IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 2 – CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the principles of the Rule of Law:
- Rule of Law ensures arbitrary use of power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.
- The concept of Equality before Law is an element of the concept of Rule of Law.
- The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated in Indian Constitution from the Constitution of United States.
Which of the above given statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Hint: Use elimination technique and eliminate option 2. Option 2 is basic knowledge which every student must know. UPSC plays with words in the statements, you must carefully read every word of the statement.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect -The law implies:
*Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.*Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.
The concept of ‘Equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated from the Constitution of Britain. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Hint: Use elimination technique and eliminate option 2. Option 2 is basic knowledge which every student must know. UPSC plays with words in the statements, you must carefully read every word of the statement.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect -The law implies:
*Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.*Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low, official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts.
The concept of ‘Equality before law’ is an element of the concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated from the Constitution of Britain. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
- Article 37 of the constitution says these principles are fundamental and binding in nature.
- Directive principles are in the nature of ‘Instrument of Instructions’ to the State.
- They seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. DPSPs are not binding, in nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ to the State. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State. They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Additional Info:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.
Though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (Equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. DPSPs are not binding, in nature which means they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ to the State. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political program for a modern democratic State. They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Additional Info:
The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which had copied it from the Spanish Constitution.
They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them.
Though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
The Supreme Court has ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (Equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
With respect to Fundamental Rights provided in the Indian Constitution, which of the following statements are correct?
- Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified in nature.
- Rights under Article 14, 16 and 21 are enjoyed by the foreign citizens also.
- They are available against the arbitrary action of the State.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified, which the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Some of the Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens (Article 15, 16, 19, 29, 30) while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies. Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. Additional Info:
Important features of Fundamental Rights
– The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
– In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (Bill of rights).
– They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
– Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
– Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
– They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
– They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgement of the high courts.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Fundamental Rights are not absolute but qualified, which the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Some of the Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens (Article 15, 16, 19, 29, 30) while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies. Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. Additional Info:
Important features of Fundamental Rights
– The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
– In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (Bill of rights).
– They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
– Most of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State, with a few exceptions like those against the State’s action and against the action of private individuals. When the rights that are available against the State’s action only and are violated by the private individuals, there are no constitutional remedies but only ordinary legal remedies.
– Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
– They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
– They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgement of the high courts.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding the Right to Education as provided under the Indian Constitution?
- It has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, which makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
- It is available to both citizens as well as foreigners.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
* Question is asking to choose incorrect option.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. – Thus, this provision which has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
It is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. Additional Info:
86th Amendment, 2002:
- This amendment is a major milestone in the country’s aim to achieve ‘Education for All’. The government described this step as ‘the dawn of the second Revolution in the chapter of citizens’ rights.
- This amendment also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A that reads —‘It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years’.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
* Question is asking to choose incorrect option.
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine. – Thus, this provision which has been added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
It is available to both citizens as well as foreigners. Additional Info:
86th Amendment, 2002:
- This amendment is a major milestone in the country’s aim to achieve ‘Education for All’. The government described this step as ‘the dawn of the second Revolution in the chapter of citizens’ rights.
- This amendment also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A that reads —‘It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years’.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
The Parliament cannot amend these provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution:
- Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
- Principle of equality
- Free and fair elections
- Independence of Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
– Even though the basic structure doctrine was given by the SC, it is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. It is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution, and our understanding of the basic structure comes from the various judgements of the court.
– The following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution:
*Supremacy of the Constitution; Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian
polity; Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; Federal character of the Constitution; Unity and integrity of the nation; Welfare state (socio-economic justice)*Judicial review; Freedom and dignity of the individual; Parliamentary system; Rule of law;
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; Principle of
equality.* Free and fair elections; Independence of Judiciary; Limited power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution; Effective access to justice; Principle of reasonableness; Powers of the Supreme
Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142.Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
– Even though the basic structure doctrine was given by the SC, it is yet to define or clarify as to what constitutes the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. It is not mentioned anywhere in the constitution, and our understanding of the basic structure comes from the various judgements of the court.
– The following have emerged as ‘basic features’ of the Constitution:
*Supremacy of the Constitution; Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian
polity; Secular character of the Constitution Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary; Federal character of the Constitution; Unity and integrity of the nation; Welfare state (socio-economic justice)*Judicial review; Freedom and dignity of the individual; Parliamentary system; Rule of law;
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles; Principle of
equality.* Free and fair elections; Independence of Judiciary; Limited power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution; Effective access to justice; Principle of reasonableness; Powers of the Supreme
Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Writ jurisdiction:
- Only Supreme Court has been empowered with Writ Jurisdiction.
- Parliament by law can extend power to issue Writ to any other courts
- The Writ system has been adopted from U.S. Presidential system.
- Writs are extra-constitutional rights given to the Judiciary by the Parliament.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect In India, both
Supreme Court and High Court have
been empowered with Writ JurisdictionThe Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights T he origin of
Writs can be drawn from the English
Judicial system.Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 are empowered by the Constitution to issue writs. Additional Info:
Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of Indian Constitution:
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights. The writs issued may include: Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include High Courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the High Courts.
The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights during National Emergency (Article 359).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect In India, both
Supreme Court and High Court have
been empowered with Writ JurisdictionThe Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights T he origin of
Writs can be drawn from the English
Judicial system.Supreme Court under Article 32 and High Court under Article 226 are empowered by the Constitution to issue writs. Additional Info:
Writ jurisdiction under Article 32 of Indian Constitution:
Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights of an aggrieved citizen.
Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as the most important article of the Constitution—‘an Article without which this constitution would be a nullity. It is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that Article 32 is a basic feature of the Constitution. The right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed by the Constitution.
The Supreme Court shall have power to issue directions or orders or writs for the enforcement of any of the Fundamental Rights. The writs issued may include: Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.
However, this can be done without prejudice to the above powers conferred on the Supreme Court. Any other court here does not include High Courts because Article 226 has already conferred these powers on the High Courts.
The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights during National Emergency (Article 359).
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties:
- These were added by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
- They help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law.
- They are confined only to Indian Citizens
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties. They were added by 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.They are not enforceable by law but they help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. Unlike some of
the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners,
the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Originally, the Constitution of India did not contain these duties. They were added by 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.They are not enforceable by law but they help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. Unlike some of
the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners,
the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to
foreigners. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
- The Bill derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committee headed by retired Justice B N Srikrishna.
- It is in conflict with Right to Privacy, which is an intrinsic part of right to life.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
- It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection.
- The Bill derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committee headed by retired Justice B N Srikrishna.
- It is in conflict with Right to Privacy, which is an intrinsic part of right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution
- Non-Personalised Data like Browsing Pattern can also be used by fiduciaries to detect the behavioural patterns of individuals.
- Non-personal data refers to anonymised data, such as traffic patterns or demographic data.
- The previous draft did not apply to this type of data, which many companies use to fund their business model.
- The 3 categories of Data created by the Bill are: Personal data, Sensitive personal data (SPD), Critical personal data.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding Personal Data Protection Bill:
- It is India’s first attempt to domestically legislate on the issue of data protection.
- The Bill derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committee headed by retired Justice B N Srikrishna.
- It is in conflict with Right to Privacy, which is an intrinsic part of right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution
- Non-Personalised Data like Browsing Pattern can also be used by fiduciaries to detect the behavioural patterns of individuals.
- Non-personal data refers to anonymised data, such as traffic patterns or demographic data.
- The previous draft did not apply to this type of data, which many companies use to fund their business model.
- The 3 categories of Data created by the Bill are: Personal data, Sensitive personal data (SPD), Critical personal data.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Right to Reservation is not a Fundamental Right.
- According to ruling of Supreme Court, reservation in promotion is a Fundamental Right.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Supreme Court in the “Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam v. Union of India and Ors” observed that the Right to Reservation is not a fundamental right.
However, the Supreme Court pointed that a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution can be filed only in case of violation of fundamental rights.
In the same case the Court had ruled that reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right. Additional Info:
Provisions in Article 15 and 16 of the Constitution empower the State to make special provisions in education and jobs respectively for the socially and educationally backward section of the society and for the economically weaker section.
Although these provisions are mentioned in Part III (fundamental rights) of the constitution, they are not binding on the state.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Supreme Court in the “Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam v. Union of India and Ors” observed that the Right to Reservation is not a fundamental right.
However, the Supreme Court pointed that a writ petition under Article 32 of the Constitution can be filed only in case of violation of fundamental rights.
In the same case the Court had ruled that reservation in promotion is not a fundamental right. Additional Info:
Provisions in Article 15 and 16 of the Constitution empower the State to make special provisions in education and jobs respectively for the socially and educationally backward section of the society and for the economically weaker section.
Although these provisions are mentioned in Part III (fundamental rights) of the constitution, they are not binding on the state.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following rights:
- Fundamental Rights have been conferred only to the citizens and enshrined in the Constitution of India.
- Constitutional Rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India and in some cases to non – citizens too.
- Legal rights are those rights which are accepted and enforced by the state.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Fundamental Rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India and in some cases to non- citizens too. Constitutional Rights: They have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the constitution of India. They are not under the domain of Part III of the constitution.
Legal rights are those rights which are accepted and enforced by the state. Any defilement of any legal right is punished by law.
Law courts of the state enforce legal rights. These rights can be enforced against individuals and also against the government.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Fundamental Rights are the basic and inalienable rights granted to each citizen of India and in some cases to non- citizens too. Constitutional Rights: They have been conferred to the citizens and enshrined in the constitution of India. They are not under the domain of Part III of the constitution.
Legal rights are those rights which are accepted and enforced by the state. Any defilement of any legal right is punished by law.
Law courts of the state enforce legal rights. These rights can be enforced against individuals and also against the government.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Shatrughan Chauhan Case is related to violation of which of the constitutional article?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
On 21st January 2014, the judgment in Shatrughan Chauhan & Anr v. Union of India was delivered by a three-judge bench.
The Supreme Court while commuting the death sentence of all 15 convicts into life imprisonment held that undue, inordinate and unreasonable delay in disposing off the mercy petition is in itself a sufficient ground to entitle the convict to pray for commutation.
The delay in rejecting the mercy plea by the President amounts to torture and is a clear violation of Article 21 of the convict rights.
The Supreme Court, at the same time, however, refused to fix up a certain number of years above which undue delay would amount as torture and laid out that the execution of sentence must only be done in consonance with the constitutional mandate.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
On 21st January 2014, the judgment in Shatrughan Chauhan & Anr v. Union of India was delivered by a three-judge bench.
The Supreme Court while commuting the death sentence of all 15 convicts into life imprisonment held that undue, inordinate and unreasonable delay in disposing off the mercy petition is in itself a sufficient ground to entitle the convict to pray for commutation.
The delay in rejecting the mercy plea by the President amounts to torture and is a clear violation of Article 21 of the convict rights.
The Supreme Court, at the same time, however, refused to fix up a certain number of years above which undue delay would amount as torture and laid out that the execution of sentence must only be done in consonance with the constitutional mandate.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Fundamental Rights and Directive Principle of State Policy:
- In the Champakam Dorairajan case, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the former would prevail.
- In Golaknath case the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles.
- In the Minerva Mills case, the Supreme Court held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Champakam Dorairajan case 1967, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the Fundamental rights would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to
conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental RightsIn Golaknath case 1967, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles Additional Info:
The present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. This does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented.
The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In the Champakam Dorairajan case 1967, the Supreme Court ruled that in case of any conflict between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles, the Fundamental rights would prevail. It declared that the Directive Principles have to
conform to and run as subsidiary to the Fundamental RightsIn Golaknath case 1967, the Court held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended for the implementation of the Directive Principles. In the Minerva Mills case (1980), the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles Additional Info:
The present position is that the Fundamental Rights enjoy supremacy over the Directive Principles. This does not mean that the Directive Principles cannot be implemented.
The Parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the Directive Principles, so long as the amendment does not damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Preventive Detention:
- The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive for reasons connected with the security of a state.
- The detention of a person cannot exceed six months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defense, foreign affairs and the security of India.
Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of Preventive Detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens.
The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with defense, foreign affairs and the security of India.
Both the Parliament as well as the state legislatures can concurrently make a law of Preventive Detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community.
Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens.
The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With regards to Right to Property, consider the following statements:
- The 42nd Amendment Act made right to property as a Constitutional Right.
- The Apex court ruled that Right to property is a part of basic structure of the constitution.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a constitutional right under article 300 A. In 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the right to property was not part of the basic structure of the Constitution and therefore, parliament had the power to abridge this right by an
amendment.Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In 1978, the 44th amendment to the Constitution removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and converted it into a constitutional right under article 300 A. In 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the right to property was not part of the basic structure of the Constitution and therefore, parliament had the power to abridge this right by an
amendment. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following falls within the purview of law as contained under Article 13 of the Constitution?
- Ordinances issued by the President.
- Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation
- Non-legislative sources of law
- Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
- Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures
- Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors
- Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, byelaw, rule, regulation or notification
- Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Article 13 declares that all laws that are inconsistent with or in derogation of any of the fundamental rights shall be void. In other words, it expressly provides for the doctrine of judicial review.
This power has been conferred on the Supreme Court (Article 32) and the high courts (Article 226) that can declare a law unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of contravention of any of the Fundamental Rights.
The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
- Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures
- Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors
- Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, byelaw, rule, regulation or notification
- Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following rights falls under the ambit of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution:
- Right to freedom from noise pollution
- Right of prisoner to have necessities of life
- Right against custodial harassment
- Right to free legal aid
- Right against public hanging
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part-III of Indian Constitution. This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike. It cannot be suspended during an emergency.
Some of the rights that are currently included in the ambit of Article 21 includes (mentioned in Menaka Case):
- Right to live with human dignity, Right to the decent environment including pollution-free water and air and protection
- Right to livelihood, Right to privacy, Right to shelter, Right to health, Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
- Right to free legal aid, Right against solitary confinement, Right to a speedy trial, Right against handcuffing, Right against inhuman treatment.
- Right against delayed execution, Right against bonded labor, Right against custodial harassment, Right to emergency medical aid, Right to timely medical treatment in a government hospital.
- Right to a fair trial, Right of prisoner to have necessities of life, Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity, Right against public hanging, Right to hearing.
- Right to information, Right to reputation, Right of appeal from a judgment of conviction, Right to social security and protection of the family, Right to social and economic justice and empowerment, Right to freedom from noise pollution.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Article 21 is a fundamental right and is included in Part-III of Indian Constitution. This right is available to all citizens as well as non-citizens alike. It cannot be suspended during an emergency.
Some of the rights that are currently included in the ambit of Article 21 includes (mentioned in Menaka Case):
- Right to live with human dignity, Right to the decent environment including pollution-free water and air and protection
- Right to livelihood, Right to privacy, Right to shelter, Right to health, Right to free education up to 14 years of age.
- Right to free legal aid, Right against solitary confinement, Right to a speedy trial, Right against handcuffing, Right against inhuman treatment.
- Right against delayed execution, Right against bonded labor, Right against custodial harassment, Right to emergency medical aid, Right to timely medical treatment in a government hospital.
- Right to a fair trial, Right of prisoner to have necessities of life, Right of women to be treated with decency and dignity, Right against public hanging, Right to hearing.
- Right to information, Right to reputation, Right of appeal from a judgment of conviction, Right to social security and protection of the family, Right to social and economic justice and empowerment, Right to freedom from noise pollution.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following is/ are part of the Right to Freedom under Fundamental Rights?
- Right to elementary education
- Right to practice any profession
- Right to free movement
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The various rights under the category Right to Freedom are contained under the Article 19-22 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 19: It is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic freedoms”. It provides that all citizens shall have the right – to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble peaceably and without arms; to form associations or unions; to move freely throughout the territory of India; to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. As of now, there are 8 restrictions on
the freedom of speech and expression which include – Security of the state; Friendly relations
with foreign states; Public Order; Decency or morality; Contempt of Court; Defamation;
Incitement to offence; Sovereignty and integrity of India.Article 20: It provides for protection in respect of conviction of offences. In other words, it lays down certain safeguards to the person accused of crimes as stated below – Ex post facto law; Double Jeopardy and Self-incrimination.
Article 21: It provides for the protection of Life And Personal Liberty i.e. no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
In the Maneka Gandhi case, 1978, the Supreme Court held that the right of free movement is a vital element of personal liberty.Article 21A: It provides for the right to elementary education. Thus, it is the responsibility of the State to provide for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
years.Article 22: It provides for the protection of people who have been arrested or detained in certain cases.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The various rights under the category Right to Freedom are contained under the Article 19-22 of the Indian Constitution:
Article 19: It is the most important and key article which embodies the “basic freedoms”. It provides that all citizens shall have the right – to freedom of speech and expression; to assemble peaceably and without arms; to form associations or unions; to move freely throughout the territory of India; to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Freedom of speech and expression is not absolute. As of now, there are 8 restrictions on
the freedom of speech and expression which include – Security of the state; Friendly relations
with foreign states; Public Order; Decency or morality; Contempt of Court; Defamation;
Incitement to offence; Sovereignty and integrity of India.Article 20: It provides for protection in respect of conviction of offences. In other words, it lays down certain safeguards to the person accused of crimes as stated below – Ex post facto law; Double Jeopardy and Self-incrimination.
Article 21: It provides for the protection of Life And Personal Liberty i.e. no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
In the Maneka Gandhi case, 1978, the Supreme Court held that the right of free movement is a vital element of personal liberty.Article 21A: It provides for the right to elementary education. Thus, it is the responsibility of the State to provide for free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen
years.Article 22: It provides for the protection of people who have been arrested or detained in certain cases.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following writs can be issued against both private individuals and public authorities?
- Prohibition
- Quo-Warranto
- Habeuas Corpus
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Habeas Corpus: It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of a detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
Prohibition: Prohibition Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Quo-Warranto: In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. This can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Habeas Corpus: It is a Latin term which literally means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The court then examines the cause and legality of a detention. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
Prohibition: Prohibition Literally, it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that directs activity, the prohibition directs inactivity. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
Quo-Warranto: In the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to inquire into the legality of a claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. This can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Right to Freedom of Religion under the Indian Constitution provides that:
- A fee or tax cannot be levied by the government on religious endowments and pilgrims.
- A person cannot be forced to attend religious instruction in a state recognized educational institution.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for
the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious
denomination.This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control secular administration of religious
institutions and not to promote or maintain religion.Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them some special service or safety measures.
Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no person attending any educational institution recognised by the
State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any
religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consentIncorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Article 27 lays down that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for
the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious
denomination.This provision prohibits only levy of a tax and not a fee. This is because the purpose of a fee is to control secular administration of religious
institutions and not to promote or maintain religion.Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to provide them some special service or safety measures.
Under Article 28, no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained out of State funds. Further, no person attending any educational institution recognised by the
State or receiving aid out of State funds shall be required to attend any
religious instruction or worship in that institution without his consent -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
With respect to Cultural and Educational rights, consider the following statements:
- The term ‘Minority’ has been defined under the constitution.
- The minorities have been classified as Religious, Linguistic and Ethnic minorities.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens. Therefore, there is no specific classification of minorities, Article 30 talks about only religious and linguistic minorities.
Additional Info:
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic:
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31).
In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens. Therefore, there is no specific classification of minorities, Article 30 talks about only religious and linguistic minorities.
Additional Info:
Article 30 grants the following rights to minorities, whether religious or linguistic:
All minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
The compensation amount fixed by the State for the compulsory acquisition of any property of a minority educational institution shall not restrict or abrogate the right guaranteed to them. This provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 to protect the right of minorities in this regard. The Act deleted the right to property as a Fundamental Right (Article 31).
In granting aid, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution managed by a minority.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements
- ‘Union’ and ‘Centre’ both find place in the original constitution and can be used interchangeably
- The term ‘Union’ was first officially found in the Cabinet Mission Plan
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Indian Constitution constantly uses the word “Union” to describe the entire country as well as the government that administers it. For example, Article 53 reads, “the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President”. Central government is a term not used in the original Constitution as passed by the Constituent Assembly. The modern term “Union” was first officially used in 1946 by the Cabinet Mission Plan, a British scheme to keep India united after transfer of power. Context- The new Government formed in Tamil Nadu has carried the term ‘Union Government’ in place of ‘Central Government’ used earlier.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Indian Constitution constantly uses the word “Union” to describe the entire country as well as the government that administers it. For example, Article 53 reads, “the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President”. Central government is a term not used in the original Constitution as passed by the Constituent Assembly. The modern term “Union” was first officially used in 1946 by the Cabinet Mission Plan, a British scheme to keep India united after transfer of power. Context- The new Government formed in Tamil Nadu has carried the term ‘Union Government’ in place of ‘Central Government’ used earlier.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of
Correct
Solution (a)
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of Article 21. In 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right (under Article 21) by the Supreme Court in its landmark verdict (Puttuswamy case).
Context- A celebrity has approached Delhi High Court seeking removal of his videos, photographs and articles from the internet citing ‘Right to be forgotten’
Incorrect
Solution (a)
‘Right to be forgotten’ is an intrinsic part of Article 21. In 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right (under Article 21) by the Supreme Court in its landmark verdict (Puttuswamy case).
Context- A celebrity has approached Delhi High Court seeking removal of his videos, photographs and articles from the internet citing ‘Right to be forgotten’
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Khadi and Village Industries Commission’
- KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1966.
- It functions under the Ministry of Textiles
- Project BOLD was launched by KVIC to promote bamboo based green zones in arid and semi-arid regions
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Project BOLD was launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) & BSF in Jaisalmer to Prevent Desertification and Support Rural Economy. The objective of this project is to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid land zones, To reduce desertification and provide livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support. Context: Recently Project BOLD was launched by KVIC & BSF.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct KVIC is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act, 1956. KVIC is charged with the planning, promotion, organisation and implementation of programmes for the development of Khadi and other village industries in the rural areas in coordination with other agencies engaged in rural development wherever necessary It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. Project BOLD was launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) & BSF in Jaisalmer to Prevent Desertification and Support Rural Economy. The objective of this project is to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid land zones, To reduce desertification and provide livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support. Context: Recently Project BOLD was launched by KVIC & BSF.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Black Carbon’
- It is a short-lived pollutant that is the third-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide and Nitrous Oxide
- Primary sources of Black Carbon include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). Primary sources of Black Carbon include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. Context- A research was conducted on black carbon and its impacts on health
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct It is a short-lived pollutant that is the second-largest contributor to warming the planet behind carbon dioxide (CO2). Primary sources of Black Carbon include emissions from diesel engines, cook stoves, wood burning and forest fires. Context- A research was conducted on black carbon and its impacts on health
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
With reference to ‘Retail Direct Scheme’, consider the following statements
- Retail investors will be allowed to open retail direct gilt accounts (RDG) directly with RBI.
- All Government securities including State Development Loans are available to the users
- A dedicated online portal will provide registered users access to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM).
Choose the correct statements
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Retail investors will be allowed to open retail direct gilt accounts (RDG) directly with RBI under Retail Direct Scheme A dedicated online portal will provide registered users access to primary issuance of government securities and to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM) Investments available to the user under this scheme are- 1. Government of India Treasury Bills.
2. Government of India dated securities.
3. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB).
4. State Development Loans (SDLs)
Context- RBI Retail Direct Scheme was launched
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Retail investors will be allowed to open retail direct gilt accounts (RDG) directly with RBI under Retail Direct Scheme A dedicated online portal will provide registered users access to primary issuance of government securities and to Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching system (NDS-OM) Investments available to the user under this scheme are- 1. Government of India Treasury Bills.
2. Government of India dated securities.
3. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB).
4. State Development Loans (SDLs)
Context- RBI Retail Direct Scheme was launched
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
4500 × ? =3375
Correct
Solution(b)
4500 × X = 3375
X=3375/4500.
Divide both terms by 25, X=135/180.
Dividing by 5, =27/36=3/4.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
4500 × X = 3375
X=3375/4500.
Divide both terms by 25, X=135/180.
Dividing by 5, =27/36=3/4.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
4988÷4÷2
Correct
Solution(a)
4988÷4÷2 can also be written as 4988 × (1/4) × (1/2) as multiplication is the opposite of division
By dividing 4988 by 2 we get 2494 -> 2494 × (1/4)
By dividing 2494 by 4 we get 623.5
Incorrect
Solution(a)
4988÷4÷2 can also be written as 4988 × (1/4) × (1/2) as multiplication is the opposite of division
By dividing 4988 by 2 we get 2494 -> 2494 × (1/4)
By dividing 2494 by 4 we get 623.5
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
267 × 999 =?
Correct
Solution(b)
Multiply 267 * 1000 = 267000
Subtract 267 once to obtain 267 * 999 = 267000-267 = 266733
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Multiply 267 * 1000 = 267000
Subtract 267 once to obtain 267 * 999 = 267000-267 = 266733
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
How many of the following numbers are divisible by 42? 84, 168, 357, 494, 630, 1192, 1764
Correct
Solution(d)
42 = 3 * 14 = 3 * 7 * 2. Therefore, 3 , 7 and 2 are factors of 42, Hence, if a number is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 then the number will be divisible by their product 42 also.
If a number is not divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , then it is not divisible by 42
- 84 is divisible by 2 ,3 and 7 , 84 is divisible by 42
- 168 is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , 168 is divisible by 42
- 357 is divisible by 3 and 7 but not divisible by 2
- 494 is divisible by 2 but not by 3 and 7
- 630 is divisible by 2 , 3 and 7, 630 is divisible by 42
- 1192 is divisible by 2 but not by 3 and 7
- 1764 is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , 1764 is divisible by 42
Incorrect
Solution(d)
42 = 3 * 14 = 3 * 7 * 2. Therefore, 3 , 7 and 2 are factors of 42, Hence, if a number is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 then the number will be divisible by their product 42 also.
If a number is not divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , then it is not divisible by 42
- 84 is divisible by 2 ,3 and 7 , 84 is divisible by 42
- 168 is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , 168 is divisible by 42
- 357 is divisible by 3 and 7 but not divisible by 2
- 494 is divisible by 2 but not by 3 and 7
- 630 is divisible by 2 , 3 and 7, 630 is divisible by 42
- 1192 is divisible by 2 but not by 3 and 7
- 1764 is divisible by 2, 3 and 7 , 1764 is divisible by 42
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
“An enemy combatant may be subjected to torture in order to extract useful intelligence, though those inflicting the torture may have no real feelings of anger or animosity toward their subject.” Which one of the following best explicates the larger point being made by the author here?
Correct
Solution (a)
As the line indicates, torturing an enemy combatant for intelligence may be just a means to an end.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
As the line indicates, torturing an enemy combatant for intelligence may be just a means to an end.
All the Best
IASbaba