IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 17 – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements:
- DNA and RNA are nucleic acids found in living organisms.
- RNA acts as a genetic material in some viruses.
- DNA has the ability to mutate faster than RNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect DNA and RNA are nucleic acids found in living organisms. RNA acts as a genetic material in some viruses. Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. RNA is unstable and mutate at a faster rate than DNA. Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect DNA and RNA are nucleic acids found in living organisms. RNA acts as a genetic material in some viruses. Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. RNA is unstable and mutate at a faster rate than DNA. Consequently, viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency:
- It was established independently of the United Nations.
- It reports annually to the UN General Assembly.
- It’s Secretariat is headquartered in Bern, Switzerland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It was established independently of the United Nations. It reports annually to the UN General Assembly. The IAEA Secretariat is headquartered at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect It was established independently of the United Nations. It reports annually to the UN General Assembly. The IAEA Secretariat is headquartered at the Vienna International Centre in Vienna, Austria. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to the Human Genome Project:
- It was aimed at identifying all the genes in human DNA.
- It can help in diagnosis, treatment and prevention of genetic disorders in human beings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It was aimed at identifying all the genes (approximately 20,000-25,000 genes) in human DNA. It can help in diagnosis, treatment and prevention of genetic disorders in human beings. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It was aimed at identifying all the genes (approximately 20,000-25,000 genes) in human DNA. It can help in diagnosis, treatment and prevention of genetic disorders in human beings. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Nuclear Weapon Free Zones Treaties Associated Regions
- Treaty of Rarotonga African region
- Treaty of Pelindaba South Pacific Region
- Treaty of Bangkok Southeast Asian Region
Which of the following pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
- Treaty of Rarotonga
- Treaty of Pelindaba
- Treaty of Bangkok
Incorrect Incorrect Correct South Pacific Region African region Southeast Asian Region Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
- Treaty of Rarotonga
- Treaty of Pelindaba
- Treaty of Bangkok
Incorrect Incorrect Correct South Pacific Region African region Southeast Asian Region -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
With reference to Nuclear reactions, consider the following statements:
- Fission is the division of atom into two or more smaller nuclei, and fusion is the combination of lighter atoms into a larger one.
- Nuclear fusion is used in nuclear power reactors since it can be controlled easily, while fission reaction is not utilized to produce power since the reaction is not easily controlled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Fission is the division of atom into two or more smaller nuclei, and fusion is the combination of lighter atoms into a larger one. Nuclear fission is used in nuclear power reactors since it can be controlled, while fusion reaction is not utilized to produce power since the reaction is not easily controlled. ITER experiment is exploring the possibility of using nuclear fusion for producing energy. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Fission is the division of atom into two or more smaller nuclei, and fusion is the combination of lighter atoms into a larger one. Nuclear fission is used in nuclear power reactors since it can be controlled, while fusion reaction is not utilized to produce power since the reaction is not easily controlled. ITER experiment is exploring the possibility of using nuclear fusion for producing energy. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
With reference to biofuels, consider the following statements:
- Biofuel is a hydrocarbon fuel that is produced from organic matter.
- Fourth Generation Biofuels are aimed at not only producing sustainable energy but also capturing and storing CO2.
- Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana aims at providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Biofuel is a hydrocarbon fuel that is produced from organic matter. Fourth Generation Biofuels are aimed at not only producing sustainable energy but also capturing and storing CO2. Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana aims at providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Biofuel is a hydrocarbon fuel that is produced from organic matter. Fourth Generation Biofuels are aimed at not only producing sustainable energy but also capturing and storing CO2. Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana aims at providing financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Genes are inherited in the offspring from the parents and determine the physical characteristics in living organisms.
- Human offspring receive 23 chromosomes from their mother and 46 from their father.
- DNA is a double stranded deoxyribonucleic acid molecule which makes up the genes.
- RNA is involved in the synthesis of proteins in organisms.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Genes are inherited in the offspring from the parents and determine the physical characteristics in living organisms. Offspring receive 23 chromosomes each from their mother and their father. Sex chromosomes received from the father determine the sex of the offspring. DNA is a double stranded deoxyribonucleic acid molecule which makes up the genes. RNA is involved in the synthesis of proteins in organisms. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Genes are inherited in the offspring from the parents and determine the physical characteristics in living organisms. Offspring receive 23 chromosomes each from their mother and their father. Sex chromosomes received from the father determine the sex of the offspring. DNA is a double stranded deoxyribonucleic acid molecule which makes up the genes. RNA is involved in the synthesis of proteins in organisms. -
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the stem cells:
- They have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into more specialized cells.
- Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo after the final stage of development.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Stem cells are cells that have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into more mature, specialised cells. Embryonic stem cells are stem cells that are derived from the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo at a very early stage of development. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Stem cells are cells that have the capacity to self-renew by dividing and to develop into more mature, specialised cells. Embryonic stem cells are stem cells that are derived from the inner cell mass of a mammalian embryo at a very early stage of development. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Recently, a team of Greek and Spanish doctors has produced a baby from three people. In the context of triple parent baby, consider the following statements:
- It is done to replace father’s faulty Mitochondrial DNA with healthy Mitochondria from a donor
- Spain became the first country in 2015, to have officially approved procedures to create ‘three-parent’ babies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is used to replace mother’s faulty Mitochondrial DNA with healthy Mitochondria from a donor woman. The United Kingdom became the first country in 2015, to have officially approved procedures to create ‘three-parent’ babies. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is used to replace mother’s faulty Mitochondrial DNA with healthy Mitochondria from a donor woman. The United Kingdom became the first country in 2015, to have officially approved procedures to create ‘three-parent’ babies. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Atomic Energy Regulatory Board is responsible for design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors.
- Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is a PSE implementing the Fast Breeder Reactors Programme in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is responsible for design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors. BHAVINI is PSU of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) which implements Fast Breeder Reactors programme in the country. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) is responsible for design, construction, commissioning and operation of nuclear power reactors. BHAVINI is PSU of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) which implements Fast Breeder Reactors programme in the country. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
With reference to Thorium Reactors, consider the following statements:
- Unlike uranium, thorium alone cannot be used as a nuclear fuel in a reactor.
- Thorium reactors offer the advantage of increased plutonium production.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Unlike uranium, thorium alone cannot be used as a nuclear fuel in a reactor because natural thorium contains only trace amounts of fissile material (such as thorium 231), which are insufficient to initiate and sustain nuclear chain reaction. Therefore, additional fissile material is necessary to initiate the fuel cycle. Thorium reactors offer the advantage of reduced plutonium production. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Unlike uranium, thorium alone cannot be used as a nuclear fuel in a reactor because natural thorium contains only trace amounts of fissile material (such as thorium 231), which are insufficient to initiate and sustain nuclear chain reaction. Therefore, additional fissile material is necessary to initiate the fuel cycle. Thorium reactors offer the advantage of reduced plutonium production. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Nuclear Fusion involves fusion of two or more nuclei to form a new nucleus. In this context, consider the following statements:
- In general, lighter elements are more fusible while heavier elements are more fissionable.
- Unlike nuclear fission reactions, all nuclear fusion reactions are not exothermic.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct In general, lighter elements are more fusible while heavier elements are more fissionable. Unlike nuclear fission reactions, all nuclear fusion reactions are not exothermic. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct In general, lighter elements are more fusible while heavier elements are more fissionable. Unlike nuclear fission reactions, all nuclear fusion reactions are not exothermic. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following statements regarding Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) is/are correct?
- PHWRs use deuterium oxide as moderator but ordinary water as coolant.
- PHWRs generally make use of natural uranium.
- They can be used for plutonium production.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct PHWRs are a subset of Pressurized Water Reactors but instead of using ordinary water, they use heavy water as moderator and coolant. Heavy Water is a very efficient moderator and thus PHWRs generally use natural uranium i.e not enriched. PHRWs are used for electricity generation and plutonium production. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct PHWRs are a subset of Pressurized Water Reactors but instead of using ordinary water, they use heavy water as moderator and coolant. Heavy Water is a very efficient moderator and thus PHWRs generally use natural uranium i.e not enriched. PHRWs are used for electricity generation and plutonium production. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With reference to nuclear fission, consider the following statements:
- It is an exothermic reaction releasing huge amount of energy as gamma rays.
- Spontaneous fission is a type of radioactive decay.
- The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled fission.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Fission of heavy elements is an exothermic reaction and can release substantial amounts of useful energy both as gamma rays and as kinetic energy of the fragments. In nuclear physics, nuclear fission is either a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process. The case of decay process is called spontaneous fission and it is very rare process that is found only in very heavy chemical elements. The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled nuclear fission. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Fission of heavy elements is an exothermic reaction and can release substantial amounts of useful energy both as gamma rays and as kinetic energy of the fragments. In nuclear physics, nuclear fission is either a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process. The case of decay process is called spontaneous fission and it is very rare process that is found only in very heavy chemical elements. The enormous energy released in an atom bomb comes from uncontrolled nuclear fission. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER):
- ITER is a large-scale scientific experiment intended to prove the viability of nuclear fission as an energy source.
- India is one of the signatories to the ITER Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct ITER (the Latin word for ‘The Way’) is a large-scale scientific experiment intended to prove the viability of fusion as an energy source. As signatories to the ITER Agreement, the ITER Members China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States will share in the cost of project construction, operation and decommissioning. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct ITER (the Latin word for ‘The Way’) is a large-scale scientific experiment intended to prove the viability of fusion as an energy source. As signatories to the ITER Agreement, the ITER Members China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States will share in the cost of project construction, operation and decommissioning. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Artificial insemination and In Vitro Fertilization:
- In Vitro Fertilization technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation.
- Artificial insemination technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In Vitro Fertilization- This technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory and later introducing the obtained embryos inside the uterus.
Artificial insemination- This technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect In Vitro Fertilization- This technique consists of retrieving a woman’s eggs to be fertilised in the laboratory and later introducing the obtained embryos inside the uterus.
Artificial insemination- This technique introduces previously selected semen into the woman’s uterus that has been prepared by stimulating ovulation.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding GM crops:
- Bt Brinjal resistant to brinjal shoot fly developed by M/S Mahyco in collaboration with University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad.
- GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) was developed by CSIR.
- Samba Mahsuri Rice Variety was developed by Delhi University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Bt Brinjal resistant to brinjal shoot fly developed by M/S Mahyco in collaboration with University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad. GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) was developed by Delhi University. CSIR has in collaboration with DRR (ICAR) and DBT part funding developed an improved bacterial blight resistant Samba Mahsuri Rice variety. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Bt Brinjal resistant to brinjal shoot fly developed by M/S Mahyco in collaboration with University of Agricultural Sciences, Dharwad. GM mustard Dhara Mustard Hybrid 11 (DMH 11) was developed by Delhi University. CSIR has in collaboration with DRR (ICAR) and DBT part funding developed an improved bacterial blight resistant Samba Mahsuri Rice variety. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC):
- It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle.
- It functions under the administrative control of Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
- GEAC is chaired by the secretary, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). GEAC is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding CRISPR-Cas9:
- Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information is used in some bacterial species as part of an antiviral system.
- Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and specifies the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information is used in some bacterial species as part of an antiviral system. Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and specifies the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats of genetic information is used in some bacterial species as part of an antiviral system. Guide RNA (gRNA) binds to Cas9 and specifies the location at which Cas9 will cut DNA. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
With reference to the India’s 3 stage Nuclear program, consider the following statements:
- In the first stage, heavy water is deployed as both coolant and moderator.
- Moderators are not used in the second stage.
- In third stage, Thorium-232 is converted to Uranium-233, the fissile isotope of Uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In Stage 1, known as Pressurised Heavy water Reactor, Natural Uranium is used as a fuel and heavy water as a coolant and moderator. Moderators are not used in the second stage, known as Fast Breeder Reactor. In third stage, also known as Thorium based reactor, Thorium-232 is converted to Uranium-233, the fissile isotope of Uranium. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In Stage 1, known as Pressurised Heavy water Reactor, Natural Uranium is used as a fuel and heavy water as a coolant and moderator. Moderators are not used in the second stage, known as Fast Breeder Reactor. In third stage, also known as Thorium based reactor, Thorium-232 is converted to Uranium-233, the fissile isotope of Uranium. -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Banni buffalo seen in news is found in
Correct
Solution (d)
Banni buffaloes are distributed in the Kachchh region of Gujarat. Banni, which was evolved by the Maldhari community in this region, has good adaptability to harsh climatic conditions, drought resistance and survival on scanty fodder and shrubs.
Context – India’s First Banni Buffalo in vitro fertilization (IVF) Calf was born in Gujarat
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Banni buffaloes are distributed in the Kachchh region of Gujarat. Banni, which was evolved by the Maldhari community in this region, has good adaptability to harsh climatic conditions, drought resistance and survival on scanty fodder and shrubs.
Context – India’s First Banni Buffalo in vitro fertilization (IVF) Calf was born in Gujarat
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Lucy Mission’
- The mission aims to study the Martian atmosphere and also conduct tests on the soil to find traces of water
- It is joint collaboration of NASA and European Space agency(ESA)
Choose the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect NASA will launch its first spacecraft Lucy on an Atlas V rocket to study Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids to collect insights into the solar system’s formation. Trojan asteroids or Jupiter Trojans are group of asteroids (more than 7,000 in number) that share the planet Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun. They are leftovers of the primordial material from which Jupiter and the other outer planets were formed Lucy mission is solely the probe of NASA. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect NASA will launch its first spacecraft Lucy on an Atlas V rocket to study Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids to collect insights into the solar system’s formation. Trojan asteroids or Jupiter Trojans are group of asteroids (more than 7,000 in number) that share the planet Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun. They are leftovers of the primordial material from which Jupiter and the other outer planets were formed Lucy mission is solely the probe of NASA. -
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
With reference to Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
(AMRUT 2.0), consider the following statements
- AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply and sewerage to all households
- Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water
- The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme
Choose the correct statements using the code given below
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply to all households in around 4,700 ULBs (Urban Local Bodies). It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and septage in 500 AMRUT cities. Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater and mapping of water bodies. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme. Context- The second phase of AMRUT was launched.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct AMRUT 2.0 aims to provide 100% coverage of water supply to all households in around 4,700 ULBs (Urban Local Bodies). It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and septage in 500 AMRUT cities. Pey Jal Survekshan will be conducted in cities to ascertain equitable distribution of water, reuse of wastewater and mapping of water bodies. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) is the nodal ministry for the scheme. Context- The second phase of AMRUT was launched.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Agni-5 Missile’
- It is an inter-continental ballistic missile which has an operational range of 5000 kilometres
- The missile can be launched from land, air and sea
- The engine consists of four stages powered by solid fuel
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Agni-V is an Indian nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation [DRDO]. The missile is believed to have a range of around 5,500 to 9,000 km. It is a three-stage, road-mobile and solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile which is transported by a truck and launched via a canister. It is not capable of being launched by air and sea. The Agni-V is a three-stage solid fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile with composite motor casing in the second and third stage. Context – Agni-5 Missile was launched from the APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha successfully
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Agni-V is an Indian nuclear capable intercontinental ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation [DRDO]. The missile is believed to have a range of around 5,500 to 9,000 km. It is a three-stage, road-mobile and solid-fueled intercontinental ballistic missile which is transported by a truck and launched via a canister. It is not capable of being launched by air and sea. The Agni-V is a three-stage solid fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile with composite motor casing in the second and third stage. Context – Agni-5 Missile was launched from the APJ Abdul Kalam Island, Odisha successfully
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements:
- It is a type of hand-painted or blockprinted cotton textile produced in parts of India for hanging on walls
- The art is mostly based on Hindu epics and was patronised by the Mughals particularly in Golconda.
With reference to Kalamkari Paintings, which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is a type of hand-painted or blockprinted cotton textile produced in parts of India for hanging on walls. Kalamkari literally means, Kalam – pen & kari – work, i.e., art work done using a pen The Mughals who patronized this craft in the Coromandel and Golconda province called the practitioners of this craft “Qualamkars”, from which the term “Kalamkari” evolved. The Pedana Kalamkari craft made in Pedana nearby Machilipatnam in Krishna district, Andhra Pradesh, evolved under the patronage of the Mughals and the Golconda sultanate. Owing to the said patronage, this school was influenced by Persian art under Islamic rule Context – Karuppur kalamkari paintings from Tamil Nadu recently received the geographical indication (GI) tag.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct It is a type of hand-painted or blockprinted cotton textile produced in parts of India for hanging on walls. Kalamkari literally means, Kalam – pen & kari – work, i.e., art work done using a pen The Mughals who patronized this craft in the Coromandel and Golconda province called the practitioners of this craft “Qualamkars”, from which the term “Kalamkari” evolved. The Pedana Kalamkari craft made in Pedana nearby Machilipatnam in Krishna district, Andhra Pradesh, evolved under the patronage of the Mughals and the Golconda sultanate. Owing to the said patronage, this school was influenced by Persian art under Islamic rule Context – Karuppur kalamkari paintings from Tamil Nadu recently received the geographical indication (GI) tag.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Count the number of squares in the given figure below
Correct
Solution (d)
The simplest squares are EFRQ, MQYX, QRZY, RNSZ, LXWK, XYA1W, YZB1A1 , ZSTB1 ,SGHT, WA1 VP, A1B1UV, B1TOU and VUIJ i.e. 13 in number. The squares having two components each are AEYL, FBGZ, KA1JD and B1HCI i.e. 4 in number. The squares having four components each are MRB1 W, QNTA1 , XZUP and YSOV i.e. 4 in number. The squares having seven components each are AFB1K, EBHA1 , LZID and YGCJ i.e. 4 in number. There is only one square i.e. MNOP composed of nine components. There is only one square i.e. ABCD composed of seventeen components. There are 13+4+4+4+1+1=27 squares in the figure.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The simplest squares are EFRQ, MQYX, QRZY, RNSZ, LXWK, XYA1W, YZB1A1 , ZSTB1 ,SGHT, WA1 VP, A1B1UV, B1TOU and VUIJ i.e. 13 in number. The squares having two components each are AEYL, FBGZ, KA1JD and B1HCI i.e. 4 in number. The squares having four components each are MRB1 W, QNTA1 , XZUP and YSOV i.e. 4 in number. The squares having seven components each are AFB1K, EBHA1 , LZID and YGCJ i.e. 4 in number. There is only one square i.e. MNOP composed of nine components. There is only one square i.e. ABCD composed of seventeen components. There are 13+4+4+4+1+1=27 squares in the figure.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Count the number of triangles and squares given in the figure below
Correct
Solution (b)
The simplest triangles are JBO, BKO, KDO, DFO, FGO, GHO, HIO, IJO, ABJ, BCK, CKD and DEF i.e.12 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are IBO, BDO, DGO, GIO, ABO, CDO, CBO, CBD and DEO i.e. 9 in number. The triangles composed of four components each are IBD, BDG, DGI, GIB, ACO and COE i.e. 6 in number. There is only one. triangle i.e. ACE composed of eight components. Thus, there are 12+9+6+1=28 triangles in the given figure.
Squares: The squares composed of two components each are BKOJ, KDFO, OFGH and JOHI i.e. 4 in number. There is only one square i.e. CDOB composed of four components. There is only one square i.e. BDGI composed of eight components. Thus, there are 4+1+1=6 squares in the given figure.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The simplest triangles are JBO, BKO, KDO, DFO, FGO, GHO, HIO, IJO, ABJ, BCK, CKD and DEF i.e.12 in number. The triangles composed of two components each are IBO, BDO, DGO, GIO, ABO, CDO, CBO, CBD and DEO i.e. 9 in number. The triangles composed of four components each are IBD, BDG, DGI, GIB, ACO and COE i.e. 6 in number. There is only one. triangle i.e. ACE composed of eight components. Thus, there are 12+9+6+1=28 triangles in the given figure.
Squares: The squares composed of two components each are BKOJ, KDFO, OFGH and JOHI i.e. 4 in number. There is only one square i.e. CDOB composed of four components. There is only one square i.e. BDGI composed of eight components. Thus, there are 4+1+1=6 squares in the given figure.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
How many triangles are there in this figure?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Number of large triangle = 1
- Number of small triangles = 7
- Number of medium sized triangles covering two rows = 3
- Therefore, total number of triangles = 1 + 7 + 3 = 11
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Number of large triangle = 1
- Number of small triangles = 7
- Number of medium sized triangles covering two rows = 3
- Therefore, total number of triangles = 1 + 7 + 3 = 11
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
How many triangles are there in the given figure below
Correct
Solution (c)
Number of smaller triangles = 6
Number of triangles formed by combination of 3 triangles = 2
Number of larger triangles (at the diagonals) = 4
Hence, total triangles = 6 + 2 + 4 = 12
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Number of smaller triangles = 6
Number of triangles formed by combination of 3 triangles = 2
Number of larger triangles (at the diagonals) = 4
Hence, total triangles = 6 + 2 + 4 = 12
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
174 incidents of piracy were reported to the International Maritime Bureau last year, with Somali pirates responsible for only three. The rest ranged from the discreet theft of coils of rope in the Yellow Sea to the notoriously ferocious Nigerian gunmen attacking and hijacking oil tankers in the Gulf of Guinea, as well as armed robbery off Singapore and the Venezuelan coast and kidnapping in the Sundarbans in the Bay of Bengal. For Dr. Peter Lehr, an expert on modern-day piracy, the phenomenon’s history should be a source of instruction rather than entertainment, piracy past offering lessons for piracy present.
But where does piracy begin or end? According to St Augustine, a corsair captain once told Alexander the Great that in the forceful acquisition of power and wealth at sea, the difference between an emperor and a pirate was simply one of scale. By this logic, European empire-builders were the most successful pirates of all time. A more eclectic history might have included the conquistadors, Vasco da Gama and the East India Company. But Lehr sticks to the disorganised small fry, making comparisons with the renegades of today possible.
The main motive for piracy has always been a combination of need and greed. Why toil away as a starving peasant in the 16th century when a successful pirate made up to £4,000 on each raid? Anyone could turn to freebooting if the rewards were worth the risk. Increased globalisation has done more to encourage piracy than suppress it. European colonialism weakened delicate balances of power, leading to an influx of opportunists on the high seas. A rise in global shipping has meant rich pickings for freebooters. Lehr writes: “It quickly becomes clear that in those parts of the world that have not profited from globalisation and modernisation, and where abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival are still a reality, the root causes of piracy are still the same as they were a couple of hundred years ago.”
Modern pirate prevention has failed. After the French yacht Le Gonant was ransomed for $2 million in 2008, opportunists from all over Somalia flocked to the coast for a piece of the action. A consistent rule, even today, is there are never enough warships to patrol pirate-infested waters. Such ships are costly and only solve the problem temporarily; Somali piracy is bound to return as soon as the warships are withdrawn. Robot shipping, eliminating hostages, has been proposed as a possible solution; but as Lehr points out, this will only make pirates switch their targets to smaller carriers unable to afford the technology.
His advice isn’t new. Proposals to end illegal fishing are often advanced but they are difficult to enforce. Investment in local welfare put a halt to Malaysian piracy in the 1970s, but was dependent on money somehow filtering through a corrupt bureaucracy to the poor on the periphery. Diplomatic initiatives against piracy are plagued by mutual distrust: the Russians execute pirates, while the EU and US are reluctant to capture them for fear they’ll claim asylum.
Q.30) We can deduce that the author believes that piracy can best be controlled in the long run
Correct
Solution (b)
According to the passage, the “root causes” of piracy are abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival (paragraph 4). The author also explains in the last two paragraphs that international cooperation in enforcing strict deterrents, investments in local welfare and using technology solutions like robot shipping have failed.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
According to the passage, the “root causes” of piracy are abject poverty and the daily struggle for survival (paragraph 4). The author also explains in the last two paragraphs that international cooperation in enforcing strict deterrents, investments in local welfare and using technology solutions like robot shipping have failed.
All the Best
IASbaba
