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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner.

In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision.

Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision.

You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY [DAY 5]

Q.1) Consider the following statements about Big Bang Theory:

1. The model describes how the universe expanded from an initial state of extremely high density and low temperature.
2. According to this theory, Galaxies are still drifting apart.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements about “Standard Model of Particle Physics”:

1. This model does not include electromagnetic forces.
2. This theory is a complete theory of fundamental interaction.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Which of the following is incorrect about Higgs Boson?

1. It is caused by Quantum excitation.
2. Large Hadron Collider is experiment related to Higgs Boson.
3. It is a subatomic particle.
4. Electric Charge on it is +1 e.

Q.4) Consider the following statements about ‘Neutrino’:

1. Neutrino has mass larger than other elementary particle.
2. Neutrino generally gets detected while passing through normal matter.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) With reference to “Gravitational Wave”, consider the following statements:

1. Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 in his general theory of relativity.
2. Pulsar Radio emission’s study has confirmed the Einstein’s Prediction.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.6) Consider following statements regarding Dark Matter –

1. Dark matter is an Anti-matter.
2. Universe comprises of 68% dark energy and 27% of dark matter.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Consider the following statements about Black Hole:

1. Black Hole is very dense object through which only light can escape.
2. Astronauts observe Black holes directly by detecting X-ray or other form of Electromagnetic Radiation.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Consider the following statements about Space orbits:

1. Satellites in Low Earth Orbit do not have to follow a particular path.
2. Satellites have more available routes in Geo Stationary orbit than Lower Earth Orbits.
3. Satellites in Polar Earth Orbit usually travel past Earth from north to south.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Q.9) Consider the following statements about GSLV Mk – II:

1. It is a four staged vehicle mainly used to send satellites in Geostationary Orbit.
2. First two stages uses solid rocket motor, second stage using liquid fuel and final stage using cryogenic engine.

Choose correct statement from the below given options:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 not 2

Q.10) Explosive death of the star which often result in star obtaining the brightness of 100 million suns for the short time is known as

1. Nova
2. Supernova
3. Nebula
4. White dwarf

Q.11) Consider the following statements about Venus:

1. It is brightest planet in the solar system.
2. Venus has no atmosphere as gravity is too weak to hold down a normal atmosphere.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Consider the following statements about “Kuiper Belt”.

1. It is a donut-shaped region of icy bodies closest to the orbit of Uranus.
2. First mission to explore the Kuiper belt is New Horizons.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) Which of the following is incorrect about Exoplanets?

1. These planets are certainly liveable.
2. Ploonets are a type of Exoplanet, which are detached moons of other planets.
3. 51 Pegasi b was the first Exoplanet discovered by Mayor and Queloz in December, 1995.
4. As of 2019, more than 4000 exoplanets are discovered.

Q.14) Consider the following statements about ‘Satellite series of ISRO’s’:

1. Indian National Satellite (INSAT) is a type of Earth observation satellite.
2. RESOURCESAT is placed in geostationary orbit, which enable it to communicate over large distances.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.15) With reference to “GSAT -30”, consider the following statements:

1. It is going to replace INSAT -4A with enhanced coverage.
2. Launch vehicle used to launch this mission was GSLV-Mk III.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.16) Hyper spectral Imaging can be used in –

1. Identification of Weeds
2. Evaluation of Ripeness of crops
3. Tracking water Quality
4. Wound Healing
5. Characterize Food quality

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
4. All of the above

Q.17) Consider the following statements about IRNSS:

1. With IRNSS, India became the fourth country in the world to have its independent regional navigation satellite system recognised by the International Maritime Organisation (IMO).
2. IRNSS will replace GPS in Indian Ocean up to 5000 km from the boundaries.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements about Indian Data Relay Satellite System (IDRSS):

1. IDRSS will be placed in Low Earth Orbit.
2. It is to facilitate relay of information between various Indian spacecraft, in-flight launch vehicle monitoring and assist Indian Human Spaceflight Programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) Consider the following statements about NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR)

1. Both NASA and ISRO will share cost equally.
2. It will be placed in Geostationary Orbit for larger coverage of earth.

Choose correct statement from the below given options:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 not 2

Q.20) Consider the following statements about Space debris:

1. Currently, there is no binding international legal rule which prohibits the creation of space debris.
2. Outer Space Treaty bars the states party to the treaty from placing weapons of mass destruction in Earth orbit.
3. RemoveDEBRIS Mission is mission to remove debris from space, led by NASA.

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. All of the above

Q.21) With reference to Export Preparedness Index (EPI) 2020, consider the following statements:

1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry releases the Index.
2. Among the landlocked states, Rajasthan has topped the index followed by Telangana.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI) is centered around which of the following pillars?

1. Trade connectivity and maritime transport
2. Maritime security
3. Disaster risk reduction and management
4. Climate resilience and Sustainability
5. Science and Technology cooperation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.23) With reference to National Recruitment Agency (NRA), consider the following statements:

1. It is registered as a society under Societies Registration Act, 1860.
2. It is a testing agency which would conduct the Common Eligibility Examination (CET) for gazetted Group B and C posts.
3. NRA conducts CET in all the 22 scheduled languages.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Consider the following statements about Warli Paintings:

1. It is a traditional art form of Maharashtra.
2. It depicts mythological characters or images of deities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Infrastructure Fund:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
2. It provides short to medium term debt financing facility.
3. Only post harvest management projects are eligible for finances under it.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) The Galapagos Islands is a part of which of the following country?

1. Chile
2. Brazil
3. Colombia
4. Ecuador

Q.27) Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following states has declared a particular mangrove as ‘State mangrove tree’?

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Odisha
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal

Q.28) Which of the following Convention of International Labour Organization (ILO) has become the first international labour standard ever to achieve universal ratification?

1. Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
2. Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
3. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
4. Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)

Q.29) With reference to 6^th schedule of Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. Tribal areas constituted as autonomous districts fall outside the executive authority of the State concerned.
2. The Governor of the State is empowered to organise and re-organise the autonomous districts.
3. Majority of the members of Autonomous District Council are elected on the basis of adult franchise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) Which of the following statements regarding National Council for Transgender Persons is NOT correct?

1. It is a statutory body.
2. The Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council.
3. Both transgender community and experts from non-governmental organisations are represented in the Council.
4. The members of the council shall hold office for a term of five years.

Q.31) A certain number of horses and an equal number of men are going somewhere. Half of the owners are on their horses’ back while the remaining ones are walking along leading their horses. If the number of legs walking on the ground is 70, how many horses are there?

1. 8
2. 10
3. 12
4. 14

Q.32) Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A?

1. 17 Rs and 15 Rs
2. 13 Rs and 17 Rs
3. 17 Rs and 13 Rs
4. 15 Rs and 17 Rs

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

Dryland farming refers to the agricultural technique where the cultivation of crops is dependent on natural rainfall. Dryland farming, while accounting for 73 per cent of the cultivated area in India contributes only about 42 per cent of the food grains produced. This is primarily because this form of cultivation has not been accorded the level of priority it deserves, either by agricultural scientists, or by the government. Dryland farming is cultivation of land which derives water only through rains. Hence, an understanding of rainfall patterns and land characteristics is crucial for optimizing use of available water for Dryland crops. The Planning Commission is yet to detail a concrete target-oriented approach towards boosting productivity of Dryland Farming Areas of India. It is now feared that food imbalances would persist unless cultivation of oilseeds, pulses and coarse grains is stepped up in dry areas.

Significantly enough, the few Dryland projects sponsored by the Central Government, have yielded encouraging results. Schemes to popularize the use of seeds of improved varieties, fertilizer drills and plant protection measures were launched. It is also true that while the required knowledge and methodology for Dryland farming are available in the country, these have not reached the farmer at the grassroots level. This is because of the lack of extension services in the States. State Governments have not shown much interest in promoting Dryland farming, which they seem to consider as the exclusive responsibility of the Centre. Agricultural experts believe this form of cultivation holds great promise in increasing the country’s food grains output. It needs to be borne in mind that even after full exploitation of the irrigation potential available, 50 per cent of India’s cultivable land would still depend upon rains.  In this context, greater attention has to be paid to the less developed regions so that agricultural prosperity is evenly distributed and the consequent increase in purchasing power of the farming community plays a supportive role for industrial advance. The chances of good crops increase with the usage of proper fertilizers and pesticides. The farmers need to be educated regarding the benefits of fertilizers. Studies have revealed that enthusiasm in adoption of better quality fertilizers and pesticides has slackened because farmers cannot be convinced that investment in costly inputs could be profitable in dryland regions also. It has been proved that intercropping combinations with improved seeds, fertilizers and soil management are the most profitable and stable means of increasing yield and crop intensities for Dryland agriculture.

In purely geographic terms, India holds 13 per cent of the world’s semi-arid areas and quite a sizeable population resides in these regions. As such, the thrust of its agricultural program has necessarily been on preserving soil moisture and preventing wastage of pond water. Tillage and planting operations, establishing optimum plant population levels, scientific weed control and efficient use of fertilizers are equally significant. Scientists have also devised contingency plans for dryland to meet the challenges of aberrant weather. These plans call for instant change of crops. It would be necessary to set up buffer banks to make available alternative crop seeds. As rain water has to seep into the soil through the surface, the land has to be kept open for receiving more and more moisture. Leveled and weeds free land: It should also be free of weeds, and leveled, wherever necessary, so that the maximum amount of rain water seeps into the soil.

Q.33) The purpose of Dryland farming in India is to – give the significant reason(s) using the options below.

1. Tillage and planting operations.
2. Establishing optimum plant population levels.
3. Scientific weed control and efficient use of fertilizers.
4. India holds semi-arid areas and sizeable populations.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 4 only
4. All of above

Q.34) According to the passage – Dryland farming thus needs to be given a complete scientific orientation and obtaining better results in a regime where there is too little utilization of irrigation potential. According to these lines what would is/are the expectation(s) can be helpful achieving significantly is/are

1. Increased production would bring down prices
2. The government’s burden of food grains subsidy would be reduced
3. Public distribution system would become redundant
4. Food balance would persist.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. All of above
4. None of above

Q.35) According to the passage lack of the extension services in the states, what is the very important thing(s) is/are not been done. (Select the valid reason of lacking).

1. Education of farmers at grassroots levels.
2. Lack of Encouragement of dry land farming by state government.
3. Lacking of sponsorship
4. Popularizing of schemes.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

• Information meter < 4
  • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.

• Analysis meter < 4
  • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.

• Anxiety meter < 3
  • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.

• Risk meter < 8
  • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.

• Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021 

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba