[DAY 26] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The powers of Governor with regard to Bills:

• All the bills passed by the state legislatures are sent to the Governor for assent. Once a bill is sent to Governor for assent, he/she can
• give assent to the bill
• withhold the assent to the bill
• Return the bill to the legislature for reconsideration (if it is not a money bill).
• If the bill is re-passed by the legislature with or without amendment, the governor has to give assent to the bill.
• Reserve the bills for the consideration of the President. In one case such reservation is obligatory, that is where the bill passed by the State Legislature endangers the position of the state high court. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• When a state bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the president has three alternatives:
• He may give his assent to the bill, the bill then become and act.
• He may withhold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an Act.
• He may return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses of the State Legislature. When a bill is so returned, the house or houses have to consider it within six months. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• If the bill is passed by the house or houses again with or without amendments and presented to the President for his assent, the president is not bound to give his assent to the bill. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• He may give his assent to such a bill or withhold his assent.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• A person to be elected to it must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. This provision is provided in the Representation of People Act 1951 and not in the constitution. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The council cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the council of ministers is collectively responsible only to the Assembly. But the council can discuss and criticize the policies and activities of the Government
• A money bill can be introduced only in the assembly and not in the council. The council cannot amend or reject a money bill. It should return the bill to the assembly within 14 days, either with recommendations or without recommendations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• According to the constitution, the Chief Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of a State Legislature. Usually, Chief Minister has been selected from the lower house, but on a number of occasions, a member of  upper  house  (legislative  council)  has  also  been  appointed  as  Chief Minister. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Appointment of the Governor by President without any direct elections was chosen because of the following reasons:
• The direct election of the governor is incompatible with the parliamentary system established in the states. Hence option (a) is the correct answer.
• The mode of direct election is more likely to create conflicts between the governor and the chief minister.
• The governor being only a constitutional (nominal) head, there is no point in making elaborate arrangements for his election and spending huge amount of money.
• The election of a governor would be entirely on personal issues. Hence, it is not in the national interest to involve a large number of voters in such an election.
• An elected governor would naturally belong to a party and would not be a neutral person and an impartial head.
• The election of the governor would create separatist tendencies and thus affect the political stability and unity of the country.
• The system of presidential nomination enables the Centre to maintain its control over the states.
• The direct election of the governor creates a serious problem of leadership at the time of a general election in the state.
• The chief minister would like his nominee to contest for governorship. Hence, a second rate man of the ruling party is elected as governor

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Article 163 provides for a council of ministers with the chief minister as the head to aid and advice the governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far as he is required to exercise his functions in his discretion.
• The five-judge Constitution bench judgment of the Supreme Court in Nabam Rebia case,2016, held that a Governor cannot employ his ‘discretion’, and should strictly abide by the “aid and advice” of the Cabinet to summon the House.
• The Supreme Court highlighted that Article 163 of the Constitution does not give the Governor a “general discretionary power to act against or without the advice of his Council of Ministers”. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• A floor test can be explained as a motion initiated by the government in position seeking to know if it enjoys the confidence of the legislature. As part of this procedure, the chief minister appointed by the governor will be asked to prove majority on the Legislative Assembly’s floor.
• When a floor test is called for in the assembly of a state, the chief minister will move a vote of confidence and prove that he has the majority support. If the floor test fails, the chief minister will have to resign. Thus, a floor test is the conclusive proof of numbers in the House.
• The Supreme Court’s Constitution Bench judgment of 1994 in the S.R. Bommai case had introduced the concept of floor tests. Hence, statement 2 is not correct
• The Constitution Bench referred to Article 164 (2) which mandates that the “Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State”. The Bench interpreted that the ultimate test of the majority is not held in the Raj Bhavan but on the floor of the House.
• A Constitution Bench judgment of the Supreme Court has held that a Governor is bound to convene a meeting of the Assembly for a floor test on the recommendation of the Cabinet.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 153 provides for a Governor for each State. The Constitution, under article 158, lays down the following conditions for the governor’s office:
• He should not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any such person is appointed as governor, he is deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on the date on which he enters upon his office as the governor. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• He should not hold any other office of profit.
• He is entitled without payment of rent to the use of his official residence (the Raj Bhavan). The executive powers and functions of the Governor are:
• All executive actions of the government of a state are formally taken in his name.
• He can make rules specifying the manner in which the Orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.
• He can make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of a state government and for the allocation among the ministers of the said business. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He appoints the chief minister and other ministers. They also hold office during his pleasure.
• There should be a Tribal Welfare minister in the states of Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha appointed by him. The state of Bihar was excluded from this provision by the 94th Amendment Act of 2006.
• He appoints the advocate general of a state and determines his remuneration. The advocate general holds office during the pleasure of the governor. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Article 167-He is the principal channel of communication between the Governor and the Council of Ministers. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Powers and functions of Chief Minister are:
  He is the chairman of the State Planning Commission. Hence option 1 is correct.
  2. He acts as a Vice-Chairman of the concerned zonal council by rotation, holding office for a period of one year at a time. Union Home Minister is the chairman. Hence option 3 is correct.
  3. He is a member of the Inter-State Council and the National Development Council, both headed by the Prime Minister.
  4. He is the chief spokesman of the state government.
  5. He is the crisis manager-in-chief at the political level during emergencies.
  6. As a leader of the state, he meets various sections of people in different states and receives memoranda from them regarding their problems and so on.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• When a bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the President has three alternatives (Under Article 201 of the Constitution):
• He may give his assent to the bill, or
• He may withhold his assent to the bill, or
• He may direct the governor to return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for the reconsideration of the state legislature. If the bill is passed again by the state legislature with or without amendments and presented again to the President for his assent, the President is not bound to give his assent to the bill. This means that the state legislature cannot override the veto power of the President. Further, the Constitution has not prescribed any time limit within which the President has to take decision with regard to a bill reserved by the governor for his consideration. Hence, the President can exercise pocket veto in respect of state legislation also.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Before the Chief Minister enters his office, the governor administers to him the oaths of office and secrecy. In his oath of office, the Chief Minister swears:
• To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
• To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct.
• To faithfully and conscientiously discharge the duties of his office.
• To do right to all manner of people in accordance with the Constitution and the law, without fear or favor, affection or ill- will.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The position with respect to lapsing of bills on the dissolution of the assembly is mentioned below:
• A Bill pending in the assembly lapses (whether originating in the assembly or transmitted to it by the council). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• A Bill passed by the assembly but pending in the council lapses.
• A Bill pending in the council but not passed by the assembly does not lapse. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the houses (in a bicameral state) but pending assent of the governor or the President does not lapse. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• A Bill passed by the assembly (in a unicameral state) or passed by both the Houses (in a bicameral state) but returned by the president for reconsideration of House (s) does not lapse.

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

• The strength of the legislative council depends on the total strength of the legislative assembly. The Legislative Council must not have more than a third of the total membership of the Assembly of that state, and in no case fewer than 40 members. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• About 1/3rd of members are elected by which members of the Assembly, another 1/3rd by electorates consisting of members of municipalities, district boards and other local authorities in the state, 1/12th by an electorate consisting of teachers, and 1/12th by registered graduates. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• The remaining members are nominated by the Governor from among those who have distinguished themselves in literature, science, art, the cooperative movement, and social service. Legislative Councils are permanent Houses, and like Rajya Sabha, one-third of their members retire every two years. .
• Apart from Andhra Pradesh (58 members), five other states have Legislative Councils: Bihar (58), Karnataka (75), Maharashtra (78), Telangana (40), Uttar Pradesh (100). Jammu and Kashmir too had a Council, until the state was bifurcated into the Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh. Thus, there are 6 states which have a legislative council. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Quorum :

1. Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business.
2. 1It is 10 members or 1/10^th of the total number of members in each House including the presiding officer. Hence option 1 is correct.
3. If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.

Language:

1. The Constitution has declared Hindi and English to be the languages for transacting business in the State Legislature.
2. However, the presiding officer can permit a member to address the House in his/her mother tongue.
3. The State Legislature is authorized to decide whether to continue or discontinue English as a floor language after the completion of fifteen years from the commencement of the Constitution. Hence option 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature:
• He must be a citizen of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission for this purpose. In his oath or affirmation, he swears (i) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India (ii) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
• He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
• Accordingly, the Parliament has laid down the following additional qualifications in the Representation of People Act (1951):
• A person to be elected to the legislative council must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state and to be qualified for the governor’s nomination, he must be a resident in the concerned state.
• A person to be elected to the legislative assembly must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament and the Lok Sabha in particular under Article 75.
• The council of ministers act as a team and swim and sink together. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a vote of no confidence. Hence option 1 is correct.
• The no confidence motion is passed only in the lok sabha. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
• Members of the council of ministers are bound by consensus. Hence option 2 is correct. The government cannot have two opinions on the same issue.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

After each census, a readjustment is to be made in the:

(a) total number of seats in the assembly of each state; and

(b) the division of each state into territorial constituencies.

1. The Parliament is empowered to determine the authority and the manner in which it is to be made.
2. The 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 had frozen total number of seats in the assembly of each state and the division of such state into territorial constituencies till the year 2000 at the 1971 level. Hence option 1 is correct.
3. This ban on re-adjustment has been extended for another 25 years (i.e., up to year 2026) by the 84^th Amendment Act of 2001 with the objective of encouraging population limiting measures.
4. The 84^th Amendment Act of 2001 also empowered the government to undertake re-adjustment and rationalization of territorial constituencies in a state on the basis of the population figures of 1991 census. Hence option 2 is correct.
5. Later, the 87^th Amendment Act of 2003 provided for the delimitation of constituencies on the basis of 2001 census.
6. However, this can be done without altering the total number of seats in the assembly of each state.

Solution  (c)

Explanation:

In Parliament – The Lok Sabha cannot override the Rajya Sabha by passing the bill for the second time and vice versa. A joint sitting is the only way to resolve a deadlock. joint sitting can be used for bills originating in Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha. If a joint sitting is not summoned by the President, the bill becomes dead. Hence option 1 is correct.

In State Legislature – The legislative assembly can override the legislative council by passing the bill for the second time and not vice versa. Mechanism to resolve a deadlock i.e. passing the bill second time by the assembly applies only for the bills originating in the assembly. Thus deadlock occurs only when the bill passed by assembly is rejected by the council and not vice-versa as assembly has overriding powers. When bills originating in legislative council are rejected by assembly, the bills end and become dead. Hence option 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Maharashtra was first to establish the office of Lokayukta in 1971. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• All states have different structure of the Lokayukta.
• Some states have created the Lokayukta as well as Upa-lokayukta, while some others have created only the Lokayukta.
• Lokayukta is responsible to State Legislature. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Governor appoints the Lokayukta and Upa-lokayukta. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Governor in most of the states consult the Chief Justice of the concerned State High Court, and the leader of Opposition in the State Legislative Assembly, while making the appointments.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: A judge of a high court can be removed from his office by an order of the President on the recommendation of the Parliament. He can be removed from his office only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity. The procedure for the impeachment of a judge of a high court is the same as that for a judge of the Supreme Court.
• The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of a high court by the process of impeachment:-
• A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
• The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
• If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate into the charges.
• The committee should consist of
• the Chief Justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
• chief justice of a high court, and
• a distinguished jurist.-
• If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
• Statement 2 is correct: After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an address is presented to the president for removal of the judge. Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.
• Statement 3 is correct: No judge of a high court has been impeached, so far.

Solution (b)

Explanation:
The committee should consist of :

(a) the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court;

(b) a chief justice of a High Court; and

(c) a distinguished jurist. Hence option 2 and 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution, under Article 239AA, establishes the Union Territory of Delhi and its legislature. It does not provide for High Court of Delhi. High Court of Delhi was established by enacting the Delhi High Court Act, 1966.
• Statement 2 is not correct: Article 241 of the Constitution states that Parliament by law can establish High Court of any Union Territory. Hence no Constitutional amendment is required.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should have the following qualifications:
• He should be a citizen of India.
• He should have held a judicial office for 10 years in the territory of India.
• He should have been an advocate for 10 years of a high court (or high courts in succession).
• It is clear from the above statements that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of a high court.
• Moreover, unlike in the case of the Supreme Court, the Constitution makes no provision for appointment of a distinguished jurist as a judge of a high court
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of a high court. However, following provisions are made in this regard:
• He can hold office until he attains the age of 62 years. He may tender his resignation from his office by writing to the president of India.
• He can be removed from his office by the President of India on the recommendation of the Parliament.
• He vacates his office when he is transferred to another high court or appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. (Job tenure is the measure of the length of time an employee has been employed by his/her current employer. For Example the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is of 6 years with limitation of 65 years of age. Such limitation is not mentioned for Judges.)
• Statement 3 is correct: A person when appointed as a judge of a high court has to make and subscribe an oath before the governor of the state or some person appointed by him for this purpose, before entering upon his office.

Solution (c)

Deinococcus radiodurans is an extremophilic bacterium and one of the most radiation-resistant organisms known. It can survive cold, dehydration, vacuum, and acid, and therefore is known as a polyextremophile. D. radiodurans been genetically modified for bioremediation applications. A nanotechnological application of D. radiodurans in the synthesis of silver and gold. Researchers simulated the harsh ionising radiation on Mars in a new study where they found that Deinococcus Radiodurans could potentially survive close to the surface of the planet much longer than previously thought. They haven’t been used in vaccine development and nitrification as yet.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• These are regions on the sun’s surface from where fast solar wind gushes out into space. Because they contain little solar material, they have lower temperatures and thus appear much darker than their surroundings. The magnetic field is open to interplanetary space, sending solar material out in a high-speed stream of solar wind. Coronal holes can last between a few weeks to months.
• The holes are not a unique phenomenon, appearing throughout the sun’s approximately 11-year solar cycle. They can last much longer during solar minimum – a period of time when activity on the Sun is substantially diminished, according to NASA.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• CRISPR (Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) are short DNA sequences found in the genome of prokaryotic organisms such as bacteria, which are reminders of previous bacteriophage (viruses) attacks that the bacteria successfully defended against.
• Cas9 enzyme acts as molecular scissors to cut DNA at a location specified by a guide RNA, can bind to and cut the target DNA at very low temperatures. Cas9 (or “CRISPR-associated protein 9”) is an enzyme that uses CRISPR sequences as a guide to recognize and cleave specific strands of DNA that are complementary to the CRISPR sequence.
• Scientists of Raman Research Institute (RRI) have demonstrated that the Cas9 enzymes strongly bind to the target at very low temperatures and remains bound to the cleaved DNA products even after the enzyme has done its job.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an international organisation consisting of 23 states bordering the Indian Ocean. The IORA is a regional forum, tripartite in nature, bringing together representatives of Government, Business and Academia, for promoting co-operation and closer interaction among them.
• The Indian Ocean Research Group (IORG) and Western Indian Ocean Marine Science Association (WIOMSA) are observers at IORA
• IORA’s apex body is the Council of Foreign Ministers (COM) which meets annually. A committee of Senior Officials (CSO) meets twice a year to progress IORA’s agenda and consider recommendations by Working Groups and forums of officials, business and academics to implement policies and projects to improve the lives of people within the Indian Ocean Member States.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Cordy gold nanoparticles (Cor-AuNPs) is the outcome of a collaborative experiment by scientists from four Indian institutions, has earned an international patent from Germany. These nanoparticles, derived from the synthesis of the extracts of Cordyceps militaris and gold salts, could make drug delivery in the human body faster and surer.
• Cordyceps militarisis a high value parasitic fungus, is called super mushroom because of its tremendous medicinal properties, adds bioactive components to the synthesis of gold nanoparticles for better penetration. Gold salts are ionic chemical compounds of gold generally used in medicine. Wild Cordyceps mushroom is found in the eastern Himalayan belt.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together, during various years are:

In 1993 = Rs. (30 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs. 170 crores.

In 1994 = Rs. (60 + 40 + 90) crores = Rs. 190 crores.

In 1995 = Rs. (40 + 60 + 120) crores = Rs. 220 crores.

In 1996 = Rs. (70 + 60 + 90) crores = Rs. 220 crores.

In 1997 = Rs. (100 + 80 + 60) crores = Rs. 240 crores.

In 1998 = Rs. (50 + 100 + 80) crores = Rs. 230 crores.

In 1999 = Rs. (120 + 140 + 100) crores = Rs. 360 crores.

Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together are same during the years 1995 and 1996.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Analysis of the graph: From the graph it is clear that

1. The amount of exports of Company X (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 30, 60, 40, 70, 100, 50 and 120 respectively.
2. The amount of exports of Company Y (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 80, 40, 60, 60, 80, 100 and 140 respectively.
3. The amount of exports of Company Z (in crore Rs.) in the years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 60, 90,, 120, 90, 60, 80 and 100 respectively.

Average annual exports (in Rs. crore) of Company Y during the given period

= 1/7 *( 80 + 40 + 60 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 140) = 560/7 = 80

Average annual exports (in Rs. crore) of Company Z during the given period

= 1/7 * ( 60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100 ) = 600/7

Therefore, required percentage = [ 80 ]/ [ 600/7] = 93.33%

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The difference between the exports from the Companies X and Y during the various years are:

In 1993 = Rs. (80 – 30) crores = Rs. 50 crores.

In 1994 = Rs. (60 – 40) crores = Rs. 20 crores.

In 1995 = Rs. (60 – 40) crores = Rs. 20 crores.

In 1996 = Rs. (70 – 60) crores = Rs. 10 crores.

In 1997 = Rs. (100 – 80) crores = Rs. 20 crores.

In 1998 = Rs. (100 – 50) crores = Rs. 50 crores.

In 1999 = Rs. (140 – 120) crores = Rs. 20 crores.

Clearly, the difference is minimum in the year 1996.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Average annual exports of Company Z during the given period

= 1/7 * ( 60 + 90 + 120+ 90 + 60 + 80 + 100)

= Rs. [600/7] crores

= Rs. 85.71 crores

From the analysis of graph the exports of Company Z are more than the average annual exports of Company Z (i.e., Rs. 85.71 crores) during the years 1994, 1995, 1996 and 1999, i.e., during 4 of the given years.

Solution (b)

Explanation

Refer to, “the effects of urbanization and climate change are converging in ways which threaten to have unprecedented negative impacts on urban quality of life, and economic and social stability.”

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct and mentioned in the 2^nd and 3^rd paragraphs of the passage.

Hence, option b is correct.