fished illegally, the researchers found. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Danube is the last river body with functional populations of beluga (Huso huso), Russian (Acipenser gueldenstaedtii), stellate (Acipenser stellatus) and sterlet (Acipenser ruthenus) sturgeons, according to the authors of the study. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) in 1998 listed the species as endangered and put restrictions on fishing of sturgeons from the Danube and Black Sea. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• In 2000, CITES even imposed an international labelling system for all caviar products to curb illegal trade. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)

Solution (d)

• Hope Spot Network is a joint initiative of Mission Blue & IUCN. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• A hope spot is an area of an ocean that needs special protection because of its wildlife & significant underwater habitats. They are chosen for their contributions to biodiversity, the carbon sink, and important habitat. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• They can be Marine Protected Area’s (MPA – defined by IUCN) that need attention or any new sites. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

• Indian Council for Agricultural Research have prepared a Composite Index of Agricultural Sustainability (CIAS). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• Index shows that Indian agriculture practices are moderately sustainable. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• At present, the most sustainable agriculture is practised in Mizoram, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal while agriculture in arid Rajasthan is the least sustainable. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (d)

• The Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI) is a treaty-based international, inter-governmental organization dedicated to supporting and promoting strong, inclusive and sustainable economic growth in developing countries and emerging economies. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• It is based in Seoul, South Korea. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• GGGI aims for global transition toward a model of green growth While this will be differentiated at the country level, at its core will be strategies that simultaneously achieve poverty reduction, social inclusion, environmental sustainability, and economic growth.
• Ensuring the world’s progress towards a green transformation requires comprehensive measurement and tracking systems. With this report, GGGI is presenting a new platform for measuring and tracking the green growth performance of countries worldwide through the Green Growth Index. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) in collaboration with the Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI), an international intergovernmental organization, announced the launch of the Asia Low Carbon Buildings Transition (ALCBT) Project in India. (Hence statement 4 is correct)

Solution (a)

• Countries manage their own maritime territory and exclusive economic zones, while the high seas and the international ocean floor are governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Seas. (Hence, statement 1 is incorrect)
• It is considered to apply to states regardless of whether or not they have signed or ratified it. (Hence, statement 2 is incorrect)
• Under the treaty, the seabed and its mineral resources are considered the “common heritage of mankind” that must be managed in a way that protects the interests of humanity through the sharing of economic benefits, support for marine scientific research, and protecting marine environments. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)

Solution (a)

Note:

The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC):

• The TRAFFIC, the Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network, is a leading non-governmental organisation working on wildlife trade in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development.
• It is a joint program of World Wildlife Fund (WWF) and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
• It aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
• It was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions.
• Headquarters: Cambridge, United Kingdom
• Illegal wildlife trade is one of the main reasons that many species are endangered.
• The TRAFFIC is governed by the TRAFFIC Committee, a steering group composed of members of TRAFFIC’s partner organizations, WWF and IUCN.
• TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
• Its staff includes experts from a plethora of backgrounds: biologists, conservationists, academics, researchers, communicators or investigators, etc.
• Since its establishment, it has helped in the evolution of the international wildlife trade treaties.
• It focuses on leveraging resources, expertise and awareness of the latest globally urgent species trade issues such as tiger parts, elephant ivory and rhino horn.
• Large scale commercial trade in commodities like timber and fisheries products are also addressed and linked to work on developing rapid results and policy improvements.

Solution (b)

Note:

At the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) to the UN Convention on Biological Diversity ‘Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework’ (GBF) was adopted.

Key Targets of the GBF:

• 30×30 Deal:

1. Restore 30% degraded ecosystems globally (on land and sea) by 2030.
2. Conserve and manage 30% areas (terrestrial, inland water, and coastal and marine) by 2030.

• Stop the extinction of known species, and by 2050 reduce tenfold the extinction risk and rate of all species (including unknown).
• Reduce risk from pesticides by at least 50% by 2030.
• Reduce nutrients lost to the environment by at least 50% by 2030.
• Reduce pollution risks and negative impacts of pollution from all sources by 2030 to levels that are not harmful to biodiversity and ecosystem functions.
• Reduce global footprint of consumption by 2030, including through significantly reducing overconsumption and waste generation and halving food waste.
• Sustainably manage areas under agriculture, aquaculture, fisheries, and forestry and substantially increase agroecology and other biodiversity-friendly practices.
• Tackle climate change through nature-based solutions.
• Reduce the rate of introduction and establishment of invasive alien species by at least 50% by 2030.
• Secure the safe, legal and sustainable use and trade of wild species by 2030.
• Green up urban spaces.

Solution (b)

Note:

Green Climate Fund (GCF):

• The GCF was set up in 2010 under the UNFCCC’s financial mechanism to channel funding from developed countries to developing countries to allow them to mitigate climate change and also adapt to disruptions arising from a changing climate.
• The Green Climate Fund will support projects, programmes, policies and other activities in developing country Parties using thematic funding windows.
• It is intended to be the centerpiece of efforts to raise Climate Finance of $100 billion a year by 2020.
• It engages directly with the private sector through its Private Sector Facility.
• The Fund will promote the paradigm shift towards low-emission and climate-resilient development pathways by providing support to developing countries to limit or reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and to adapt to the impacts of climate change, taking into account the needs of those developing countries particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.
• The Fund will strive to maximize the impact of its funding for adaptation and mitigation, and seek a balance between the two, while promoting environmental, social, economic and development co-benefits and taking a gender-sensitive approach.
• The Fund is governed and supervised by a Board that will have full responsibility for funding decisions and that receives the guidance of the Conference of Parties (COP).
• The Fund is accountable to, and functions under the guidance of, the COP.
• The Green Climate fund has its own administrative set up with Headquarters at Songdo International Business District, Incheon, South Korea.

Solution (b)

Note:

World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature:

• The World Wide Fund (WWF) for Nature was founded on 29th April 1961.
• Its precursor organisation was the Conservation Foundation.
• Its original name was World Wildlife Fund.
• WWF Headquarters – Gland, Switzerland.
• It is an international non-profit organization dedicated to the preservation and conservation of nature and its different species.
• It is working for the reduction of humanity’s footprint on the environment.
• It is the world’s biggest conservation organization.
• It supports more than 1000 projects all over the world.
• WWF works in the areas of climate, food, forests, freshwater, oceans and wildlife primarily.
• It runs several projects in various fields in partnership with people, bodies and governments worldwide.
• In species conservation, they focus on tigers, elephants, gorillas, giant pandas, sea turtles, polar bears, rhinos and whales.
• Through its various projects, the organisation aims to check the degradation of the earth’s natural environment and create a future in which human beings live in harmony with nature.
• Campaigns launched by WWF include Earth Hour and Debt-for-Nature Swap.
• The famous ‘Living Planet Report’ (started in 1998) is published by the WWF every two years in which the health of the planet and the impact of human activities on nature are talked about. It is based on the Living Planet Index and the calculations of ecological footprints.
• What is the living planet index- It is a measure of the state of the world’s biological diversity based on population trends of vertebrate species in terrestrial, freshwater, and marine habitats.

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Note:

Earth Summit:

• The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), also known as the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, Rio Summit, Rio Conference, and Earth Summit, was a major United Nations conference held in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) from 3 to 14 June 1992.
• This summit led to the development of the following documents:

1. Rio Declaration on Environment and Development-

Rio Declaration, in short, contained 27 principles that were supposed to guide countries in future sustainable development.

2. Agenda 21-

Agenda 21 is an action plan concerning sustainable development, but it is non-binding.

3. Forest Principles-

The Forest Principles is formally called ‘Non-Legally Binding Authoritative Statement of Principles for a Global Consensus on the Management, Conservation and Sustainable Development of All Types of Forests’. It makes many recommendations for conservation and sustainable development forestry and is non-binding.

Solution (b)

Note:

World Water Council:

• The World Water Council (WWC) is an international think tank.
• It was founded in 1996, with its headquarters in Marseille, France.
• It has 358 members (as of February 2020) which encompass organisations from the UN and intergovernmental organizations, the private sector (construction, engineering and manufacturing companies), governments and ministries, academic institutions, international organizations, local governments and civil society groups.
• Its stated mission is “to promote awareness, build political commitment and trigger action on critical water issues at all levels, including the highest decision-making level, to facilitate the efficient conservation, protection, development, planning, management, and use of water in all its dimensions on an environmentally sustainable basis for the benefit of all life on earth.”
• The Council also focuses on the political dimensions of water security, adaptation and sustainability.

Solution (c)

Note:

Bonn Convention:

• The Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (also known as CMS or the Bonn Convention, not to be confused with the Bonn Agreement) aims to conserve terrestrial, marine and avian migratory species throughout their range.
• It is an intergovernmental treaty, concluded under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, associated with the conservation of wildlife and habitats on a global scale.
• Since the Convention’s entry into force, its membership has grown steadily to include over 100 Parties from Africa, Central and South America, Asia, Europe and Oceania.
• The Convention was signed in 1979 in Bonn (hence the name) and entered into force in 1983.

Solution (d)

• Down syndrome, also known as trisomy 21, is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. Hence option d is correct.
• This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome.
• It is not caused by a mutation in the X chromosome. While Down syndrome is a genetic disorder, it is not typically inherited from one’s parents, as it is usually the result of a random error in cell division during the formation of either the sperm or the egg.
• Down syndrome can be diagnosed before birth through prenatal screening tests such as amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling, and through genetic testing.

Solution (c)

Studying the Genetic makeup of a country can help in:

• It can identify the genetic basis or genetic risk factors for various diseases. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It can provide insights into health trends and patterns within that population. It can be a useful tool in public health planning, preventive measures, and the allocation of resources. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Genome mapping cannot accurately predict individual life events. Accurate prediction of an individual’s life events is influenced by various factors beyond genetics. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• In providing targeted treatments, especially for rare diseases that usually arise from genetic anomalies. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is the outcome of the Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Marrakesh Agreement signed in 1994 marked the culmination of the 8-year-long Uruguay Round and established the World Trade Organization (WTO), which officially came into being on January 1, 1995.
• It is not a UN specialised agency dealing with the rules of trade between nations. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• However, it has maintained strong relations with the United Nations and its agencies since its establishment.
• The Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body of the WTO. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Ministerial Conference usually meets every two years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of which are countries or customs unions.
• The Ministerial Conference can make decisions on all matters under any of the multilateral trade agreements.

Solution (b)

The original Constitution did not contain provisions concerning tribunals. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled ‘Tribunals’ and consists of only two Articles–Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals for other matters. The Central Administrative Tribunal is established under the Tribunals Act 1985 following Article 323-A of the constitution. The CAT exercises original jurisdiction concerning recruitment and all service matters of public servants covered by it. Its jurisdiction extends to the

• All-India services
• The Central Civil Service,
• Civilian employees of defence services
• Civil posts under the Centre and State governments.

The members of the defence forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of the Parliament are not covered by it. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Bochasanwasi Akshar Purushottam Swaminarayan Sanstha Mandir is built in the traditional Nagara style of architecture. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It has been built by using fly ash instead of cement which helps to reduce its carbon footprint. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Nano tiles have been installed with designs to keep visitors comfortable even in extreme heat. It has not used any ferrous material.
• The temple houses seven shrines, each dedicated to different deities hailing from the North, East, West, and South parts of India.
• It is surrounded by ‘Dome of Harmony’ and ‘Dome of Peace.’ Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It symbolizes unity and coexistence among different religions and cultures.

Solution (b)

• Horticulture is the branch of agriculture concerned with intensively cultured plants directly used by humansfor food, medicinal purposes, and aesthetic gratification.
• It is the cultivation, production, and sale of vegetables, fruits, flowers, herbs, ornamental or exotic plants.
• H. Bailey is considered the Father of American Horticulture.
• H. Marigowdais considered the Father of Indian Horticulture. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India is the 2nd largest producerof fruits and vegetables.
• In terms of exports, India is ranked 14th in vegetables and 23rd in fruits, and its share in the global horticultural market is a mere 1%. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The productivity of horticulture crops is much higher compared to the productivity of food grains. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Minimum Support Price (MSP)is the guaranteed amount paid to farmers when the government buys their produce.
• MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), which considers various factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It recommends MSP based on the A2+FL formula,which considers only paid-out costs and the imputed value of family labour.
• CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It came into existence in January 1965.
• The CACP recommends MSPs for 22 mandated cropsand fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

• Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) refers to blocks or platforms such as digital identification, payment infrastructure, and data exchange solutions that help countries deliver essential services to their people, empowering citizens and improving lives by enabling digital inclusion.
• DPIs mediate the flow of people, money, and information. These three sets become the foundation for developing an effective DPI ecosystem:
• First, the flow of people through a digital ID System.
• Second, the flow of money through a real-time fast payment system.
• And third, the flow of personal information through a consent-based data-sharing system to actualise the benefits of DPIs and to empower the citizen with a real ability to control data.
• IndiaStack is a set of APIs (Application programming interfaces) that allows governments, businesses, startups, and developers to utilise a unique digital Infrastructure to solve India’s hard problems towards presence-less, paperless, and cashless service delivery.
• India, through India Stack, became the first country to develop all three foundational DPIs, Digital identity (Aadhar), Real-time fast payment (UPI), and Account Aggregator built on the Data Empowerment Protection Architecture (DEPA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• DEPA creates a digital framework that allows users to share their data on their terms through a third-party entity, known as Consent Manager. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• Global Pulses Conference 2024 is an annual gatheringof pulses producers, processors, and traders, which was recently jointly organized by the Global Pulse Confederation and the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd. (NAFED). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• India is the largest producer (25% of global production), consumer (27% of world consumption), and importer (14%)of pulses in the world.
• Pulses account for around 20% of the area under food grains and contribute around 7-10% of the total food grain production in the country.
• The Global Pulses Conference is the industry’s largest global event, bringing together key players from more than 50 countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• India is aiming toachieve self-sufficiency in pulses by 2027, focusing on expanding cultivation and supplying new varieties of seeds.

Solution (c)

• Purple Fest 2024 aims to raise awareness about different disabilities and their impact on people’s lives. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Purple Fest 2024 was organized at Rashtrapati Bhawan, celebrating diversity and unity.
• It promotes understanding, acceptance, and inclusion of persons with disabilities within society.
• It is organized by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

We may have (5 men and 3 women) or (6 men and 2 women) or (7 men or 1 women) or (8 men only)

Required number of ways = ( 9C5 * 6C3) + ( 9C6 * 6C2 ) + ( 9C7 * 6C1 ) + ( 9C8)

Hence  nCr = nCn-r

= 9C4 * 6C3 + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1

= [ 9 * 8 * 7 * 6/ 4 * 3 * 2 * 1] * [ 6 * 5 * 4 / 3 * 2 * 1] + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1

= 2520 + [ (9 * 8 * 7 / 3 * 2 * 1) * (6 * 5/ 2 * 1) + 9C3 * 6C2 + 9C2 * 6C5 + 9C1

= 2520 + 1260 + [ (9 * 8 / 2 * 1) * (6 * 1)) + 9C1

= 2520 + 1260 + 216 + 9

= 4005

Solution (d)

According to the same pattern, DELHI is written as

Solution (a)

N = H.C.F. of (9540 – 6360), (9540 – 7420) and (7420 – 6360)

H.C.F. of 3180, 2120 and 1060 = 1060.

Sum of digits in N = (1 + 0 + 6 + 0) = 7.

Solution (a)

We need to consider all three digit and all 4-digit numbers.

Three-digit numbers: A B C. 5 can be printed in the 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.

=> 100’s place: 5 B C.

B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 100 times

=> 10’s place: A 5 C. A can take values 1 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 90 times

=> Unit’s place: A B 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 90 times So, 5 gets printed 280 times in 3-digit numbers

Four-digit numbers: A B C D. 5 can be printed in the 1000’s place, 100’s place or 10’s place or units place.

=> 1000’s place: 5 B C D. B can take values 0 to 9, C can take values 0 to 9, D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 get printed in the 100’s place 1000 times.

=> 100’s place: A 5 C D. A can take values 1 to 9, C & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 100’s place 900 times.

=> 10’s place: A B 5 D. A can take values 1 to 9, B & D can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the 10’s place 900 times.

=> Unit’s place: A B C 5. A can take values 1 to 9, B & C can take values 0 to 9. So, 5 gets printed in the unit’s place 900 times.

5 get printed 3700 times in 4-digit numbers.

So, there are totally 3700 + 280 = 3980 numbers.

Solution (b)

Total number of cubes after cutting = n^3 = (4)^3 = 64 (n = number of pieces)

Cube with 3-sides painted = 8 (for a proper cube number of the cube at corner is always 8)

Cube with 2-sides painted = 12(n − 2) = 12(4 − 2) = 24

Cube with 1 side painted = 6(n − 2) 2 = 6(4 − 2) 2 = 24

Cube with no side painted = (Total number of smaller cubes − cubes with at least one side painted)

[64− (8 + 24+ 24)] = 8­­­­­­­­