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ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

ENVIRONMENT [DAY 18] 

Q.1) With reference to measurement of Biodiversity in the ecosystem, consider the following statements:

  1. Species evenness measures the number of species found in a community.
  2. Alpha diversity measures diversity within a particular area or ecosystem.
  3. Gama diversity measures overall diversity for the different ecosystems within a region.

  Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) The term ‘Evil Quartet’ is associated with

  1. Cause of lower productivity of cultivable land.
  2. Role of Administrative machinery in impacting policy decisions.
  3. Causes of Human Animal conflict.
  4. Causes of rapid extinction of Biological diversity.

Q.3) There are different Modes of conservation of Biodiversity, which among the following are an example of Ex-situ conservation?

  1. Reserved Forests
  2. Biosphere reserve
  3. Sanctuaries
  4. Horticultural Gardens

Q.4) Consider the following statements with reference to effects of Environmental pollution on Health:

  1. Black foot disease is caused due to Arsenic leaching from soil.
  2. Minamata disease is caused due to contamination of cadmium.
  3. Sulphur oxide contamination from crude oil causes Yokkaichi Asthma.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding Environmental Impact Assessment:

  1. It is notified under Environmental Protection Act of 1986.
  2. All projects or activities under category A and B shall require environmental clearance from the state government.
  3. There is provision for Public hearing under EIA.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.6) Consider the following statements with reference to Solid Waste Management Rules of 2016?

  1. Generator will have to pay ‘User Fee’ to waste collector and for ‘Spot Fine’ for Littering and Non-segregation.
  2. The rules are applicable to Municipal areas and urban agglomeration only.
  3. It introduced the collect back system for bio-degradable Packaging waste.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.7) Which of the following statements best describes Biosphere:

  1. It consists of area around national park and wildlife sanctuaries.
  2. It is a narrow zone where air, land and water come together to contain life forms.
  3. It is an abiotic components of all forms of life.
  4. It is an ecological hotspot recognized by Man and Biosphere program.

Q.8) UNEP along with other organisations has launched a campaign called ‘Glowing, Glowing, Gone’ to

  1. Create awareness about effect of Cosmetic product on Oceans
  2. To create awareness about conservation of coral reefs.
  3. To combat land desertification
  4. To reduce the use of plastic

Q.9) Which of the following species are endemic to India?

  1. Asiatic Lion
  2. Sangai deer
  3. Lion Tailed Macaque

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and, 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Consider the following statements about Man and Biosphere Program:

  1. The program was launched by Conservation International in 1971.
  2. It aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
  3. From India, Panna Tiger reserve is latest to be added in the World network for Biosphere reserve.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) Which of the following are the causes of species richness in Tropical regions?

  1. Tropics had more evolutionary time.
  2. They provide relatively constant environment.
  3. They receive more solar energy.

Select the correct code

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Consider the following statements with reference to the threats to Earth Biodiversity?

  1. The World is currently witnessing the 5th mass extinction which is faster than previous episodes.
  2. Stellar sea cow and three subspecies of Tigers are now extinct.

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None of the above

Q.13) In general the loss of Biodiversity in a region may lead to which of the following

  1. Increase in plant production.
  2. It will lead to lower resistance to environmental perturbations.
  3. Increased variability in certain ecosystem process.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Which of the following is the biggest overall contributor to the natural greenhouse effect?

  1. Carbon Dioxide
  2. Nitrous Oxide
  3. Water Vapour
  4. Methane

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

  1. Pyrolysis is a process of chemical decomposition of organic matter brought about by heat.
  2. In incineration waste is directly burned in the presence of excess air (oxygen) at high temperatures.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to protected area network:

  1. Environment protection act 1986, provided for the establishment of Wildlife Sanctuaries.
  2. Conservation reserves and community reserves are the outcome of the amendment in 2002 in wildlife protection act of 1972.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) Consider the following statements about World Database of Protected Areas.

  1. It is the largest and most comprehensive global database on terrestrial and marine protected areas.
  2. It is a Joint project between Conservation international and TRAFFIC.
  3. It is updated on yearly basis.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) Consider the following statements with reference to difference between National park and Wildlife sanctuaries.

  1. No human activity can be allowed in National park in any condition while some restricted human activities are allowed in Wildlife sanctuaries.
  2. National Parks are declared by Central government while wildlife sanctuaries are declared by State Government under Wildlife Protection act of 1972.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.19) Consider the following statements about Ecologically Sensitive Zones

  1. The ecologically sensitive zone is mentioned under Environment Protection act of 1986.
  2. It is an area around National park and Wildlife sanctuaries where developmental activities are prohibited.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to National Adaptation fund for climate change?

  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme to support concrete adaptation activities to mitigate adverse effects of climate change.
  2. The activities under this scheme is implemented in project mode.
  3. NABARD is the national implementing Entity for adaption fund under Montreal Protocol.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.21) With reference to India Energy Modelling Forum, consider the following statements:

  1. It was jointly launched by NITI Aayog and International Energy Agency (IEA).
  2. Its governing structure will consist of an inter-ministerial and a steering committee.
  3. The steering committee will comprise representatives of the Government, Industry Associations, Academia, Policy research organizations, think tanks and funding agencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) With reference to Nutri-Sensitive Agricultural Resources and Innovations (NARI) programme which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It promotes family farming linking agriculture to nutrition, nutri-smart villages for enhancing nutritional security.
  2. It is started by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) Which of the following country is NOT a part of ‘Five Eyes’, a global intelligence alliance?

  1. Canada
  2. United Kingdom
  3. New Zealand
  4. France

Q.24) With reference to Ayushman Sahakar Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It assists in creation of healthcare infrastructure in the country.
  2. It is formulated by National Health Authority (NHA).
  3. It is launched by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.25) The OSOWAG Initiative aims to facilitate global cooperation in which of the following area?

  1. Climate Action
  2. Human Trafficking
  3. Renewable Energy
  4. Tackling Terrorism Financing

Q.26) With reference to OSCE Minsk Group, consider the following statements:

  1. It is internationally agreed body to mediate the negotiations for the peaceful resolution of the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict.
  2. It proposed Madrid principles for settling the conflict.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27) Bundi was the erstwhile capital of Hada Rajput province. Which of the following styles of temple architecture can be seen in Bundi?

  1. Nagara style
  2. Vesara style
  3. Elevated Temple styles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Which of the following has become the first ‘Har Ghar Jal’ state in India?

  1. Sikkim
  2. Goa
  3. Himachal Pradesh
  4. Kerala

Q.29) Recently seen in news the Castellorizo, officially known as Megisti is an island in which of the following seas

  1. Mediterranean Sea
  2. South China Sea
  3. East China Sea
  4. Caribbean Sea

Q.30) The Institute of Pesticide Formulation Technology (IPFT) developed Bio-Pesticide Formulation for insect control in seed spice crops has which of the following advantages?

  1. It has good shelf life
  2. It is safe to user and environment
  3. It may be effectively used for controlling different agricultural insects

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following questions:

Read the following 3 (three) passages and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

Until the end of his first year at school, Cyril retained many of the pleasures and pursuits he had brought with him from home, and he kept an old interest in butterflies and fossils. His grandmother had presented him with a fine bird’s eggs cabinet, but he could never bring himself to risk in climbing trees. Once or twice he dissected dead birds from sheer determination to overcome his horror of the operation. Probably it was his envy of those physically unlike himself that brought on a phase during which he drew massive athletes with thick necks and square shoulders. Again he pitied himself for what he could never be.

Q.31) The reason Why Cyril made drawings of athletes was that

  1. though he admired them, he lacked a fine physique himself
  2. he loved violent exercises
  3. athletics was a passion with him
  4. he had to complete an assignment

Passage 2

The Indian middle class consist of so many strata that it defies categorisation under a single term class, which would imply a considerable degree of homogeneity. Yet two paradoxical features characterise its conduct fairly uniformly; extensive practice and intensive abhorrence of corruption. In the several recent surveys of popular perceptions of corruptions, politicians of course invariably and understandably top the list, closely followed by bureaucrats, policemen, lawyers, businessmen and others. The quintessential middle class, if teachers do not figure high on this priority list, it is not for lack of trying, but for lack of opportunities. Over the years, the sense of shock over acts of corruption in the middle class has witnessed a steady decline, as its ambitions for a better material life have soared but the resources for meeting such ambitions have not kept pace. What is fascinating however is the intense yearning of this class for a clean corruption less politics and society, a yearning that has again and again surfaced with any figure public or obscure, focus on his mission of eradicating corruption. Even the repeated failure of this promise on virtually every man’s part has not subjected it to the law of diminishing returns.

Q.32) The intense Middle Class intensely yearns for

  1. better material resources
  2. better material resources
  3. clean honest society
  4. law of increasing returns

Passage 3

The “who’s who” of universities and research institutions published by the Human Resource Development Ministry, as the National Institutional Ranking Framework, 2018, should be viewed mainly as a proposition that data makes it possible to assign objective credentials to some aspects of education. Its assessment of some of the top institutions such as the Indian Institute of Science, the Jawaharlal Nehru University, the IITs and the IIMs is unsurprising, given their record of research, peer-reviewed publications and outcomes for graduates.

Even among the 3,954 institutions that participated, there is a clear skew towards southern, south-eastern and western India. Participation levels are inadequate: there were 40,026 colleges and 11,669 standalone institutions according to the HRD Ministry’s All India Survey on Higher Education for 2016-17.

To the faculty and students in many colleges, what matters is the vision of the administrative leaders and a commitment to excellence. The governing bodies should make available adequate financial and academic resources to colleges, particularly the younger ones, to help them improve performance. These are measured by the NIRF in terms of the percentage of faculty with doctoral degrees, papers published in credentialed journals, inclusivity and diversity of students, and median salaries for the graduates.

Q.33) What does the author mean when he refers to the universities and institutions as “Who’s who”?

  1. He is trying to understand ‘who’ the list prepared by NIRF consists of
  2. He is referring to the top institutions among all institutions mentioned in the list prepared by NIRF
  3. He is asking the reader to fathom ‘who’ developed the list and the reasons behind it
  4. Both a and c

 

Q.34) Which of the following can be logically deducted from the given passage?

  1. There was a huge amount of participation seen in NIRF 2018.
  2. The ranking approach has been critiqued for failing to capture the crucial metric of learning outcomes.
  3. NIRF’s assessment of the top notch institutions was expected.

Chose the correct code

  1. Only statement 3 is correct
  2. Only statements 1 and 2 are correct
  3. Only statements 2 and 3 are correct
  4. Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

Q.35) Count the number of parallelogram in the given figure:

  1. 13
  2. 14
  3. 15
  4. 16

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

 

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 shilpa 56
1 Mansi 56
1 Santosh Kumar 56
2 S RAHEEM BASHA 53.333
3 Deepika gupta 52
4 Tarunkumar M N 50.002
5 Ravi Chandra 46
6 Muhammed ashique k 45.5
7 POOJA KUMARI 45
8 Ravi kumar Singh 44.34
9 Sankar S 44
10 kanika 43.4
11 B saikiran 41.33
12 cxz 40.7
12 Rani singh 40.7
13 Pooja Naik 40.04
14 Rashmi Pradhan 39.98
15 Priyanshi Goel 38
15 s.mishra 38
16 Pallavi P 36.67
17 Vikalp 36.04
18 Apeksha 35.36
19 Sherlock 34
19 SURYA S 34
19 TINKU MITTAL 34
19 ayaan pathan 34
20 hritik sharma 33.38
20 Sravan 33.38
21 shubham varma 32.72
22 NARAGANI KALYAN 32.66
22 anukriti 32.66
23 Vinay Tripathi 32
23 Tanmay 32
24 Prashant Gautam 31.4
24 ESTER FATUM 31.34
25 Ashutosh Kumar 30.7
25 Ritika Dalal 30.67
26 ipsita 30.06
26 alok ranjan 30
27 Sadhana 28
27 Rakshitha 28
27 Raghu 28
28 Danish Ansari 26.7
28 Aakansha Gupta 26.7
29 Pratik 26.04
30 himant 26

 

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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