Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was against the forced practice of growing indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system). Towards the end of the nineteenth century the European planters demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants in order to maximize their profits. Besides, the peasants were forced to sell the produce at prices fixed by the Europeans. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
• The farmers of the Kheda district in Gujarat were in distress because of the failure of crops. The government refused to remit land revenue and insisted on its full collection. As part of the experiment, Mahatma Gandhi advised the peasants to withhold payment of revenue till their demand for its remission was met. The struggle was withdrawn when it was learned that the government had issued instructions that revenue should be recovered only from those peasants who could afford to pay. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel became a follower of Gandhiji during the Kheda movement. Hence Pair 2 is correct.
• Gandhiji’s second struggle was at Ahmedabad in 1918 when he had to intervene in a dispute between the workers and the mill owners over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus. The mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus. The workers were demanding a rise of 50 per cent in their wages so that they could manage in the times of wartime inflation. He advised the workers to go on strike and demand a 35 percent increase in wages. He undertook a fast unto death to strengthen the workers’ resolve to continue the strike. This put pressure on the mill owners who relented on the fourth day and agreed to give the workers 35 percent in wages. Hence Pair 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• All the elected Indian members voted against the Rowlatt bill in Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919. The elected members like Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Madan Mohan Malviya and Mazhar Ul Haq resigned in protest. Hence Option a is correct.
• Gandhi called for a mass protest at all India level. But soon, having seen the constitutional protest meet with ruthless repression, Gandhi organised a Satyagraha Sabha and roped in younger members of Home Rule Leagues and the Pan Islamists. The forms of protest finally chosen included observance of a nationwide hartal (strike) accompanied by fasting and prayer, and civil disobedience against specific laws, and courting arrest and imprisonment. Hence Option b is correct.
• There was a radical change in the situation by the time this satyagraha was launched. The masses had found a direction; now they could ‘act’ instead of just giving verbal expression to their grievances. From now onwards, peasants, artisans and the urban poor were to play an increasingly important part in the struggle. Orientation of the national movement turned to the masses permanently. Hence Option c is incorrect.

The Jallianwala Bagh atrocities, inflicted by General Dyer in Amritsar on Baisakhi day (13 April), were a part of this repression. Hence Option d is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

 Mahatma Gandhi initially opposed the formation of the swarajists but he gradually moved towards reconciliation in 1924. He was not in favour of contesting elections anad thus was not in favour of formation of swaraj party. He did everything to avoid a split in the Congress. However, later he made a series of gestures to the “rebels”—the Swarajists—and let them dominate the political stage. Gandhi and both the pro-changers and the no-changers realized the importance of putting up a united front in order to get reforms from the government. So, it was decided that the Swarajists would contest elections as a separate ‘group’ within the Congress Party. Hence both statement -I and statement -II are correct and statement -II is the correct explanation for statement -I.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• There was a temporary respite in revolutionary activity after the First World War because the release of prisoners held under the Defense of India Rules cooled down passions a bit. There was an atmosphere of conciliation after Montagu’s August 1917 statement and the talk of constitutional reforms and the coming of Gandhi on the scene with the programme of nonviolent non-cooperation promised new hope. Hence Statement I is correct. 

In Lucknow session of INC (1916) Muslim League and the Congress came together and presented common demands to the government. Hence Statement II is correct, but this is not the correct reason for Statement

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• •  On Gokhale’s advice, Gandhiji travelled through British India for a year to get to know the country and its people. His first public appearance was at the opening of his Hindu University (BHU) in Banaras in February 1916. When it was his turn, Gandhiji accused India’s elite of not caring about the working poor. The opening of the BHU, he said, was “certainly a most gorgeous show”. But he worried about the contrast between the “richly bedecked noblemen” present and “millions of the poor” Indians who were absent. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

• Gandhiji told the privileged invitees that “there is no salvation for India unless you strip yourself of this jewellery and hold it in trust for your countrymen in India”. “There can be no spirit of self-government about us,” he went on, “if we take away or allow others to take away from the peasants almost the whole of the results of their labor. Our salvation can only come through the farmer. Neither the lawyers, nor the doctors, nor the rich landlords are going to secure it.” Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Gandhiji’s speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, in a sense, a statement of fact. So Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, spawned by lawyers, doctors, and landlords. But on another level, it was also a declaration of intent – the first official announcement of Gandhi’s own desire to make Indian nationalism more representative of the Indian people as a whole. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Bal Gangadhar Tilak was ardent nationalist who helped lay the foundation for India’s independence by building his own defiance of British rule into a national movement. He founded (1914) and served as president of the Indian Home Rule League. In 1916 he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in the nationalist struggle. But, throughout his political career, he never became the president of the Indian National Congress. Hence Option a is correct.
• Rahimtulla Sayani was associated with the Indian National Congress since its inception and was one of the two Indian Muslims who attended its first session in 1885. He was a member of the committee formed by the Congress in 1886 to consider the question of Public Services. He was one of the representatives from Bombay on the Congress Executive Committee (Indian Congress Committee) formed in 1899. He presided over the 12th annual session of the Congress held at Calcutta in 1896. His presidential address hailed by a contemporary journal as the “best delivered so far” was notable for the close attention it paid to the economic and financial aspects of the British rule in India. Hence Option b is incorrect.
• Romesh Chunder Dutt became the President of the Indian National Congress in 1899 and was regarded by the growing politically – conscious educated public as one of their most effective spokespersons. Hence Option c is incorrect.

S. Srinivasa Iyengar was a lawyer, freedom fighter, and politician from the Indian National Congress. Iyengar presided over the Guwahati session of Congress in 1926. He worked hard to deliver a resolution upholding Hindu-Muslim unity, bringing about a temporary political agreement between the political leaders of the two communities. He published Swaraj Constitution, in 1927, outlining a federal scheme of government for future India. In later life, he established the Independence of India league and organized protests against the Simon Commission.  Hence Option d is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• In initial phase (1894-1906) of Gandhi’s struggle in South Africa, he relied on sending petitions and memorials to the authorities in South Africa and in Britain. It was in hope that once the authorities were informed of the plight of Indians, they would take sincere steps to redress their grievances as the Indians were, after all, British subjects. The second phase, which began in 1906, was characterized by the use of the method of passive resistance or civil disobedience, which Gandhi named satyagraha. 

• Gandhi discovered that the masses have an enormous capacity to participate in and sacrifice for a cause that moves them. Under his leadership, he was able to bring together Indians of various religions and classes, as well as men and women. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• He also realized that leaders must sometimes make decisions that are unpopular with their ardent supporters. He was able to develop his own leadership and political style, as well as new techniques of struggle on a small scale, unhindered by the opposition of competing political currents. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Gandhi through his experience of organizing protests in South Africa learned that the masses had an immense capacity to participate in and sacrifice for a cause that moved them. Thus, Gandhi’s faith in the capacity of the masses to fight was established through his experience in South Africa. He was able to evolve his own style of leadership and politics and techniques of the struggle for mass based from the moderate based struggle of petition and prayers to Gandhian methods of non cooperation, civil disobedience, and persuading by attacking the conscience of the oppressor. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Event 1: Gandhi formed the Natal Indian Congress in 1894. This organization led nonviolent protests against white people’s oppressive treatment of native Africans and Indians.
• Event 4: In 1904, Mahatma Gandhi founded the Phoenix Settlement in Durban for community living. In 1906, the Bambatha [Zulu] rebellion broke out in Natal and he again established a Stretcher Bearer Corps to treat the wounded. When this happened, he gave up his Troyville house and sent his family to Phoenix.
• Event 2: In 1910, Mahatma Gandhi founded the Tolstoy Farm on the outskirts of Johannesburg to prepare satyagrahis. The Farm which occupied 1100 acres of land belonged to Herman Kallenbach. It had 85 residents and all that was consumed was mainly produced locally. Life was austere and frugal with salt being served only on Sundays.  
• Event 3:  In 1913, Mahatma Gandhi launched the famous Volksrust Satyagraha against the pass laws, Registration of Marriages Act (which invalidated Non-Christian marriages) and other acts which put restrictions on the movement of Indians and demanded 3 Pound tax for movement.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Gandhi ji, in his journal Young India, mentioned that the Charkha does not seek to destroy all machinery but it does regulate its use and check its uncontrolled growth. He told that it uses machinery for the service of the poorest in their own cottages. In fact wheel is itself a machinery. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is correct. The charka, could provide the poor with supplementary income and make them self-reliant and thus liberate people from exploitative colonialism and capitalism. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Charkha focuses on increasing the role of manual labour for a self-reliant society, but according to Gandhi ji, the spinning of wheel was a protection against passion and anger. It was a shield against toxic emotions. The spinning wheel was an ’emblem of human dignity and equality’, the ‘handmaid of agriculture’. Thus, it was not only limited to manual labour but also to mental labour. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• When Gandhi ji returned to India in 1915, Indian National Congress had branches in most major cities and town. The Swadeshi movement of 1905-07 INC (Indian national congress) had greatly broadened its appeal among the middle classes. Hence Option a is correct.
•  Techniques like non-cooperation and passive resistance were already seen in the Swadeshi and boycott movement before the advent of Gandhi. Hence Option b is incorrect.
• Indian national congress was not having much appeal among the lower class and rural masses. Gandhi made the congress mass-based so that the freedom movement become a popular mass movement. Hence Option c is incorrect.

Active participation of rural masses in the national movement had increased mainly after the entry of Gandhi ji through Kheda satyagaraha, Champaran satyagraha etc.  Hence Option d is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Jallianwala Bagh massacre or the Amritsar massacre of 13th April 1919 accounts for the gruesome execution of hundreds of innocent people on the orders of the Brigadier R.E.H. Dyer. Jallianwala Bagh became a key point in the history of India’s struggle for independence and it is now an important monument in the country. The Bengali poet and Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the knighthood that he had received in 1915. Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
•  Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6th April 1919. In Punjab, on 9th April 1919, two nationalist leaders, Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal, were arrested by the British officials without any provocation. This caused resentment among the Indian protestors who came out in thousands on 10th April to show their solidarity with their leaders. Thus, these 2 leaders were arrested before the Jallianwala bagh incident. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• On Baisakhi day, a large crowd of people mostly from neighbouring villages, gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh, to celebrate the Baisakhi festival. Local leaders had also called for a protest meeting at the venue. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Lord Chelmsford served as Governor General and Viceroy of India from 1916 to 1921. It was during the time of Lord Chelmsford, the Khilafat movement and Non-Cooperation Movement began. The withdrawal of Non-Cooperation Movement took place during the tenure of Lord Reading. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
•  Gandhiji started the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. During that time, Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India. Gandhi formally launched the Civil Disobedience Movement on April 6, 1930 by picking a handful of salt after the completion of historic ‘Dandi March’ from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi, thus breaking the salt law imposed by the Government. He was the major force behind the movement and inspired grass-root participation in the freedom struggle. Hence Pair 2 is correct.

Lord Linlithgow (1936 – 1944) was the viceroy of India during Quit India Movement in 1942. Lord Wavell was the viceroy of India during the period of 1944 to 1947. Quit India movement was an all-out campaign organized by the Mahatma Gandhi to compel British withdrawal from India, after the failure of the Cripps Mission to reach a compromise. Hence Pair 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Some Indian business groups supported this movement because they had benefitted from the nationalist emphasis on the use of swadeshi. But a section of big businessmen remained skeptical towards the movement. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• In Non-cooperation movement, hundreds of thousands of peasants, workers and artisans participated which were earlier absent in the nationalist movement. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Attainment of swaraj through extra-constitutional means was adopted at Nagpur session of congress in December 1920. An important change was made in the Congress creed: now, instead of having the attainment of self-government through constitutional means as its goal, the Congress decided to have the attainment of swaraj through peaceful and legitimate means, thus committing itself to an extraconstitutional mass struggle. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

•  Mahatma Gandhi firmly believed that Indian languages should serve as the medium of instruction. Gandhi contended that true education should nurture both the mind and soul. Mere literacy, or the ability to read and write, was not sufficient. According to him, individuals needed to engage in practical activities, learn a craft, and comprehend the functioning of various things. This hands-on approach was seen as essential for developing both the mind and the ability to understand. Hence Statement I is correct.

Gandhi’s belief that English education had eroded the sense of dignity among Indians stems from his observation that it alienated Indians from their own culture and heritage. He believed that Indians had become enamoured with Western culture and had lost their appreciation for their own traditions. He argued that using vernacular languages in education would help to revive Indian culture and instil a sense of pride in Indian identity. Hence Statement II is correct & is correct explanation of Statement I.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Mahatma Gandhi actively promoted Hindu-Muslim unity. He believed in religious pluralism. He actively participated in the Khilafat movement just to increase Hindu-Muslim unity. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• According to Mahatma Gandhi, women were not objects of reform and humanitarianism but self-conscious subjects who could become arbiters of their own destiny. Mahatma Gandhi represents a crucial break from the attitude of many of the leaders of the reform movements of the late nineteenth century, who tended to see women as passive recipients of more humane treatment through the initiative of enlightened male effort. 
• Mahatma Gandhi believed that women must realize their full status and play their part as equals to men. There was high participation of women in Non-cooperation, Civil disobedience movement, Dandi March and in Quit India movement. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi in 1932. It was founded to eradicate untouchability in India, working for Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of Depressed Class of India. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Gandhi suggest that it would be good independence declaration is made by whole villages or whole cities at the identical minute (same time) at all the places. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Gandhiji also instructed to do constructive work, like spinning or service of untouchables, after hoisting the flag. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
•  He further instructed that participant would take a pledge affirming that it was “the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil”. Also “if any government deprives a people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or abolish it”. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Gandhi did not instruct for picketing of shops. He emphasized for a peaceful and constructive celebration of Independence Day on 26 January 1930. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• C. R. Das and Motilal resigned from their respective offices in the Congress and on 1 January 1923 announced the formation of the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party better known later as the Swaraj Party. Das was the first President and Motilal one of the Secretaries of the new party. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Swaraj Party accepted the Congress programme in its entirety except in one respect — it would take part in elections. It declared that it would present the national demand for self- government in the councils, and in case of its rejection, its elected members would adopt ‘a policy of uniform, continuous and consistent obstruction within the councils, with a view to make the Government through the councils impossible.’ The councils would, thus, be wrecked from within by creating deadlocks on every measure that came before them. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Both Pro-changer and No-changers opposed dyarchy or dual-rule introduced by the 1919 Reforms. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
•  The Pro-changers wanted to enter the Legislative council and challenge the government within the council. While No-changers opposed council entry and instead focused on the implementation of constructive programme in villages by carrying out social work among low castes and untouchables, by popularizing khadi and village industries, and by conducting anti-liquor campaigns. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Non-cooperation program was approved at a special session of Congress in Calcutta in September 1920. Non-cooperation had included the following programmes:
  • Students were asked to boycott government schools and colleges.
  • Lawyers were asked to boycott law courts. And Justice should be dispensed through Panchayats
  • Renunciation of government honours and titles.
  • boycott of legislative councils
  • boycott of foreign cloth and use of khadi instead;
  • A call was given for resignation from the government service

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Lala Lajpat Rai died in Lahore after being brutally assaulted by police while leading a protest against the Simon commission. Hence Option 1 is correct.
•  Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in protests against Simon Commission, although he gave his blessings to it. He was opposed to the Commission as it did not have any Indian members. Hence Option 3 is incorrect.

Jawahar lal Nehru led a demonstration against the commission in the Lucknow city. Govind Ballabh Pant also protested against the Simon Commission. While protesting against the Simon Commission, Pant sustained severe injuries. Hence Option 2 and 4 are correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Centre is contemplating earmarking Rs 6,000 crore to promote precision farming, a modern approach that uses smart technology such as the Internet of Things, Artificial Intelligence, drones, and data analytics to boost production through maximal use of resources while minimising environmental impact.

Precision Farming is a modern approach that uses smart technology such as the Internet of Things, Artificial Intelligence, drones, and data analytics to boost production through the maximal use of resources while minimising environmental impact. 

Advantages of Precision Farming:

• It helps farmers to tailor inputs to meet the specific needs of crops, leading to improved yield and efficiency. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It ensures judicious use of water, fertilizers, and pesticides, reducing waste and lowering production costs.
• It provides real-time data collection and analysis so farmers can make informed decisions, reducing risks related to unpredictable weather and crop diseases.
• It reduces the use of chemicals and minimizes soil and water contamination, promoting sustainable agricultural practices. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Challenges associated with Precision Farming:

• It requires significant investment in tools and infrastructure, which can be a barrier for small farmers. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Farmers need to be trained to use precision tools, interpret data, and implement the findings in their agricultural practices.
• Access to reliable internet connectivity, especially in rural areas, limits the adoption of precision farming in many regions.
• Processing and interpreting large amounts of data requires specialized software and skills, which are not always available to small-scale farmers.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Amid centenary events dedicated to the 450th Jyoti Jot Diwas (passing away day) of Sri Guru Amardas, the third Sikh Guru, a Nagar Kirtan (religious procession) was organised from Gurdwara Sri Tapiana Sahib, Sri Khadoor Sahib to Gurdwara Sri Baoli Sahib in Sri Goindwal Sahib as per ancient Sikh traditions.

• Guru Amardas Ji was born in 1479 at Basarke in Amritsar district, Sri Guru Amardas Ji was raised in an orthodox Hindu family.
• He was deeply inspired by the hymns of Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji and adopted Sri Guru Angad Dev Ji as his spiritual guide.
• He was appointed as the third Guru (succeeding Guru Angad Ji) in March 1552 at the age of 73, he established his headquarters in Goindwal.
• He divided the Sikh community into Manjis to facilitate the spread of Sikh teachings. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• He reinforced the tradition of ‘Guru ka Langar’ (communal kitchen) by insisting that visitors eat before meeting him, promoting equality and community.
• He abolished the custom of the Sati and Purdah system among the Sikhs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• He constructed a Baoli at Goindwal Sahib, making it a significant Sikh pilgrimage site.
• He introduced the ceremony of the Anand Karaj Marriage. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• He composed 869 verses (though some accounts state there were 709), including Anand Sahib, and Sri Guru Arjan Dev Ji incorporated all these Shabads into the Guru Granth Sahib.
• He was a contemporary of the Mughal ruler Akbar. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• His interaction with Emperor Akbar led to the abolition of toll-tax (pilgrim’s tax) for non-Muslims.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The modern telescope is a window into the universe, a sophisticated paintbrush in the hands of skilled astronomers that brings the fantastical wonders of the cosmos into view. 

• The primary function of a telescope is to enhance the brightness of celestial objects, measured by their light-gathering power. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The brightness of celestial objects is quantified by their apparent magnitude. Its values are logarithmic, meaning each step represents 2.512 times more brightness than the earlier. The lower the apparent magnitude, the brighter the object; the larger the magnitude, the dimmer it is. 
• Most telescopes are erected atop mountains because the higher we go, the less the air is disturbed. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The earth’s tumultuous atmosphere interferes with the telescope’s functioning and when starlight passes through the turbulence of air, it twinkles. 
• Space telescopes are more than 400 km above sea level, allowing them to entirely escape atmospheric disturbances. 
• The largest telescope to date is the Large Binocular Telescope (LBT) located at the Mount Graham International Observatory in Arizona, USA. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• It has two 8.4-m-wide mirrors and an effective combined aperture of 11.9 m. 

Note: 

• The Extremely Large Telescope (ELT) is under construction atop the Cerro Armazones in the Atacama Desert in Chile, as part of the European Southern Observatory. It has five mirrors and a combined aperture of 39.3 m. It is expected to be completed by 2028. 
• The Subaru Telescope is an 8.2-m-wide Japanese telescope located at the Mauna Kea Observatory in Hawaii. It recently used 10 hours of exposure time to capture a faint celestial object with a visual magnitude of 27.7, which is 100 million times fainter than what any human eye can detect.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context:

The Taiwan Strait also called as Formosa Strait is the gateway used by ships of almost every kind on passage to and from nearly all the important ports in Northeast Asia. It is a 180 km wide strait separating Taiwan and mainland China. The strait is currently part of the South China Sea and connects to the East China Sea to the north. The narrowest part is 130 km wide. The entire strait is on Asia’s continental shelf. It connects the East China Sea with the South China Sea. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Rapa Nui genomes restore the real history of old, troubled people.

• Rapa Nui is a part of volcanic origin located in the southeastern Pacific Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It also known as Easter Island, is one of the world’s most isolated inhabited islands with a population of about 7,000.
• It consists mainly of three extinct volcanoes – Terevaka, Poike, and Rano Kau.
• It is part of Polynesia and is officially a territory of Chile. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is a triangular island with an area of about 163.6 square kilometers.
• It has a temperate climate, with relatively cool temperatures throughout the year.
• It is famous for its large statues called moai. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Moai are shaped like large human heads and erected on stone pedestals. Some moai stand 40 feet tall and weigh 75 tonnes. They were carved in volcanic stone at quarries and then moved to their current locations across the island. 
• Rapa Nui National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• This recognition helps preserve the island’s cultural and natural heritage.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

Context: As ethnic violence continues, the Centre and the Manipur government are set to review the scope of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) in the northeastern State. 

Here the question is asking for an incorrect answer.

• The Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) gives the armed forces special powers and immunity to maintain public order in “disturbed areas”. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• An area can be considered to be disturbed due to differences or disputes among different religious, racial, language, or regional groups or castes or communities.
• It can be applied only after an area has been declared “disturbed” under section 2 of the Act. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• A disturbed area is one that is declared by notification under Section 3 of the AFSPA. It can be invoked in places where the use of armed forces in aid of civil power is necessary.
• Under AFSPA, armed forces have the authority to prohibit a gathering of five or more persons in an area, can use force, or even open fire after giving due warning if they feel a person is in contravention of the law. 
• If reasonable suspicion exists, the army can also arrest a person without a warrant, enter or search a premises without a warrant, and ban the possession of firearms.
• Any person arrested or taken into custody may be handed over to the officer in charge of the nearest police station along with a report detailing the circumstances that led to the arrest.
• The Central Government, or the Governor of the State or administrator of the Union Territory, can declare the whole or part of the State or Union Territory as a disturbed area. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• Once declared ‘disturbed’, the region is maintained as disturbed for a period of three months straight, according to the Disturbed Areas (Special Courts) Act, 1976. The government of the state can suggest whether the Act is required in the state or not.

 Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Union Cabinet has cleared the proposal to hold simultaneous elections in India, as recommended by a high-level committee headed by former President Ram Nath Kovind.

• One Nation, One Election means holding elections to Lok Sabha, all State Legislative Assemblies, and urban and rural local bodies at the same time. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The idea is to streamline the electoral process and reduce the frequency of elections, thus saving time and resources.
• The High-level Committee (HLC) on One Nation, One Election was chaired by Former President Ram Nath Kovind. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Note:

One Nation one election was the norm in India until 1967. Simultaneous elections were conducted for the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies in 1952, 1957, 1962, and 1967.

However, due to the premature dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies in 1968 and 1969, the simultaneous election cycle was disrupted. Further, in 1970, the Lok Sabha was dissolved prematurely, and fresh elections were held in 1971. All these events led to the breakdown of the cycle of simultaneous elections in India.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Preparations are almost over for Pulikkali, the grand finale of Onam celebrations in Thrissur.

Pulikkali is a recreational folk art in the Indian state of Kerala. It is mainly practiced in the Thrissur district of Kerala. It is performed on the fourth day of Onam celebrations. The main theme of this folk art is tiger hunting with participants playing the role of tiger and hunter. Performers paint their bodies like tigers and hunters and dance on streets to the beats of traditional percussion instruments such as thakil, udukku, and chenda. It was introduced by Maharaja Rama Varma Sakthan Thampuran, the then Maharaja of Cochin. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: India and Pakistan are at odds over renegotiating the 64-year-old Indus Water Treaty, risking the future of the Permanent Indus Commission.

The Indus Water Treaty (IWT) is a water-distribution treaty between
India and Pakistan signed on September 19, 1960. It was signed by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistan’s President Ayub Khan. According to the treaty, all the water of eastern rivers- Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej shall be available for unrestricted use in India. The waters of the Western rivers – Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab were allocated to Pakistan except for specified domestic, non-consumptive, and agricultural use permitted to India as provided in the Treaty. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Union Cabinet approved the continuation of schemes of Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA).

• The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme aimed at ensuring remunerative prices to the farmers for their produce. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has three components and states can choose whichever one they wish to implement. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The three components are:

• Price Support Scheme (PSS): Under this physical procurement of pulses, oilseeds, and copra is to be done by Central Nodal Agencies in collaboration with state governments. Both the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) and the Food Corporation of India (FCI) take up PSS operations in states.
• Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS): This is based on the recommendations of NITI Aayog which suggested “Price Deficiency Payment” for implementation of MSP in crops where procurement is poor.
• Pilot of Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): Under this scheme, participation of the private sector in procurement operations will be piloted. States have the option to roll out the scheme on a pilot basis in selected districts/APMCs involving private stockists.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The author opines that ‘Caste is a form of social stratification characterized by endogamy and hereditary transmission of a lifestyle.’

Solution (c)   

Explanation:

In S1 there is one equation and two variables, so we won’t be able to solve.

 In S2 there are two equations and three variables, so we won’t be able to solve. 

Hence, to determine whether X > Y or not, we would need help of both the statements. 

Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question. 

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct. The lines “Designing policies and programs to improve nutritional status requires an understanding of the factors that cause malnutrition, knowledge of the pathways in which these factors affect vulnerable groups and households, and an awareness of policy options available to reduce the impact of these factors on hunger and malnutrition”, reflect that it is important to design policies based on an understanding of the various factors causing malnutrition.  

Option (b) is incorrect. This statement in general is true. However, the context of the passage is not about India. The passage is about developing countries in a broader context, their issues of hunger and malnutrition and the importance of policies for addressing those issues.  

Option (c) is incorrect. This option is not covered directly or indirectly. The passage does not mention policies of the developed world related to hunger and whether they could be adopted in developing countries. So, to assume that adoption should be done without any context in the passage will not be correct.  

Option (d) is incorrect. This option is beyond the scope of the passage. There is no discussion on the aspect of funding for hunger in the passage.  

Solution (c)

Explanation:

12 to 19 — > 8 

23 to 29 — > 7 

34 to 39 — > 6 

45 to 49 — > 5 

56 to 59 — > 4 

67 to 69 — > 3 

78 to 79 — > 2 

89 to 89– > 1 

90 to 99 –> 0 

Total = 36