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Which of the following statements is correct about ‘Orbital Decays’.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Low Earth orbiting satellites experience orbital decay and have physical lifetimes determined almost entirely by their interaction with the atmosphere.
Every orbit — even gravitational orbits in General Relativity — will very, very slowly decay over time. It might take an exceptionally long time, some 10^150 years, but eventually, the Earth (and all the planets, after enough time) will have their orbits decay, and will spiral into the central mass of our Solar System. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Orbital decay is caused by one or more mechanisms which absorb energy from the orbital motion, such as fluid friction, gravitational anomalies, or electromagnetic effects. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
Solution (d)
Low Earth orbiting satellites experience orbital decay and have physical lifetimes determined almost entirely by their interaction with the atmosphere.
Every orbit — even gravitational orbits in General Relativity — will very, very slowly decay over time. It might take an exceptionally long time, some 10^150 years, but eventually, the Earth (and all the planets, after enough time) will have their orbits decay, and will spiral into the central mass of our Solar System. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
Orbital decay is caused by one or more mechanisms which absorb energy from the orbital motion, such as fluid friction, gravitational anomalies, or electromagnetic effects. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect
In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Solution (a)
Indian Remote Sensing Satellite (IRS), a sun synchronous satellite, is used for monitoring and management of natural resources (e.g. locating ground water resources, mineral exploration etc.) and Disaster Management Support. Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range.
The geostationary satellite is used for telecommunication, television broadcasting, and meteorological services.
Solution (a)
Indian Remote Sensing Satellite (IRS), a sun synchronous satellite, is used for monitoring and management of natural resources (e.g. locating ground water resources, mineral exploration etc.) and Disaster Management Support. Under remote sensing, Hyperspectral imaging produces an image where each pixel has full spectral information with imaging narrow spectral bands over a contiguous spectral range.
The geostationary satellite is used for telecommunication, television broadcasting, and meteorological services.
Consider the following statements about ‘Cryogenic fuel’
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Cryogenic propulsion is centered on using cryogenic propellants stored at frigid temperatures. Cryogenic fuel has a greater mass flow rate than traditional fuels and produces more thrust and power. The fuel’s low-temperature liquid state is also environmentally cleaner than conventional fuels. Hence, Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
The semi-cryogenic stage envisioned for the NGLV consists of refined kerosene as fuel with liquid oxygen (LOX) as an oxidiser. Given the low atmospheric density in space, launch vehicles carry an oxidiser for ignition purposes. Hence, Statement 3 are correct.
Solution (c)
Cryogenic propulsion is centered on using cryogenic propellants stored at frigid temperatures. Cryogenic fuel has a greater mass flow rate than traditional fuels and produces more thrust and power. The fuel’s low-temperature liquid state is also environmentally cleaner than conventional fuels. Hence, Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
The semi-cryogenic stage envisioned for the NGLV consists of refined kerosene as fuel with liquid oxygen (LOX) as an oxidiser. Given the low atmospheric density in space, launch vehicles carry an oxidiser for ignition purposes. Hence, Statement 3 are correct.
Consider the following statements
Select the correct statements
Solution (c)
A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
A dual mode ramjet (DMRJ) is a type of jet engine where a ramjet transforms into scramjet over Mach 4-8 range, which means it can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Solution (c)
A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, or Scramjet. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
A dual mode ramjet (DMRJ) is a type of jet engine where a ramjet transforms into scramjet over Mach 4-8 range, which means it can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor modes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
‘Neptune’ and ‘Uranus’ have different colours because
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Uranus’ atmosphere consists primarily of hydrogen and helium, but it also contains “ices” such as water, ammonia and methane. These ices also make up the planet’s mantle, which surrounds a rocky inner core.
Neptune’s atmosphere is also mostly composed of hydrogen and helium. It also has similar ices. And again like Uranus, its interior is primarily ices and rock. Hence, Statement 1 & 2 is incorrect.
New research suggests that a layer of concentrated haze that exists on both planets is thicker on Uranus than a similar layer on Neptune and ‘whitens’ Uranus’s appearance more than Neptune’s. The model reveals that excess haze on Uranus builds up in the planet’s stagnant, sluggish atmosphere and makes it appear a lighter tone than Neptune. If there were no haze in the atmospheres of Neptune and Uranus, both would appear almost equally blue. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Solution (a)
Uranus’ atmosphere consists primarily of hydrogen and helium, but it also contains “ices” such as water, ammonia and methane. These ices also make up the planet’s mantle, which surrounds a rocky inner core.
Neptune’s atmosphere is also mostly composed of hydrogen and helium. It also has similar ices. And again like Uranus, its interior is primarily ices and rock. Hence, Statement 1 & 2 is incorrect.
New research suggests that a layer of concentrated haze that exists on both planets is thicker on Uranus than a similar layer on Neptune and ‘whitens’ Uranus’s appearance more than Neptune’s. The model reveals that excess haze on Uranus builds up in the planet’s stagnant, sluggish atmosphere and makes it appear a lighter tone than Neptune. If there were no haze in the atmospheres of Neptune and Uranus, both would appear almost equally blue. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Consider the following statements about ‘Coronal holes.’
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Coronal holes can develop at any time and location on the Sun, but are more common and persistent during the years around solar minimum. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The more persistent coronal holes can sometimes last through several solar rotations (27-day periods). Coronal holes are most prevalent and stable at the solar north and south poles; but these polar holes can grow and expand to lower solar latitudes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
It is also possible for coronal holes to develop in isolation from the polar holes; or for an extension of a polar hole to split off and become an isolated structure. Persistent coronal holes are long-lasting sources for high speed solar wind streams. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Solution (b)
Coronal holes can develop at any time and location on the Sun, but are more common and persistent during the years around solar minimum. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The more persistent coronal holes can sometimes last through several solar rotations (27-day periods). Coronal holes are most prevalent and stable at the solar north and south poles; but these polar holes can grow and expand to lower solar latitudes. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
It is also possible for coronal holes to develop in isolation from the polar holes; or for an extension of a polar hole to split off and become an isolated structure. Persistent coronal holes are long-lasting sources for high speed solar wind streams. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
Solution (a)
All these terms come from theoretical physics branch, which investigates into state of matter and composition, origin, and extent of universe.
Solution (a)
All these terms come from theoretical physics branch, which investigates into state of matter and composition, origin, and extent of universe.
Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years?
Solution (d)
Astronomical distances are measures in light-years as the speed of light is constant.
A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space. It’s defined by how far a beam of light travels in one year – a distance of six trillion miles.
Solution (d)
Astronomical distances are measures in light-years as the speed of light is constant.
A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space. It’s defined by how far a beam of light travels in one year – a distance of six trillion miles.
Consider the following:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The Aditya-L1 mission is India’s first dedicated spacecraft mission to study the Sun. It will enable a comprehensive understanding of the dynamical processes of the Sun and address some of the outstanding problems in solar physics and heliophysics. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Aditya L1 is a planned coronagraphy spacecraft to study the solar atmosphere, currently being designed and developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and various other Indian research institutes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| The Aditya-L1 mission is India’s first dedicated spacecraft mission to study the Sun. It will enable a comprehensive understanding of the dynamical processes of the Sun and address some of the outstanding problems in solar physics and heliophysics. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Aditya L1 is a planned coronagraphy spacecraft to study the solar atmosphere, currently being designed and developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and various other Indian research institutes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
Consider the following with regard to ‘Super Earths’:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| Super-Earths – a class of planets unlike any in our solar system – are more massive than Earth yet lighter than ice giants like Neptune and Uranus, and can be made of gas, rock or a combination of both. They are between twice the size of Earth and up to 10 times its mass. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Super-Earth is a reference only to an exoplanet’s size – larger than Earth and smaller than Neptune – but not suggesting they are necessarily similar to our home planet.
The true nature of these planets remains shrouded in uncertainty because we have nothing like them in our own solar system – and yet, they are common among planets found so far in our galaxy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Incorrect |
| Super-Earths – a class of planets unlike any in our solar system – are more massive than Earth yet lighter than ice giants like Neptune and Uranus, and can be made of gas, rock or a combination of both. They are between twice the size of Earth and up to 10 times its mass. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Super-Earth is a reference only to an exoplanet’s size – larger than Earth and smaller than Neptune – but not suggesting they are necessarily similar to our home planet.
The true nature of these planets remains shrouded in uncertainty because we have nothing like them in our own solar system – and yet, they are common among planets found so far in our galaxy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
|
Consider the following:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Red dwarfs are the coolest main-sequence stars, with a spectral type of M and a surface temperature of about 2,000–3,500 K. Because these stars are so cool, spectral lines of molecules such as titanium oxide, which would be disassociated in hotter stars, are quite prominent. Red dwarfs are cooler than other types of stars and emit less visible light, which makes studying them challenging. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Red dwarfs, stars smaller than the Sun, account for three-quarters of the stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, and are abundant in the neighborhood around the Sun. As such, they are important targets in the search for nearby extra-solar planets and extra-terrestrial life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | Correct |
| Red dwarfs are the coolest main-sequence stars, with a spectral type of M and a surface temperature of about 2,000–3,500 K. Because these stars are so cool, spectral lines of molecules such as titanium oxide, which would be disassociated in hotter stars, are quite prominent. Red dwarfs are cooler than other types of stars and emit less visible light, which makes studying them challenging. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Red dwarfs, stars smaller than the Sun, account for three-quarters of the stars in the Milky Way Galaxy, and are abundant in the neighborhood around the Sun. As such, they are important targets in the search for nearby extra-solar planets and extra-terrestrial life. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
|
Which of the following is not an application of the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS)?
Choose the correct code:
Solution (b)
IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Some applications of IRNSS are:
Solution (b)
IRNSS will provide two types of services, namely, Standard Positioning Service (SPS) which is provided to all the users and Restricted Service (RS), which is an encrypted service provided only to the authorised users. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 m in the primary service area.
Some applications of IRNSS are:
A particular type of active galaxy that emits more light at radio wavelengths than at visible wavelengths is a type of:
Solution (b)
A particular type of active galaxy that emits more light at radio wavelengths than at visible wavelengths, also known as a radio-luminous galaxy or radio-loud galaxy. Radio galaxies are driven by non-thermal emissions. Radio telescopes show that some radio galaxies, called extended radio galaxies, have lobes of radio emission extending millions of light-years from their nuclei. Centaurus A is a nearby example of an extended radio galaxy.
Solution (b)
A particular type of active galaxy that emits more light at radio wavelengths than at visible wavelengths, also known as a radio-luminous galaxy or radio-loud galaxy. Radio galaxies are driven by non-thermal emissions. Radio telescopes show that some radio galaxies, called extended radio galaxies, have lobes of radio emission extending millions of light-years from their nuclei. Centaurus A is a nearby example of an extended radio galaxy.
Consider the following regarding the differences between SSLV and PSLV:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Getting built on a completely commercial aspect, SSLV and PSLV are very different from each other even though they both are used for satellite launches into Low Earth Orbit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
|
Taking the payload capacity as the point of comparison, the two satellites are equally powerful in lifting big structures off the ground. While the SSLV has been designed to carry objects ranging from 10 kilograms to 500 kilograms to a 500-kilometre planar orbit, the PSLV can deposit 1,750 kilograms of payload to Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits of 600 km altitude. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. | It is worth noting that PSLV takes a big win in overall comparison, but SSLV wins when it comes to turn-around time. Turn-around time implies the readying of a rocket for the next launch and SSLV can be prepared and shifted to the launch pad in just over 72 hours, as against the two months required to prep the PSLV. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. |
Solution (a)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Incorrect |
| Getting built on a completely commercial aspect, SSLV and PSLV are very different from each other even though they both are used for satellite launches into Low Earth Orbit. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
|
Taking the payload capacity as the point of comparison, the two satellites are equally powerful in lifting big structures off the ground. While the SSLV has been designed to carry objects ranging from 10 kilograms to 500 kilograms to a 500-kilometre planar orbit, the PSLV can deposit 1,750 kilograms of payload to Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbits of 600 km altitude. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. | It is worth noting that PSLV takes a big win in overall comparison, but SSLV wins when it comes to turn-around time. Turn-around time implies the readying of a rocket for the next launch and SSLV can be prepared and shifted to the launch pad in just over 72 hours, as against the two months required to prep the PSLV. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. |
Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Dark matter is composed of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit light, so they cannot be detected by observing electromagnetic radiation. Dark matter is material that cannot be seen directly. We know that dark matter exists because of the effect it has on objects that we can observe directly. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Dark matter is composed of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit light, so they cannot be detected by observing electromagnetic radiation. Dark matter is material that cannot be seen directly. We know that dark matter exists because of the effect it has on objects that we can observe directly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. | All the material we can see is just a small fraction of the universe. The rest, a full 95 percent, is invisible and mysterious. These are the enigmatic dark matter and dark energy. While dark matter keeps things like galaxies together, dark energy acts in an opposite way – it pushes groups of galaxies apart and expands the universe itself. Hence, statement 3 is correct. |
Solution (b)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
| Dark matter is composed of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit light, so they cannot be detected by observing electromagnetic radiation. Dark matter is material that cannot be seen directly. We know that dark matter exists because of the effect it has on objects that we can observe directly. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Dark matter is composed of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit light, so they cannot be detected by observing electromagnetic radiation. Dark matter is material that cannot be seen directly. We know that dark matter exists because of the effect it has on objects that we can observe directly. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. | All the material we can see is just a small fraction of the universe. The rest, a full 95 percent, is invisible and mysterious. These are the enigmatic dark matter and dark energy. While dark matter keeps things like galaxies together, dark energy acts in an opposite way – it pushes groups of galaxies apart and expands the universe itself. Hence, statement 3 is correct. |
Consider the following:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | |
| With the exception of Pluto, planets in our solar system are classified as either terrestrial (Earth-like) or Jovian (Jupiter-like) planets. Terrestrial planets include Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. These planets are relatively small in size and in mass. A terrestrial planet has a solid rocky surface, with metals deep in its interior. In the solar system, these planets are closer to the sun and are therefore warmer than the planets located farther out in the solar system. Future space missions are being designed to search remotely for terrestrial planets around other stars.
Jovian planets: The outer planets of our solar system: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. A planet designated as Jovian is hence a gas giant, composed primarily of hydrogen and helium gas with varying degrees of heavier elements. In addition to having large systems of moons, these planets each have their own ring systems as well. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. |
|
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
| Correct | |
| With the exception of Pluto, planets in our solar system are classified as either terrestrial (Earth-like) or Jovian (Jupiter-like) planets. Terrestrial planets include Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. These planets are relatively small in size and in mass. A terrestrial planet has a solid rocky surface, with metals deep in its interior. In the solar system, these planets are closer to the sun and are therefore warmer than the planets located farther out in the solar system. Future space missions are being designed to search remotely for terrestrial planets around other stars.
Jovian planets: The outer planets of our solar system: Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. A planet designated as Jovian is hence a gas giant, composed primarily of hydrogen and helium gas with varying degrees of heavier elements. In addition to having large systems of moons, these planets each have their own ring systems as well. Hence, both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct. |
|
The place where the Sun’s constant flow of material and magnetic field stop affecting its surroundings is known as:
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Scientists define the beginning of interstellar space as the place where the Sun’s constant flow of material and magnetic field stop affecting its surroundings. This place is called the heliopause.
Interstellar space, the space between the stars– isn’t just empty space. There’s a lot of “stuff” out there, including hydrogen (70%) and helium (28%), formed in the Big Bang that set our universe into motion. The other 2% of “stuff” in interstellar space is heavier gases and dust, consisting of the other elements made inside stars and spewed into space by supernovae. The material in interstellar space is very spread out. It’s denser in some places than in others, but a typical density is about one atom per cubic centimeter. Still, even the most dense regions of interstellar space count as vacuum, compared with our earthly air.
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Scientists define the beginning of interstellar space as the place where the Sun’s constant flow of material and magnetic field stop affecting its surroundings. This place is called the heliopause.
Interstellar space, the space between the stars– isn’t just empty space. There’s a lot of “stuff” out there, including hydrogen (70%) and helium (28%), formed in the Big Bang that set our universe into motion. The other 2% of “stuff” in interstellar space is heavier gases and dust, consisting of the other elements made inside stars and spewed into space by supernovae. The material in interstellar space is very spread out. It’s denser in some places than in others, but a typical density is about one atom per cubic centimeter. Still, even the most dense regions of interstellar space count as vacuum, compared with our earthly air.
What are Plutoids?
Solution (d)
Plutoids are celestial bodies in orbit around the Sun at a semi major axis greater than that of Neptune that has sufficient mass for their self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that they assume a hydrostatic equilibrium (near-spherical) shape, and that have not cleared the neighbourhood around their orbit. The International Astronomical Union has decided on the term plutoid as a name for dwarf planets like Pluto.
Solution (d)
Plutoids are celestial bodies in orbit around the Sun at a semi major axis greater than that of Neptune that has sufficient mass for their self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that they assume a hydrostatic equilibrium (near-spherical) shape, and that have not cleared the neighbourhood around their orbit. The International Astronomical Union has decided on the term plutoid as a name for dwarf planets like Pluto.
Which of the following planets has the strongest gravitational pull?
Solution (d)
Jupiter is the biggest planet in our solar system, and so it also has the strongest gravitational field among all the planets. The only celestial object whose gravitational pull exceeds that of Jupiter is the Sun. Jupiter is roughly 318 times the mass of Earth, yet its surface gravity is not 318 times as strong. Despite its immense mass, the force of gravity on the surface of Jupiter is only about twice and a half time as strong as Earth’s, or 24.8 meters per second square.
Solution (d)
Jupiter is the biggest planet in our solar system, and so it also has the strongest gravitational field among all the planets. The only celestial object whose gravitational pull exceeds that of Jupiter is the Sun. Jupiter is roughly 318 times the mass of Earth, yet its surface gravity is not 318 times as strong. Despite its immense mass, the force of gravity on the surface of Jupiter is only about twice and a half time as strong as Earth’s, or 24.8 meters per second square.
Consider the following:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| A low Earth orbit (LEO) is, as the name suggests, an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth – which is low compared to other orbits, but still very far above Earth’s surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Unlike satellites in GEO that must always orbit along Earth’s equator, LEO satellites do not always have to follow a particular path around Earth in the same way – their plane can be tilted. This means there are more available routes for satellites in LEO, which is one of the reasons why LEO is a very commonly used orbit. Hence, statement 2 is correct. | It is also the orbit used for the International Space Station (ISS), as it is easier for astronauts to travel to and from it at a shorter distance. Satellites in this orbit travel at a speed of around 7.8 km per second; at this speed, a satellite takes approximately 90 minutes to circle Earth, meaning the ISS travels around Earth about 16 times a day. Hence, statement 3 is correct. |
Solution (c)
| Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
| Correct | Correct | Correct |
| A low Earth orbit (LEO) is, as the name suggests, an orbit that is relatively close to Earth’s surface. It is normally at an altitude of less than 1000 km but could be as low as 160 km above Earth – which is low compared to other orbits, but still very far above Earth’s surface. Hence, statement 1 is correct. | Unlike satellites in GEO that must always orbit along Earth’s equator, LEO satellites do not always have to follow a particular path around Earth in the same way – their plane can be tilted. This means there are more available routes for satellites in LEO, which is one of the reasons why LEO is a very commonly used orbit. Hence, statement 2 is correct. | It is also the orbit used for the International Space Station (ISS), as it is easier for astronauts to travel to and from it at a shorter distance. Satellites in this orbit travel at a speed of around 7.8 km per second; at this speed, a satellite takes approximately 90 minutes to circle Earth, meaning the ISS travels around Earth about 16 times a day. Hence, statement 3 is correct. |
Consider the following statements about Electronic Bank Realization Certificate (e-BRC):
Choose the correct code:
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements about the Enforcement Directorate (ED):
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
Consider the following statements about Steel Slag Road Technology:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC):
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about Khashaba Dadasaheb Jadhav:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Consider the following statements about Gingee Venkataramana Temple:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (c)
Solution (c)
It is the fourth tiger reserve in Rajasthan, India. It comprises hilly dry deciduous forests consisting of Dhok, Khair and Salar on Vindhyan formations. It plays a critical role in the movement of tigers. It has culturally significant monuments like Bhimlat.
The above paragraph describes which of the following tiger reserve?
Solution (d)
Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is the fourth tiger reserve in Rajasthan, India. It comprises hilly dry deciduous forests consisting of Dhok, Khair, and Salar on Vindhyan formations. It plays a critical role in the movement of tigers. It has culturally significant monuments like Bhimlat. Hence option d is correct.
Solution (d)
Ramgarh Vishdhari Tiger Reserve is the fourth tiger reserve in Rajasthan, India. It comprises hilly dry deciduous forests consisting of Dhok, Khair, and Salar on Vindhyan formations. It plays a critical role in the movement of tigers. It has culturally significant monuments like Bhimlat. Hence option d is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Commission on Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture (CGRFA):
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
Which of the following fish is known as ‘Mosquito Fish’ as it combats diseases like malaria and dengue?
Solution (d)
Gambusia affinis is a freshwater fish. It is also known as mosquito fish and has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India. A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day. Hence option d is correct.
Solution (d)
Gambusia affinis is a freshwater fish. It is also known as mosquito fish and has been a part of mosquito-control strategies for over a century in various parts of the world, including India. A single full-grown fish eats about 100 to 300 mosquito larvae per day. Hence option d is correct.
Consider the following statements about the Gomti River:
How many of the above statements are correct?
Solution (b)
Solution (b)
How many 3 digit numbers can you make using the digits 1, 2 and 3 without repetitions?
Solution (b)
Making all possible combinations – 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, 321 – we get 6 combinations
The total number of n-digit numbers are given by n! = 3! =6.
Hence, Option(b) is the right answer.
Solution (b)
Making all possible combinations – 123, 132, 213, 231, 312, 321 – we get 6 combinations
The total number of n-digit numbers are given by n! = 3! =6.
Hence, Option(b) is the right answer.
6, 15, 49, 201, 1011, X. Find X in the given series
Solution (b)
6, 15, 49, 201, 1011, X
6
6 * 2 + 3 = 15
15 * 3 + 4= 49
49 * 4 + 5= 201
201 * 5 + 6= 1011
1011 *6 + 7 = 6073
Solution (b)
6, 15, 49, 201, 1011, X
6
6 * 2 + 3 = 15
15 * 3 + 4= 49
49 * 4 + 5= 201
201 * 5 + 6= 1011
1011 *6 + 7 = 6073
The sum of two natural numbers is 109. One fifth of the first number is five more than one seventh of the second number. If it is known that the second number is a perfect square, which of the following statements is/are definitely true in this regard?
Solution (c)
Let the two numbers be a and b respectively. As we know that the sum of the two numbers is 109 So, a + b = 109 ……………(1)
Also, one fifth of a number is five more than one seventh of another number So, a/5 = b/7 + 5. ……………(2)
As second number is a perfect square and also divisible by 7. So, b should be equal to 49.
And a = 109 – 49 = 60.
Now, we examine all the given options: Option (a): False ->Difference of the two numbers is 11. (Odd) Option (b): False ->HCF (60, 49) =1. Option (c): True ->Difference of two numbers is 11 (prime). Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Solution (c)
Let the two numbers be a and b respectively. As we know that the sum of the two numbers is 109 So, a + b = 109 ……………(1)
Also, one fifth of a number is five more than one seventh of another number So, a/5 = b/7 + 5. ……………(2)
As second number is a perfect square and also divisible by 7. So, b should be equal to 49.
And a = 109 – 49 = 60.
Now, we examine all the given options: Option (a): False ->Difference of the two numbers is 11. (Odd) Option (b): False ->HCF (60, 49) =1. Option (c): True ->Difference of two numbers is 11 (prime). Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
The number of zeros at the end of the expression (5!)5!+ (10!)10!+ (15!)15!+ (20!)20! is: [for any natural number n, n! = 1.2.3.4 … … … (n –1). n]
Solution (c)
The number of zeros at the end of (5!)5! =120
(∵ 5! = 120 and thus 120^120 will give 120 zeros)
Number of zeros at the end of (10!)^10!, (50!)^50!and (100!)^100! will be greater than 120.
Now since the number of zeros at the end of the whole expression will depend on the number which has least number of zeros at the end of the number among the other given numbers.
So, the number of zeros at the end of the given expression is 120.
Solution (c)
The number of zeros at the end of (5!)5! =120
(∵ 5! = 120 and thus 120^120 will give 120 zeros)
Number of zeros at the end of (10!)^10!, (50!)^50!and (100!)^100! will be greater than 120.
Now since the number of zeros at the end of the whole expression will depend on the number which has least number of zeros at the end of the number among the other given numbers.
So, the number of zeros at the end of the given expression is 120.
Consider the following statements :
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Of the two-consecutive integer one will always be odd and one will be even
(3, 4) → 3^2 ⇒ 9 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 1)
(4, 5) → 5^2 ⇒ 25 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 3)
(6, 7) → 7^2 ⇒ 49 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 6)
(8, 9) → 9^2 ⇒ 81 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 10)
(10, 11) → 11^2 ⇒ 121 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 15)
∴Both the statements given here are correct.
Solution (c)
Of the two-consecutive integer one will always be odd and one will be even
(3, 4) → 3^2 ⇒ 9 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 1)
(4, 5) → 5^2 ⇒ 25 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 3)
(6, 7) → 7^2 ⇒ 49 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 6)
(8, 9) → 9^2 ⇒ 81 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 10)
(10, 11) → 11^2 ⇒ 121 ⇒ 8n + 1 (n = 15)
∴Both the statements given here are correct.
All the Best
IASbaba
