IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
Archives
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 42– CLICK HERE
Note –
- Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
- It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
Test-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
- Solve Questions
- Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
- Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
- Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following is/are the negative consequences of noise pollution on human health?
- Hypertension
- Hearing disability
- Sleeping disorders
- Anxiety
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Hypertension (high blood pressure) Hearing disability – A person who is exposed to a loud sound continuously may get temporary or even permanent impairment of hearing. Sleeping disorders Anxiety Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Hypertension (high blood pressure) Hearing disability – A person who is exposed to a loud sound continuously may get temporary or even permanent impairment of hearing. Sleeping disorders Anxiety -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding the regions/states and the corresponding hotspots:
Region/State Hotspots
- Assam Himalaya
- Mizoram Indo-Burma
- Andaman group of islands Sundaland
- Nicobar group of islands Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Assam – Himalaya Mizoram – Indo-Burma Andaman group of Islands – Indo-Burma Nicobar group of Islands – Sundaland Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Assam – Himalaya Mizoram – Indo-Burma Andaman group of Islands – Indo-Burma Nicobar group of Islands – Sundaland -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Biopiracy:
- It refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies.
- It includes fraudulent patenting of biological resources for profit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Biopiracy refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies. Biopiracy also includes fraudulent patenting of biological resources for profit. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Biopiracy refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies. Biopiracy also includes fraudulent patenting of biological resources for profit. -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974:
- Act aimed for prevention and control of Water Pollution in India.
- It prohibits the discharge of pollutants into water bodies beyond a given standard.
- Act provides for a levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by industries.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Act aimed for prevention and control of Water Pollution in India. The Act prohibits the discharge of pollutants into water bodies beyond a given standard, and lays down penalties for non-compliance. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977 provides for a levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by industries and local authorities. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Act aimed for prevention and control of Water Pollution in India. The Act prohibits the discharge of pollutants into water bodies beyond a given standard, and lays down penalties for non-compliance. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act, 1977 provides for a levy and collection of a cess on water consumed by industries and local authorities. -
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Ground Level Ozone or ‘Bad Ozone’?
- It is a primary pollutant directly emitted into the air.
- It forms just above the earth’s surface.
- It is formed by the reaction of Nitrogen Oxides and volatile organic compounds (VOCs).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Ground-level ozone is called a ‘secondary’ pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air. It forms just above the earth’s surface. It is formed by the reaction of Nitrogen Oxides and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Ground-level ozone is called a ‘secondary’ pollutant because it is produced when two primary pollutants react in sunlight and stagnant air. It forms just above the earth’s surface. It is formed by the reaction of Nitrogen Oxides and volatile organic compounds (VOCs). -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Pollutants Major Source
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) Refrigeration and Air Conditioner
- SO2 Pulverized coal burning in thermal power industry
- Lead Gasoline and Aviation Fuel
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) – Refrigeration and Air Conditioner SO2 – Pulverized coal burning in thermal power industry Lead – Gasoline and Aviation Fuel Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Chlorofluorocarbons (CFC) – Refrigeration and Air Conditioner SO2 – Pulverized coal burning in thermal power industry Lead – Gasoline and Aviation Fuel -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Greenhouse Gases (GHG):
- Water Vapour is not among the six GHG covered by the Kyoto Protocol.
- Methane has less Global Warming Potential (GWP) than Carbon Dioxide.
- Fluorinated gases have the least GWP among all gases.
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Water Vapour is not among the six GHG covered by the Kyoto Protocol. Methane has more Global Warming Potential (GWP) than Carbon Dioxide. Fluorinated gases have the very high GWP among all gases. Notes:
Kyoto Protocol covers emissions of 6 GHG:
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)
- Methane (CH4)
- Nitrous oxide (N2O)
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
- Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
- Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Water Vapour is not among the six GHG covered by the Kyoto Protocol. Methane has more Global Warming Potential (GWP) than Carbon Dioxide. Fluorinated gases have the very high GWP among all gases. Notes:
Kyoto Protocol covers emissions of 6 GHG:
- Carbon dioxide (CO2)
- Methane (CH4)
- Nitrous oxide (N2O)
- Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
- Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
- Sulphur hexafluoride (SF6)
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Thermal Pollution:
- Elevated temperature typically decreases the level of dissolved oxygen (DO) in water.
- It decreases the metabolic rate of aquatic animal’s results in consumption of less food.
- A large increase in temperature can lead to the denaturing of life-supporting enzymes.
Which of the above statements is /are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Elevated temperature typically decreases the level of dissolved oxygen (DO) in water. Elevated temperature of water also increases the metabolic rate of aquatic animals’ results in consumption of more food in a shorter time than if their environment were not changed. An increased metabolic rate may result in food source shortages, causing a sharp decrease in a population. A large increase in temperature can lead to the denaturing of life-supporting enzymes. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Elevated temperature typically decreases the level of dissolved oxygen (DO) in water. Elevated temperature of water also increases the metabolic rate of aquatic animals’ results in consumption of more food in a shorter time than if their environment were not changed. An increased metabolic rate may result in food source shortages, causing a sharp decrease in a population. A large increase in temperature can lead to the denaturing of life-supporting enzymes. -
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Social Forestry?
- Among five different types of Social forestry, Silviculture is one of them.
- Extension forestry is a type of forestry that helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests
- Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are 5 different types of social forestry, which are listed below: 1. Scientific Forestry or Silviculture
2. Farm Forestry
3. Community Forestry
4. Agro-Forestry
5. Extension Forestry
Extension forestry is a type of forestry helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests. Planting of trees on the government wastelands, panchayat lands, village common lands. Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are 5 different types of social forestry, which are listed below: 1. Scientific Forestry or Silviculture
2. Farm Forestry
3. Community Forestry
4. Agro-Forestry
5. Extension Forestry
Extension forestry is a type of forestry helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests. Planting of trees on the government wastelands, panchayat lands, village common lands. Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context. -
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements about Biodiversity Conservation and Rural Livelihood Improvement Project (BCRLIP):
- It aims at conserving Biodiversity in selected landscapes, including wildlife protected areas.
- The Project is implemented by the Forest/Wildlife Department of the respective State Government.
- Ministry of Rural development would be overseeing and coordinating the Project at the country level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect BCRLIP aims at conserving Biodiversity in selected landscapes, including wildlife protected areas. The Project is implemented by the Forest/Wildlife Department of the respective State Government. The Conservation and Survey Division in the Ministry of Environment & Forest would be overseeing and coordinating the Project at the country level. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect BCRLIP aims at conserving Biodiversity in selected landscapes, including wildlife protected areas. The Project is implemented by the Forest/Wildlife Department of the respective State Government. The Conservation and Survey Division in the Ministry of Environment & Forest would be overseeing and coordinating the Project at the country level. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding E-Waste in India?
- Toxic elements associated with e waste usually are – Cadmium, Mercury, Lead, nickel, Chromium, Copper, Lithium, Silver and Manganese.
- India was the top e-waste generator in the world, producing 7.2 MMT.
- Maharashtra is the biggest producer of e-waste in India followed by Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Toxic elements associated with e waste usually are – Cadmium, Mercury, Lead, nickel, Chromium, Copper, Lithium, Silver and Manganese. China was the top e-waste generator in the world, producing 7.2 MMT. Maharashtra is the biggest producer of e-waste in India followed by Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Toxic elements associated with e waste usually are – Cadmium, Mercury, Lead, nickel, Chromium, Copper, Lithium, Silver and Manganese. China was the top e-waste generator in the world, producing 7.2 MMT. Maharashtra is the biggest producer of e-waste in India followed by Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following is/are the components of Biodiversity Heritage Sites?
- Richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories
- High endemism
- Presence of rare and threatened species
- Species of evolutionary significance
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories High endemism Presence of rare and threatened species Species of evolutionary significance Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):
BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components:
- richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories
- high endemism
- presence of rare and threatened species
- keystone species
- species of evolutionary significance
- wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties
- past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and
- having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values and
- are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct Richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories High endemism Presence of rare and threatened species Species of evolutionary significance Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS):
BHS are well defined areas that are unique, ecologically fragile ecosystems – terrestrial, coastal and inland waters and, marine having rich biodiversity comprising of any one or more of the following components:
- richness of wild as well as domesticated species or intra-specific categories
- high endemism
- presence of rare and threatened species
- keystone species
- species of evolutionary significance
- wild ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species or their varieties
- past pre-eminence of biological components represented by fossil beds and
- having significant cultural, ethical or aesthetic values and
- are important for the maintenance of cultural diversity, with or without a long history of human association with them.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GASCA):
- GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
- India is a member state to this alliance.
- Membership in the Alliance creates binding obligations and determines the nature of participation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). India is a member state to this alliance. Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). India is a member state to this alliance. Membership in the Alliance does not create any binding obligations and each member individually determines the nature of its participation. -
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Global Biodiversity Information Facility was an initiative of-
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Global Biodiversity Information Facility:
- GBIF—the Global Biodiversity Information Facility—is an international network and data infrastructure funded by the world’s governments and aimed at providing anyone, anywhere, open access to data about all types of life on Earth.
- GBIF arose from a 1999 recommendation by the Biodiversity Informatics Subgroup of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development’s Mega-science Forum. This report concluded that “An international mechanism is needed to make biodiversity data and information accessible worldwide”, arguing that this mechanism could produce many economic and social benefits and enable sustainable development by providing sound scientific evidence.
- The OECD panel specifically recommended the establishment of a Global Biodiversity
- Information Facility, to ‘enable users to navigate and put to use vast quantities of biodiversity information, advancing scientific research … serving the economic and quality-of-life interests of society, and providing a basis from which our knowledge of the natural world can grow rapidly and in a manner that avoids duplication of effort and expenditure.’
- That recommendation was endorsed by OECD science ministers and, in 2001, GBIF was officially established through Memorandum of Understanding between participating governments.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Global Biodiversity Information Facility:
- GBIF—the Global Biodiversity Information Facility—is an international network and data infrastructure funded by the world’s governments and aimed at providing anyone, anywhere, open access to data about all types of life on Earth.
- GBIF arose from a 1999 recommendation by the Biodiversity Informatics Subgroup of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development’s Mega-science Forum. This report concluded that “An international mechanism is needed to make biodiversity data and information accessible worldwide”, arguing that this mechanism could produce many economic and social benefits and enable sustainable development by providing sound scientific evidence.
- The OECD panel specifically recommended the establishment of a Global Biodiversity
- Information Facility, to ‘enable users to navigate and put to use vast quantities of biodiversity information, advancing scientific research … serving the economic and quality-of-life interests of society, and providing a basis from which our knowledge of the natural world can grow rapidly and in a manner that avoids duplication of effort and expenditure.’
- That recommendation was endorsed by OECD science ministers and, in 2001, GBIF was officially established through Memorandum of Understanding between participating governments.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following is not an ex-situ conservation measure?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
In situ and ex situ conservation focuses on the maintenance of species diversity within or away from their natural habitats, respectively.
In-situ conservation:
- Reserved & Protected Forests
- Wildlife Sanctuaries or wildlife refuges
- National Park
- Biosphere Reserve
- Tiger Reserves
- Conservation Reserves
- Community Reserves
- Sacred Groves
Ex-Situ Conservation:
- Botanical garden
- Zoo
- seed banks
- botanical gardens
- aquariums
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
In situ and ex situ conservation focuses on the maintenance of species diversity within or away from their natural habitats, respectively.
In-situ conservation:
- Reserved & Protected Forests
- Wildlife Sanctuaries or wildlife refuges
- National Park
- Biosphere Reserve
- Tiger Reserves
- Conservation Reserves
- Community Reserves
- Sacred Groves
Ex-Situ Conservation:
- Botanical garden
- Zoo
- seed banks
- botanical gardens
- aquariums
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
With respect to ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’ (ZBNF), consider the following statements:
- It aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services.
- It uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers.
- Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Biamitra, Mulching and Waaphasa.
- Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct ZBNF aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services. ZBNF uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers. Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Biamitra, Mulching and Waaphasa. Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct ZBNF aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services. ZBNF uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers. Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Biamitra, Mulching and Waaphasa. Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna. -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
With reference to the Bharatpur Bird sanctuary, consider the following statements:
- It is both a world heritage site and a Ramsar site.
- The critically endangered Siberian Crane can be spotted in this sanctuary during summers.
- It has a dry deciduous vegetation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Keoladeo National Park, popularly known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in the Bharatpur in Rajasthan. It is recognised as one of the world’s most important bird breeding and feeding grounds. It was recognised as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985 and a Ramsar site under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance in 1981. A large number of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Siberia & China visit the park. In fact, it is the only region in India where the critically endangered Siberian Crane can be spotted during the winters. (Clearly the Siberian Crane would leave Siberia in the harsh winter). The vegetation here is of a dry deciduous type, with medium sizedtrees & shrubs found inside its forest. Some of the trees which can be commonly spotted inside the park are kadam, jamun, babul, kandi, ber, kair & piloo. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Keoladeo National Park, popularly known as Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, is located in the Bharatpur in Rajasthan. It is recognised as one of the world’s most important bird breeding and feeding grounds. It was recognised as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1985 and a Ramsar site under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance in 1981. A large number of aquatic birds from Afghanistan, Turkmenistan, Siberia & China visit the park. In fact, it is the only region in India where the critically endangered Siberian Crane can be spotted during the winters. (Clearly the Siberian Crane would leave Siberia in the harsh winter). The vegetation here is of a dry deciduous type, with medium sizedtrees & shrubs found inside its forest. Some of the trees which can be commonly spotted inside the park are kadam, jamun, babul, kandi, ber, kair & piloo. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
With reference to The Wildlife Trade Monitoring Network (TRAFFIC), consider the following statements:
- Its mission is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.
- It is a collaborative effort of Coalition Against Wildlife Trafficking (CAWT) and World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect TRAFFIC aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. It is a leading non-governmental organisation working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. TRAFFIC is a joint conservation programme of WWF and IUCN. It was established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, principally as a response to the entry into force during the previous year of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect TRAFFIC aims to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature. It is a leading non-governmental organisation working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. TRAFFIC is a joint conservation programme of WWF and IUCN. It was established in 1976 by the Species Survival Commission of IUCN, principally as a response to the entry into force during the previous year of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Protected Area Region
- Dachigam National Park Zabarwan Range
- Namdapha National Park Khasi Hills
- Parambikulam Tiger Reserve Nilgiri Hills
- Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve Vindhya Range
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Dachigam National Park – Zabarwan Range Namdapha National Park – Mishmi Hills Parambikulam Tiger Reserve – Anaimalai Hills Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve – Satpura Range Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Dachigam National Park – Zabarwan Range Namdapha National Park – Mishmi Hills Parambikulam Tiger Reserve – Anaimalai Hills Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve – Satpura Range -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Setting up of which of the following projects will require mandatory Environmental Impact Assessment?
- Thermal Power Station
- Crude Oil Refineries
- Special Waste Incineration
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Thermal Power Station – Mandatory EIA Crude Oil Refineries – Mandatory EIA Special Waste Incineration – Mandatory EIA Notes:
- Environmental Impact Assessment has been defined as an activity that has been designed to identify, predict and interpret the impact of an action on human health, including the well-being of ecosystems on which the survival of human beings depends.
- EIA was introduced in India in 1978.
EIA covers the following projects:
Mandatory EIA:
Major projects that are mandatorily subjected to EIA before execution include
- Crude oil refineries
- thermal power stations
- chemical installations
- trading ports
- special waste incineration
- installations for the disposal of radioactive wastes
- motorways and major roads
- waste treatment or landfill
- iron and steel industry
- heavy mining etc.
Discretionary EIA:
Some projects are subjected to discretionary environmental assessment in case they are likely to have significant environmental effects. Such projects include
- poultry units
- metal processing
- mineral extracting
- glass making
- food manufacturing
- holiday resorts
- tanneries
- paper industry etc.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Thermal Power Station – Mandatory EIA Crude Oil Refineries – Mandatory EIA Special Waste Incineration – Mandatory EIA Notes:
- Environmental Impact Assessment has been defined as an activity that has been designed to identify, predict and interpret the impact of an action on human health, including the well-being of ecosystems on which the survival of human beings depends.
- EIA was introduced in India in 1978.
EIA covers the following projects:
Mandatory EIA:
Major projects that are mandatorily subjected to EIA before execution include
- Crude oil refineries
- thermal power stations
- chemical installations
- trading ports
- special waste incineration
- installations for the disposal of radioactive wastes
- motorways and major roads
- waste treatment or landfill
- iron and steel industry
- heavy mining etc.
Discretionary EIA:
Some projects are subjected to discretionary environmental assessment in case they are likely to have significant environmental effects. Such projects include
- poultry units
- metal processing
- mineral extracting
- glass making
- food manufacturing
- holiday resorts
- tanneries
- paper industry etc.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
He was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association. He founded a branch of the Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913. He also wrote a book titled Bandi Jeevan. He is
Correct
Solution (d)
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association. He founded a branch of the Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913. He also wrote a book titled Bandi Jeevan. He was extensively involved in the plans for the Ghadar conspiracy, and went underground after it was exposed in February 1915. Sanyal and Mahatma Gandhi engaged in a famous debate published in Young India between 1920 and 1924.
Context – The death anniversary of Sachindra Nath Sanyal was recently observed.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Sachindra Nath Sanyal was the founder of the Hindustan Republican Association. He founded a branch of the Anushilan Samiti in Patna in 1913. He also wrote a book titled Bandi Jeevan. He was extensively involved in the plans for the Ghadar conspiracy, and went underground after it was exposed in February 1915. Sanyal and Mahatma Gandhi engaged in a famous debate published in Young India between 1920 and 1924.
Context – The death anniversary of Sachindra Nath Sanyal was recently observed.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Parvatmala Scheme’
- The scheme aims to provide all weather roads in mountainous regions
- Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is the nodal Ministry for this scheme
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct National Ropeways Development Programme – “Parvatmala” – which will be taken up on PPP mode. It will be a preferred, ecologically sustainable alternative in place of conventional roads in difficult hilly areas. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is the nodal Ministry for this scheme. It will have responsibility for development of ropeway and alternative mobility solutions technology, as well as construction, research, and policy. Context – The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct National Ropeways Development Programme – “Parvatmala” – which will be taken up on PPP mode. It will be a preferred, ecologically sustainable alternative in place of conventional roads in difficult hilly areas. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is the nodal Ministry for this scheme. It will have responsibility for development of ropeway and alternative mobility solutions technology, as well as construction, research, and policy. Context – The scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Lassa Fever’
- The disease is caused by a virus and is primarily found in West Africa
- It is primarily caused by pigs and person to person transmission is possible
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Lassa virus is primarily found in countries in West Africa including Sierra Leone, Liberia, Guinea, and Nigeria where it is endemic The fever is spread by rats. Person-to-person transmission is also possible. Context – There was an outbreak of Lassa Fever recently.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Lassa virus is primarily found in countries in West Africa including Sierra Leone, Liberia, Guinea, and Nigeria where it is endemic The fever is spread by rats. Person-to-person transmission is also possible. Context – There was an outbreak of Lassa Fever recently.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Quantum Key Distribution’
- It enables two parties to produce a shared random secret key known only to them, which can then be used to encrypt and decrypt messages
- The security of encryption that uses quantum key distribution relies on the foundations of public key cryptography
- Quantum key distribution is only used to produce and distribute a key and not to transmit any message data
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a secure communication method which implements a cryptographic protocol involving components of quantum mechanics. It enables two parties to produce a shared random secret key known only to them, which can then be used to encrypt and decrypt messages The security of encryption that uses quantum key distribution relies on the foundations of quantum mechanics, in contrast to traditional public key cryptography, which relies on the computational difficulty of certain mathematical functions, and cannot provide any mathematical proof as to the actual complexity of reversing the one-way functions used. The security of encryption that uses quantum key distribution relies on the foundations of quantum mechanics, in contrast to traditional public key cryptography, which relies on the computational difficulty of certain mathematical functions, and cannot provide any mathematical proof as to the actual complexity of reversing the one-way functions used. Context – The technology was demonstrated by DRDO and IIT – Delhi.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Quantum key distribution (QKD) is a secure communication method which implements a cryptographic protocol involving components of quantum mechanics. It enables two parties to produce a shared random secret key known only to them, which can then be used to encrypt and decrypt messages The security of encryption that uses quantum key distribution relies on the foundations of quantum mechanics, in contrast to traditional public key cryptography, which relies on the computational difficulty of certain mathematical functions, and cannot provide any mathematical proof as to the actual complexity of reversing the one-way functions used. The security of encryption that uses quantum key distribution relies on the foundations of quantum mechanics, in contrast to traditional public key cryptography, which relies on the computational difficulty of certain mathematical functions, and cannot provide any mathematical proof as to the actual complexity of reversing the one-way functions used. Context – The technology was demonstrated by DRDO and IIT – Delhi.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Ayushman Bharat Digital Health Mission’
- It is a digital health ecosystem under which every resident will now have unique health IDs and digitized health records
- The National Health Authority has been given the mandate to design, build, roll-out and implement the mission
- Private stakeholders will have an equal opportunity to integrate and create their own products for the market.
- Health ID is a randomly generated 16 digit number used for the purposes of uniquely identifying persons.
Choose the correct statement(s) using the code given below
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect It is a digital health ecosystem under which every Indian citizen will now have unique health IDs, digitised health records with identifiers for doctors and health facilities The National Health Authority has been given the mandate to design, build, roll-out and implement the mission in the country Private stakeholders will have an equal opportunity to integrate and create their own products for the market. The core activities and verifications, however, remain with the government. Health ID is a randomly generated 14 digit number used for the purposes of uniquely identifying persons, authenticating them, and threading their health records Context – The mission was announced by National Health Authority.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect It is a digital health ecosystem under which every Indian citizen will now have unique health IDs, digitised health records with identifiers for doctors and health facilities The National Health Authority has been given the mandate to design, build, roll-out and implement the mission in the country Private stakeholders will have an equal opportunity to integrate and create their own products for the market. The core activities and verifications, however, remain with the government. Health ID is a randomly generated 14 digit number used for the purposes of uniquely identifying persons, authenticating them, and threading their health records Context – The mission was announced by National Health Authority.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
In a family, there are six members A, B, C, D, E and F. A and B are a married couple, A being the male member. D is the only son of C, who is the brother of A. E is the sister of D. B is the daughter-in-law of F, whose husband has died. How is E related to C?
Correct
Solution (b)
A is a male and married to B. So, A is the husband and B is the wife. C is the brother of A. D is the son of C. E. who is the sister of D will be the daughter of C. B is the daughter-in-law of F whose husband has died means F is the mother of A. Therefore, E is the daughter of C.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
A is a male and married to B. So, A is the husband and B is the wife. C is the brother of A. D is the son of C. E. who is the sister of D will be the daughter of C. B is the daughter-in-law of F whose husband has died means F is the mother of A. Therefore, E is the daughter of C.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father.” How was the woman related to the person?
Correct
Solution (c)
Father
Mother
Person
The woman is the only daughter. The person happens to be her son.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Father
Mother
Person
The woman is the only daughter. The person happens to be her son.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Consider the following statements
- B, C. D, E and F are six members of a family.
- One couple has parents and their children in the family.
- A is the son of C and E is the daughter of A.
- D is the daughter of F who is the mother of E.
Which of the following pairs is the parents of the couple?
Correct
Solution (c)
E is the daughter of A and F is the mother of E So, A is the father of E and hence the husband of F. Now, D is the daughter of F So. D and E are the daughters of A and F Also. A is the son of C. Now, only B remains Thus. B and C are the parents of A. Therefore, B and C are the parents of the couple.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
E is the daughter of A and F is the mother of E So, A is the father of E and hence the husband of F. Now, D is the daughter of F So. D and E are the daughters of A and F Also. A is the son of C. Now, only B remains Thus. B and C are the parents of A. Therefore, B and C are the parents of the couple.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
When Sushma saw Praveen, she said, “He is the son of the father-in-law of the father of my daughter”. How is Praveen related to Sushma?
Correct
Solution (d)
Father of my daughter implies it is her husband.Father in law of her husband happens to be her own father. Son of her father is sushma’s brother.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Father of my daughter implies it is her husband.Father in law of her husband happens to be her own father. Son of her father is sushma’s brother.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
Urbanisation is a positive phenomenon provided the cities are able to the harness its potential. A recently public published UN-Habitat global report on human settlements shows that not many cities in developing countries such as India have managed to do this. Indian cities struggle to manage the swelling numbers. They tend to have inadequate infrastructure poor mobility and a lack of affordable housing. The challenge they face is twofold, efforts to distribute growth across urban centres have been inadequate and the urban planning practices are outdated. Much attention is paid to mega cities, leaving the smaller cities largely unattended. Of the 5161, urban centres, as the eleventh five year plan points out, only 1500 have some form of plan to manage their growth. With quality of life suffering and the smaller cities, more people tend to move to the metros, burdening them further. Although, the need for developing small and medium-size towns was highlighted as early as 1988, by the first National Commission on Urbanisation, not much has happened on that front. As for the bigger cities, the additional attention and the presence of a master plan have not necessarily meant improvement, managing a city through a single unified master plan has failed to deliver.
Q.30) It is implied in the passage that
Correct
Solution (a)
The answer is hidden in the first two lines. The cities of developing countries have not actually made use of the concept of urbanisation.
Hence, option a is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The answer is hidden in the first two lines. The cities of developing countries have not actually made use of the concept of urbanisation.
Hence, option a is the correct answer.
All the Best
IASbaba