IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 33– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following measures is/are examples of expansionary fiscal policy?
- Decreasing taxes
- Increasing the subsidies
- Providing loans at higher interest rates
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Expansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Expansionary fiscal policy is a form of fiscal policy that involves decreasing taxes, increasing government expenditures or both, in order to fight recessionary pressures.
Increasing the subsidies decreases the out of pocket expenditure. Thus, increases the spending capacity.
Providing loans at higher interest rate decreases the demand for the loans. Thus, it decreases the liquidity in the market and leads to decreases the spending capacity.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Primary deficit and Fiscal deficit:
- Primary deficit indicates the amount of borrowing which the government needs excluding the interest component.
- Fiscal deficit can be calculated by finding the difference between the total income and total expenditure of the government.
- A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Primary deficit indicates the amount of borrowing which the government needs excluding the interest component. Fiscal deficit, on the other hand, is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and total income.
Primary deficit can be calculated by deducting interest payments for the borrowings from the current year’s fiscal deficit. Fiscal deficit can be calculated by finding the difference between the total income and total expenditure of the government.
A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Primary deficit indicates the amount of borrowing which the government needs excluding the interest component. Fiscal deficit, on the other hand, is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and total income.
Primary deficit can be calculated by deducting interest payments for the borrowings from the current year’s fiscal deficit. Fiscal deficit can be calculated by finding the difference between the total income and total expenditure of the government.
A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
What could be the effect of deficit financing on economy?
- Inflation
- Increase in money supply
- Increased private investments
- Rise in employment rates
- Rise in aggregate demand
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The term ‘deficit financing’ is used to denote the direct addition to gross national expenditure through budget deficits, whether the deficits are on revenue or on capital account.
Deficit financing in India is said to occur when the Union Government’s current budget deficit is covered by the withdrawal of cash balances of the government and by borrowing money from the Reserve Bank of India.
Thus, in both cases, ‘new money’ comes into circulation. It is to be remembered here that
government borrowing from the public by selling bonds is not to be considered as deficit financing.It is said that deficit financing is inherently inflationary. Since deficit financing raises aggregate
expenditure and, hence, increases aggregate demand, the danger of inflation looms large.During inflation, private investors go on investing more and more with the hope of earning
additional profits. Seeing more profits, producers would be encouraged to reinvest their
savings and accumulated profits as well as increases the employment rate. Such investment
leads to an increase in income thereby setting the process of economic development rolling.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The term ‘deficit financing’ is used to denote the direct addition to gross national expenditure through budget deficits, whether the deficits are on revenue or on capital account.
Deficit financing in India is said to occur when the Union Government’s current budget deficit is covered by the withdrawal of cash balances of the government and by borrowing money from the Reserve Bank of India.
Thus, in both cases, ‘new money’ comes into circulation. It is to be remembered here that
government borrowing from the public by selling bonds is not to be considered as deficit financing.It is said that deficit financing is inherently inflationary. Since deficit financing raises aggregate
expenditure and, hence, increases aggregate demand, the danger of inflation looms large.During inflation, private investors go on investing more and more with the hope of earning
additional profits. Seeing more profits, producers would be encouraged to reinvest their
savings and accumulated profits as well as increases the employment rate. Such investment
leads to an increase in income thereby setting the process of economic development rolling. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Revenue Deficit:
- It is the gap between the consumption expenditure of the Government and its current revenue.
- The Effective Revenue Deficit does not include revenue expenditures made in the form of grants for capital asset creation.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Revenue deficit is the gap between the consumption expenditure (revenue expenditure) of the Government (Union or the State Governments) and its current revenues (revenue receipts). It also indicates the extent to which the government has borrowed to finance the current expenditure.
The Effective Revenue Deficit does not include revenue expenditures made in the form of grants for capital asset creation.
A new strategy to capture the ‘effective revenue deficit’ was introduced in Budget 2011-12 which excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for the creation of capital assets. Effective Revenue Deficit was established as a fiscal metric in 2012-13.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants in aid for capital assets
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Revenue deficit is the gap between the consumption expenditure (revenue expenditure) of the Government (Union or the State Governments) and its current revenues (revenue receipts). It also indicates the extent to which the government has borrowed to finance the current expenditure.
The Effective Revenue Deficit does not include revenue expenditures made in the form of grants for capital asset creation.
A new strategy to capture the ‘effective revenue deficit’ was introduced in Budget 2011-12 which excludes those revenue expenditures (or transfers) in the form of grants for the creation of capital assets. Effective Revenue Deficit was established as a fiscal metric in 2012-13.
Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit – Grants in aid for capital assets
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following can be considered as examples of Capital Budgeting?
- Borrowings from commercial banks
- Loans received from foreign governments
- Post office savings
- Disinvestment
- Interest paid on loans
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Capital Budget
The Capital Budget covers non-recurring transactions through capital expenditures and incomes through the sale of assets. These refer to receipts that reduce assets for a government and increase financial liabilities.
Thus it is an account of assets as well as liabilities of the central government.
Capital Receipts: All those receipts of the government which either creates liability or reduces financial asset are capital receipts.
Examples:
- Market borrowings by the government from the public
- Borrowings from the RBI
- Borrowings from commercial banks or financial institutions through the sale of Treasury-bills
- Loans received from foreign governments or international financial institutions, post office savings, post office saving certificates, and PSU’s Disinvestment.
Capital Expenditure: All those expenditures of the government which either result in the creation of physical/financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities.
Examples:
- Purchase of land, machinery, building, and equipments
- Investment in shares
- Loans and advances by the central government to state governments and UTs.
- Interest paid on the loans taken by the Government is part of the revenue account of the Budget.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Capital Budget
The Capital Budget covers non-recurring transactions through capital expenditures and incomes through the sale of assets. These refer to receipts that reduce assets for a government and increase financial liabilities.
Thus it is an account of assets as well as liabilities of the central government.
Capital Receipts: All those receipts of the government which either creates liability or reduces financial asset are capital receipts.
Examples:
- Market borrowings by the government from the public
- Borrowings from the RBI
- Borrowings from commercial banks or financial institutions through the sale of Treasury-bills
- Loans received from foreign governments or international financial institutions, post office savings, post office saving certificates, and PSU’s Disinvestment.
Capital Expenditure: All those expenditures of the government which either result in the creation of physical/financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities.
Examples:
- Purchase of land, machinery, building, and equipments
- Investment in shares
- Loans and advances by the central government to state governments and UTs.
- Interest paid on the loans taken by the Government is part of the revenue account of the Budget.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act (FRBMA) is concerned with which of the following?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA) mandates the Central Government to reduce the fiscal deficit as well as revenue deficit.
The enactment of the FRBMA, in August 2003, marked a turning point in fiscal reforms, binding the government through an institutional framework to pursue a prudent fiscal policy.
The central government must ensure intergenerational equity and long-term macro-economic stability by achieving sufficient revenue surplus, removing fiscal obstacles to monetary policy and effective debt management by limiting deficits and borrowing. The rules under the Act were notified with effect from July 2004.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA) mandates the Central Government to reduce the fiscal deficit as well as revenue deficit.
The enactment of the FRBMA, in August 2003, marked a turning point in fiscal reforms, binding the government through an institutional framework to pursue a prudent fiscal policy.
The central government must ensure intergenerational equity and long-term macro-economic stability by achieving sufficient revenue surplus, removing fiscal obstacles to monetary policy and effective debt management by limiting deficits and borrowing. The rules under the Act were notified with effect from July 2004.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following are Non – tax revenue sources of the government?
- Dividends and Profits
- Broadcasting Fees
- Interest
- Excise Duty
- Examination Fees
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax revenue is charged on income earned by an individual or an entity (direct tax) and on the value of the transaction of goods and services (indirect tax). On the other hand, non-tax revenue is charged against services provided by the government. It also includes interest charged on loans advanced by the government for various purposes.
– Non-tax revenue includes:
Interest: It comprises of interest of loans given to states and union territories for reasons like non-plan schemes (e.g. flood control) and planned schemes with maturity period of 20 years such as modernization of police forces and also interest on loans advanced to Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), Port Trusts and other statutory bodies, etc.
Dividends and profits: This includes dividends and profits from PSEs as well as the transfer of
surplus from Reserve Bank of India (RBI).Petroleum license: This includes fees to get the exclusive right for exploration in a particular region. Such fees may be in the form of royalty, share of the profit earned from contact areas during a specific period, Petroleum Exploration License (PEL) fee or Production Level Payment (PLP).Power supply fees: This includes fees received by the Central Electricity Authority from the supply of power under the Electricity (Supply) Act.
Fees for Communication Services: This mainly includes the license fees from telecom operators on account of spectrum usage charges that licensed Telecom Service Providers to pay to the Department of Telecom (DoT).
Broadcasting fees: It includes license fees paid by DTH operators, commercial TV services,
commercial FM radio services, etc.Road, Bridges usage fees: This includes receipts through toll plazas on account of the usage of national highways, permanent bridges, etc.
Examination fees: This includes fees paid by applicants of competitive examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to fill up vacancies in government offices.
Fee for police services: This includes fee received for supplying central police forces to state
governments and other parties like Central Industrial Police Force (CISF) to industries etc.Sale of stationery, gazettes, etc: This includes receipts under ‘Stationery and Printing’ relating to the sale of stationery, gazettes, government publications, etc.
Fee for Administrative Services: This includes fees received for providing services like audit
services, issuance of passport, visa, etc.Receipts relating to Defence Services: This relates to services provided through Canteen Stores Department (CSD).
Excise duty is a form of tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing and sale. It is a component of tax revenue.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax revenue is charged on income earned by an individual or an entity (direct tax) and on the value of the transaction of goods and services (indirect tax). On the other hand, non-tax revenue is charged against services provided by the government. It also includes interest charged on loans advanced by the government for various purposes.
– Non-tax revenue includes:
Interest: It comprises of interest of loans given to states and union territories for reasons like non-plan schemes (e.g. flood control) and planned schemes with maturity period of 20 years such as modernization of police forces and also interest on loans advanced to Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs), Port Trusts and other statutory bodies, etc.
Dividends and profits: This includes dividends and profits from PSEs as well as the transfer of
surplus from Reserve Bank of India (RBI).Petroleum license: This includes fees to get the exclusive right for exploration in a particular region. Such fees may be in the form of royalty, share of the profit earned from contact areas during a specific period, Petroleum Exploration License (PEL) fee or Production Level Payment (PLP).Power supply fees: This includes fees received by the Central Electricity Authority from the supply of power under the Electricity (Supply) Act.
Fees for Communication Services: This mainly includes the license fees from telecom operators on account of spectrum usage charges that licensed Telecom Service Providers to pay to the Department of Telecom (DoT).
Broadcasting fees: It includes license fees paid by DTH operators, commercial TV services,
commercial FM radio services, etc.Road, Bridges usage fees: This includes receipts through toll plazas on account of the usage of national highways, permanent bridges, etc.
Examination fees: This includes fees paid by applicants of competitive examinations conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and Staff Selection Commission (SSC) to fill up vacancies in government offices.
Fee for police services: This includes fee received for supplying central police forces to state
governments and other parties like Central Industrial Police Force (CISF) to industries etc.Sale of stationery, gazettes, etc: This includes receipts under ‘Stationery and Printing’ relating to the sale of stationery, gazettes, government publications, etc.
Fee for Administrative Services: This includes fees received for providing services like audit
services, issuance of passport, visa, etc.Receipts relating to Defence Services: This relates to services provided through Canteen Stores Department (CSD).
Excise duty is a form of tax imposed on goods for their production, licensing and sale. It is a component of tax revenue.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following is/are included in Public Debt of India?
- Treasury Bills or T-bills
- External Assistance
- Short term borrowings
- Dated government securities
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Public debt is the total amount borrowed by the Government to finance its development activities. It includes:
- Dated government securities or G-secs.
- Treasury Bills or T-bills
- External Assistance
- Short term borrowings
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Public debt is the total amount borrowed by the Government to finance its development activities. It includes:
- Dated government securities or G-secs.
- Treasury Bills or T-bills
- External Assistance
- Short term borrowings
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC):
- The establishment of FSDC was recommended by Raghuram Rajan committee on financial sector reforms.
- The Chairman of the Council is the Governor of RBI.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in December 2010.
The objective of FSDC is to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister. Its members include the heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDA), Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS), and Chief Economic Adviser.
The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in December 2010.
The objective of FSDC is to strengthen and institutionalize the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development.
The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister. Its members include the heads of all Financial Sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA & IRDA), Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS), and Chief Economic Adviser.
The Raghuram Rajan committee (2008) on financial sector reforms first proposed the creation of FSDC.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
The term ‘Fiscal Drag’ often seen in news refers to
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Fiscal drag happens when incomes rise due to wages following prices higher pushes or drags millions of taxpayers into the higher marginal tax rate brackets. Fiscal drag has the effect of raising government tax revenue without raising tax rates.
Fiscal drag is normally associated with progressive tax rates. Because of progressive taxes, the government will get more taxes when the economy is booming. This also helps slow the rate of increase in demand, reducing the pace of growth, making it less likely to result in higher inflation. Thus fiscal drag is an automatic stabilizer, as it acts naturally to keep demand stable.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Fiscal drag happens when incomes rise due to wages following prices higher pushes or drags millions of taxpayers into the higher marginal tax rate brackets. Fiscal drag has the effect of raising government tax revenue without raising tax rates.
Fiscal drag is normally associated with progressive tax rates. Because of progressive taxes, the government will get more taxes when the economy is booming. This also helps slow the rate of increase in demand, reducing the pace of growth, making it less likely to result in higher inflation. Thus fiscal drag is an automatic stabilizer, as it acts naturally to keep demand stable.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Micro-insurance in India
- Micro-insurance policies are created to promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society.
- These policies are regulated by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info: Micro-insurance policies are a special category of insurance policies created to
promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society.These policies are regulated by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDA).
Micro insurance can be either a general insurance policy (which can insure health, belongings, house, tools, personal accident contract, livestock etc) or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. They can be on an individual or group basis.
Insurers can offer composite covers or package products that include life and general insurance covers together.
Microinsurance business is done through the following intermediaries in India:
o Non-Government Organisations
o Self-Help Groups
o Micro-Finance InstitutionsIncorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info: Micro-insurance policies are a special category of insurance policies created to
promote insurance coverage among economically vulnerable sections of society.These policies are regulated by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDA).
Micro insurance can be either a general insurance policy (which can insure health, belongings, house, tools, personal accident contract, livestock etc) or life insurance policy with a sum assured of Rs 50,000 or less. They can be on an individual or group basis.
Insurers can offer composite covers or package products that include life and general insurance covers together.
Microinsurance business is done through the following intermediaries in India:
o Non-Government Organisations
o Self-Help Groups
o Micro-Finance Institutions -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
With reference to Zero based budgeting which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It takes last year’s actual figures and adds or subtracts a percentage to obtain the current year’s budget.
- The primary purpose of zero-based budgeting is the termination of activities which have become irrelevant.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified for each new period.
The process of zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base,” and every scheme within the budget is analyzed for its needs and costs. Budgets are then built around what is needed for the upcoming period, regardless of whether each budget is higher or lower than the previous one.
The primary purpose of zero-based budgeting is the termination of activities which have become irrelevant.
– Outcome Budgeting: It is the practice of developing budgets based on the relationship between funding and expected results. It enhances visibility into how government policies translate into spending and focus on the outcomes of a funded activity i.e. the quality or effectiveness of services provided. It aims to align programs and services with prioritized government outcomes.
– Incremental Budgeting: An incremental budget is a budget prepared using a previous period’s budget or actual performance as a basis with incremental amounts added for the new budget period.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Zero-based budgeting (ZBB) is a method of budgeting in which all expenses must be justified for each new period.
The process of zero-based budgeting starts from a “zero base,” and every scheme within the budget is analyzed for its needs and costs. Budgets are then built around what is needed for the upcoming period, regardless of whether each budget is higher or lower than the previous one.
The primary purpose of zero-based budgeting is the termination of activities which have become irrelevant.
– Outcome Budgeting: It is the practice of developing budgets based on the relationship between funding and expected results. It enhances visibility into how government policies translate into spending and focus on the outcomes of a funded activity i.e. the quality or effectiveness of services provided. It aims to align programs and services with prioritized government outcomes.
– Incremental Budgeting: An incremental budget is a budget prepared using a previous period’s budget or actual performance as a basis with incremental amounts added for the new budget period.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following can lead to the condition of Fiscal Slippage in an economy?
- Income support schemes
- Waiving of Farm loan
- Increase in disinvestment proceeds
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the
Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage. So Government actions that increase the expenditure will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.Examples include
- Income support schemes
- Farm loan waivers as such schemes lead to extra government expenditure.
Disinvestment proceeds increase the capital receipts of the Government. So, it will have the effect of the prevention of the situation of fiscal slippage.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Fiscal slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. When the
Government’s expenditure surpasses the expected or estimated levels, the nation might face the threat of fiscal slippage. So Government actions that increase the expenditure will lead to the condition of fiscal slippage.Examples include
- Income support schemes
- Farm loan waivers as such schemes lead to extra government expenditure.
Disinvestment proceeds increase the capital receipts of the Government. So, it will have the effect of the prevention of the situation of fiscal slippage.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following:
- Treasury bills
- Disinvestment of PSUs
- Recovery of loans
Which of the following can be considered as Non-debt capital receipts of Govt. of India?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Non-debt creating capital receipts are those money receipts which are received by the government from the sale of old assets. These receipts are not treated as liabilities of the government. Examples of non-debt creating capital receipts are recovery of loans, proceeds from sale of public enterprises, etc.
If the Govt. issues securities (treasury bills, dated securities or cash management bills) then it will be debt creating capital receipts. And money received in Public Account is also liability for Govt. of India and are considered as debt creating capital receipts
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Non-debt creating capital receipts are those money receipts which are received by the government from the sale of old assets. These receipts are not treated as liabilities of the government. Examples of non-debt creating capital receipts are recovery of loans, proceeds from sale of public enterprises, etc.
If the Govt. issues securities (treasury bills, dated securities or cash management bills) then it will be debt creating capital receipts. And money received in Public Account is also liability for Govt. of India and are considered as debt creating capital receipts
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Revenue receipts:
- Revenue receipts are those that do not produce any liabilities to the government.
- They are considered as redeemable in nature.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Revenue receipts are those that do not produce any liabilities and do not result in a claim against the government.
These revenue receipts are non-redeemable and are divided into two groups: tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
Tax revenues are the most important components of revenue receipts, which have been divided into direct taxes, enterprises, and indirect taxes such as customs duties, excise taxes, and service taxes for the long period.
Non-tax revenues, on the other hand, are recurrent income generated by the government from sources other than taxes.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Revenue receipts are those that do not produce any liabilities and do not result in a claim against the government.
These revenue receipts are non-redeemable and are divided into two groups: tax revenue and non-tax revenue.
Tax revenues are the most important components of revenue receipts, which have been divided into direct taxes, enterprises, and indirect taxes such as customs duties, excise taxes, and service taxes for the long period.
Non-tax revenues, on the other hand, are recurrent income generated by the government from sources other than taxes.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Tax Buoyancy:
- It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
- It largely depends on the size of the tax base.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP. When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
Tax buoyancy depends largely on –
- The size of the tax base
- The friendliness of the tax administration
- The reasonableness and simplicity of the tax rates
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax buoyancy explains this relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in GDP.
It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP. When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
Tax buoyancy depends largely on –
- The size of the tax base
- The friendliness of the tax administration
- The reasonableness and simplicity of the tax rates
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following pairs:
- Progressive tax: The tax liability for a taxpayer increases with his income in terms of proportion of income and in absolute amount.
- Regressive tax: The proportion of his income to be paid as tax decreases with increase in income.
Which of the following pairs is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Progressive tax is the one where the tax rate increases with the taxpayer’s income. The correct interpretation is that the tax liability for a taxpayer increases with his income in terms of proportion of income and in absolute amount.
In the case of regressive tax, the tax rate decreases with increase in income. Here, the tax liability of the taxpayer decreases with increase in his income. Or in other words, the proportion of his income to be paid as tax decreases with increase in income.
The tax rates may be proportional as well. Here, tax rate is same for all slabs of income.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Progressive tax is the one where the tax rate increases with the taxpayer’s income. The correct interpretation is that the tax liability for a taxpayer increases with his income in terms of proportion of income and in absolute amount.
In the case of regressive tax, the tax rate decreases with increase in income. Here, the tax liability of the taxpayer decreases with increase in his income. Or in other words, the proportion of his income to be paid as tax decreases with increase in income.
The tax rates may be proportional as well. Here, tax rate is same for all slabs of income.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following statements regarding NITI Aayog’s divisions is/are true?
- The Team India Hub carries out the mandate of fostering cooperative federalism and designing policy and programme frameworks.
- The Knowledge and Innovation Hub maintains a repository of research on good governance and best practices.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info: NITI Aayog is functionally divided into various Verticals that are responsible for examining sectoral issues and priorities for national development and economic growth.
NITI Aayog’s entire gamut of activities is divided into two main hubs: Team India and Knowledge and Innovation. The two hubs are at the core of NITI Aayog’s efficient functioning.
The Team India Hub carries out the mandate of fostering cooperative federalism and designing policy and programme frameworks. It provides requisite coordination and support in NITI Aayog’s engagement with States.
The Knowledge and Innovation Hub maintains a state-of-the-art resource centre, a repository of research on good governance and best practices, provides advice and encourages partnerships with key stakeholders, including colleges, universities, think tanks and non-governmental organizations at home and abroad.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info: NITI Aayog is functionally divided into various Verticals that are responsible for examining sectoral issues and priorities for national development and economic growth.
NITI Aayog’s entire gamut of activities is divided into two main hubs: Team India and Knowledge and Innovation. The two hubs are at the core of NITI Aayog’s efficient functioning.
The Team India Hub carries out the mandate of fostering cooperative federalism and designing policy and programme frameworks. It provides requisite coordination and support in NITI Aayog’s engagement with States.
The Knowledge and Innovation Hub maintains a state-of-the-art resource centre, a repository of research on good governance and best practices, provides advice and encourages partnerships with key stakeholders, including colleges, universities, think tanks and non-governmental organizations at home and abroad.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding GST Compensation Cess:
- It is levied and collected by the Centre.
- The States will be compensated if their nominal revenue growth is less than 12% after the implementation of GST.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Compensation Cess:
GST compensation is paid out of Compensation Cess every two months by the Centre to states.
It was specified by the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017.
States are guaranteed compensation for any revenue shortfall below 14% growth (base year 2015-16) for the first five years ending 2022.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Compensation Cess:
GST compensation is paid out of Compensation Cess every two months by the Centre to states.
It was specified by the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017.
States are guaranteed compensation for any revenue shortfall below 14% growth (base year 2015-16) for the first five years ending 2022.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
With reference to Tax Terrorism, consider the following statements:
- It refers to undue exercise of power by tax authorities to levy taxes using legal or extra-legal means.
- It is an outcome of complex tax structure and ambiguity in laws.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax Terrorism essentially means the undue exercise of power by tax authorities to levy taxes using legal or extra-legal means.
Tax terrorism is an outcome of:
- Complex tax structure — Numerous taxes apply even on seemingly simple transactions. Such a web of taxes acts adversely to smooth flow of business.
- Ambiguity in laws — This bends the law in favour of those who implement it. Vague definitions have led to disputes over the applicability of Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital gains tax, etc. in cases like the Vodafone and Cairn Energy Plc.
- High imbalance — The IT Act allows CBDT to send notices just based on suspicion that one has under-reported his income or miscalculated taxes. Such discretion on the authorities, at times, is misused.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Tax Terrorism essentially means the undue exercise of power by tax authorities to levy taxes using legal or extra-legal means.
Tax terrorism is an outcome of:
- Complex tax structure — Numerous taxes apply even on seemingly simple transactions. Such a web of taxes acts adversely to smooth flow of business.
- Ambiguity in laws — This bends the law in favour of those who implement it. Vague definitions have led to disputes over the applicability of Minimum Alternate Tax, Capital gains tax, etc. in cases like the Vodafone and Cairn Energy Plc.
- High imbalance — The IT Act allows CBDT to send notices just based on suspicion that one has under-reported his income or miscalculated taxes. Such discretion on the authorities, at times, is misused.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Commission for Safaikaramcharis(NCSK)’
- It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
- It is entrusted with the implementation of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
- ‘Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge’ was recently launched by NCSK aimed at preventing hazardous cleaning of sewers
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The National Commission for Safaikaramcharis was constituted as a statutory body in 1993. With the lapsing of the Act, the Commission is working as a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The functions of NCSK are 1. Implementation of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013. Enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the Act.
2. Giving recommendations to Government regarding specific programmes for welfare of SafaiKaramcharis
On the occasion of World Toilet Day November 19, 2020 Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge-2021. It is aimed at preventing hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks and to promote mechanised cleaning. Context – Cabinet extended the tenure of NCSK for three years.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The National Commission for Safaikaramcharis was constituted as a statutory body in 1993. With the lapsing of the Act, the Commission is working as a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. The functions of NCSK are 1. Implementation of Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013. Enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the Act.
2. Giving recommendations to Government regarding specific programmes for welfare of SafaiKaramcharis
On the occasion of World Toilet Day November 19, 2020 Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) launched the Safaimitra Suraksha Challenge-2021. It is aimed at preventing hazardous cleaning of sewers and septic tanks and to promote mechanised cleaning. Context – Cabinet extended the tenure of NCSK for three years.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘India State of Forests Report 2021’
- Arunachal Pradesh has the largest forest cover as a percentage of their total geographical area
- Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) represents the largest pool of carbon stock in forests
- Madhya Pradesh has the highest bamboo bearing area in the country
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The top five States in terms of forest cover as a percentage of their total geographical area were Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) represents the largest pool of carbon stock in forests followed by Above Ground Biomass(AGB) and Below Ground Biomass(BGB). The total bamboo bearing area of the country has been estimated at 15 million ha. Madhya Pradesh has the highest bamboo bearing area of 1.84 million ha followed by Arunachal Pradesh(1.57 million ha) and Maharashtra(1.35 million ha) Context – ISFR 2021 was released
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The top five States in terms of forest cover as a percentage of their total geographical area were Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%). Soil Organic Carbon (SOC) represents the largest pool of carbon stock in forests followed by Above Ground Biomass(AGB) and Below Ground Biomass(BGB). The total bamboo bearing area of the country has been estimated at 15 million ha. Madhya Pradesh has the highest bamboo bearing area of 1.84 million ha followed by Arunachal Pradesh(1.57 million ha) and Maharashtra(1.35 million ha) Context – ISFR 2021 was released
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
‘Operation Sard Hawa’ conducted by Border Security Force is related to
Correct
Solution (a)
The Border Security Force (BSF) launched “Operation Sard Hawa” on the western international border of Rajasthan. The Operations aims to check the instances of infiltration due to the dense fog cover in the region and increase security on the border areas in Jaisalmer.
Context – The week-long operation has been launched on 21 January 2021 and will continue till 27 January 2021, keeping in view Republic Day of India.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The Border Security Force (BSF) launched “Operation Sard Hawa” on the western international border of Rajasthan. The Operations aims to check the instances of infiltration due to the dense fog cover in the region and increase security on the border areas in Jaisalmer.
Context – The week-long operation has been launched on 21 January 2021 and will continue till 27 January 2021, keeping in view Republic Day of India.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘National Population Register’
- It is conducted under the provisions of Census Act,1948
- It is optional for a ‘usual resident of India’ to register in the NPR
Choose the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is conducted as per the provisions of Citizenship Act,1955 and Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules,2003. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. Context – Census and NPR were put off till September 2022
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect It is conducted as per the provisions of Citizenship Act,1955 and Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules,2003. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India to register in the NPR. Context – Census and NPR were put off till September 2022
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following Pairs:
Pass state
- Kongra La: Sikkim
- Shipki La: Himachal Pradesh
- Bum La: Ladakh
Choose the correct pairs:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kongra La is a pass in North Sikkim and has an elevation of 5122 metres. Shipki La is a mountain pass located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India (from Tibet) near this pass The Bum La Pass is a border pass between Tibet’s Cona County and India’s Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh. Context – Line of Actual Control was in news.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kongra La is a pass in North Sikkim and has an elevation of 5122 metres. Shipki La is a mountain pass located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India (from Tibet) near this pass The Bum La Pass is a border pass between Tibet’s Cona County and India’s Tawang district in Arunachal Pradesh. Context – Line of Actual Control was in news.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
An alloy contains Brass, Iron and Tin in the ratio 3:4:1 and another contains Iron, Tin and Lead in the ratio 5:4:3. If equal weights of both the alloys are melted together to form a third alloy, what is the ratio of lead in the new alloy?
Correct
Solution (b)
First alloy, ratios are 3: 4: 1 = 8
Second alloy, ratios are 5: 4: 3 = 12
Multiplying the first alloy by 1.5 to make it equal
First alloy, ratios are 4.5: 6: 1.5 = 12
Second alloy, ratios are 5: 4: 3 = 12
Adding both, Brass : Iron : Tin : Lead, 4.5 : 11 : 5.5 : 3 = 24
So, the ratio of Lead to the total = 3/24 = 1/8
Incorrect
Solution (b)
First alloy, ratios are 3: 4: 1 = 8
Second alloy, ratios are 5: 4: 3 = 12
Multiplying the first alloy by 1.5 to make it equal
First alloy, ratios are 4.5: 6: 1.5 = 12
Second alloy, ratios are 5: 4: 3 = 12
Adding both, Brass : Iron : Tin : Lead, 4.5 : 11 : 5.5 : 3 = 24
So, the ratio of Lead to the total = 3/24 = 1/8
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A jeweller has two qualities of gold, one of 24 carats and another of 32 carats purity. In what proportion should he mix both to make an ornament of 30 carats purity?
Correct
Solution (a)
Using alligation method,
Quantity 1 gold Quantity 2 gold
24 32
30
32-30= 2 30-24 = 6
2: 6 = 1:3
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Using alligation method,
Quantity 1 gold Quantity 2 gold
24 32
30
32-30= 2 30-24 = 6
2: 6 = 1:3
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
In a certain Zoo, there are some Ostriches and some Rabbits. If the head are counted there are 160, while the legs are 460. What will be numbers of Rabbit in the zoo?
Correct
Solution (d)
Let, Ostriches = x, Rabbit = y
As, Ostich has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs,
2x + 4y = 460 …1
Both have one head,
x + y = 160
2x + 2y =320 …. 2
Equation 1 – Equation 2
2y = 140
y = 70.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Let, Ostriches = x, Rabbit = y
As, Ostich has 2 legs and rabbit has 4 legs,
2x + 4y = 460 …1
Both have one head,
x + y = 160
2x + 2y =320 …. 2
Equation 1 – Equation 2
2y = 140
y = 70.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A mixture of certain quantity of milk with 8 L of water is worth 45 paise per litre. If pure milk be worth 54 paise per litre, how much milk is there in the mixture?
Correct
Solution (c)
Pure milk = 54 paise per litre
Mixture with 8 litre of water = 45 paise per litre
Applying the rule of alligation,
Water Pure milk
- 54
45
54-45=9 45-0=45
Therefore, Water : Milk = 9 : 45 = 1 : 5
Quantity of milk in mixture is 8 * 5 = 40 litre
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Pure milk = 54 paise per litre
Mixture with 8 litre of water = 45 paise per litre
Applying the rule of alligation,
Water Pure milk
- 54
45
54-45=9 45-0=45
Therefore, Water : Milk = 9 : 45 = 1 : 5
Quantity of milk in mixture is 8 * 5 = 40 litre
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
More than three lakh workers will be employed in the solar and wind energy sectors to meet the country’s target of generating 175 giga-watts of electricity from renewable sources by 2022, an International Labour Organization (ILO) report said.
“India is rapidly increasing its share of renewable energy sources, but still relies on coal, oil, natural gas, and the related carbon emissions for 80% of its electricity,” the report released on Tuesday said. This formed a small part of the report, which focused on the trajectory of the labour market in the backdrop of environmentally sustainable production practices. Tackling the misconception that green economies pave the way for economically undesirable outcomes, the report said rather than a trade-off between the two, their development goes hand in hand. According to the ILO report, there will be a net increase of 18 million jobs across the globe as a result of environmentally sustainable measures taken in the production and use of energy. This net figure is based on the estimation that the resultant job losses of six million will eventually lead to an increase of 24 million jobs as greener practices are adopted. Of this, 14 million jobs created will be in Asia and the Pacific.
“The transition to a green economy will inevitably cause job losses in certain sectors as carbon and resource-intensive industries are scaled down, but they will be offset by new job opportunities,” the report said. However, the report emphasized that the net increase of 18 million jobs is dependent on a supportive policy framework to aid displaced workers and skill development programs to help ease them into jobs that require new skills. It mentioned that although India does have a specific body or council to address the skills development for green transition, it has no existing institutional mechanism to anticipate skills needs and adapt training provision. Of the 27 countries surveyed, India and seven others fall under this category. “Developing and emerging economies have relatively weaker institutional capacity for integrating skills and environmental sustainability,” the report said.
The report stressed on the urgency of economies adopting sustainable practices, adding, in 2013, humanity used 1.7 times the amount of resources and waste that the biosphere was able to regenerate and absorb. The report reads, “It is striking that in a context of scarce resources and limited ability to absorb waste, current patterns of economic growth rely largely on the extraction of resources, manufacturing, consumption and waste.” It explained this urgency from the perspective of the job market by connecting labour productivity to climate change”. Looking ahead, projected temperature increases will make heat stress more common, reducing the total number of working hours by 2% globally by 2030 and affecting workers in agriculture, and developing countries,” the report said.
Q.30) Which of the following weakens the argument of increasing the share of renewable energy in the energy sector?
- The environmental impacts associated with renewable energy include habitat loss, water use, and the use of hazardous materials in manufacturing, they cause more harm than good in the long run.
- It is easy to harness and store renewable energy than the traditional sources of energy.
- The shift to renewable energy source would create jobs.
Choose the correct code
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 2 and Statement 3 strengthen the argument for renewable energy.
Statement 1 is correct. It weakens the argument as the whole point of increasing the share of renewable energy in the energy sector is to reduce environmental degradation in the long run.
Hence, option a is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 2 and Statement 3 strengthen the argument for renewable energy.
Statement 1 is correct. It weakens the argument as the whole point of increasing the share of renewable energy in the energy sector is to reduce environmental degradation in the long run.
Hence, option a is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba